Search Results

Search found 61241 results on 2450 pages for 'empty set'.

Page 416/2450 | < Previous Page | 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423  | Next Page >

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by user309029
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • StructureMap Issue in Initializing the Dependencies

    - by azamsharp
    I am performing some unit tests and want my MembershipProvider to initialize the dependencies. I run the following code before any test is executed [TestFixtureSetup]. public static void StructureMapConfiguration() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(InitializeUsingScanning); } private static void InitializeUsingScanning(IInitializationExpression obj) { obj.Scan( x => { x.Assembly("EStudyMongoDb.Business"); x.WithDefaultConventions(); } ); } Here is my EstablishContext method which is triggered before running any test: public override void EstablishContext() { _provider = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MongoDbMembershipProvider>(); _config.Add("applicationName", "EStudyApplication"); _config.Add("name", "EStudyMembershipProvider"); _config.Add("requiresQuestionAndAnswer", "false"); _provider.Initialize(_config["name"], _config); } Here is my test: [TestFixture] public class when_creating_a_new_user : specification_for_membership_provider { public override void When() { _user = _provider.CreateUser("johndoe", "password", "[email protected]", String.Empty, String.Empty, true, null, out _status); } [Test] public void should_create_successfully() { var vUser = Membership.GetUser(_user.UserName); Assert.IsNotNull(vUser); } } Now, in the Membership.GetUser method I try to access the _userRepository but I get null.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically created iframe not working on Safari

    - by mhammout
    I have a weird problem and I find no answer on google... I dynamically create and fullfil an iframe with jquery on a page. It works fine withFF and IE, but not with Safari. The iframe is created but empty (the message "greetings from the iframe !" is missing). Here is a piece of code to illustrate it : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr-fr" lang="fr-fr" > <head> <title>iframe</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var jFrame = $('<iframe id="myiframe" name="myiframe">'); jFrame.css({'height':'40px','width':'200px'}).appendTo($('#container')); $('#myiframe').load(function() { jFrame.contents().find("body").html('greetings from the iframe !'); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"></div> </body> </html> I really wonder why the iframe stays empty with Safari. It seems like if "contents()" was not well interpreted... Any idea ?

    Read the article

  • Building/Testing a Universal iPhone/iPad application

    - by psychotik
    I have a project configured (I think) to produce Universal binaries. The base SDK is set to 3.2 and the Deployment Target is set to 3.1. Target Device Family is iPhone/iPad and the architecture is armv6 armv7. I had a few questions about how this Universal binary thing really works: 1) When I want to submit an app binary for review, what configuration should I set as the build target? If I set it as "Device - 3.1" I get a warning which says "warning: building with Targeted Device Family" that includes iPad('1,2') requires building with the 3.2 or later SDK". However, if I build with SDK 3.2, will it still run on iPhones with OS 3.1? What's the right configuration for device and architecture (arm6/arm7)? 2) How do I test the scenario above (built with SDK 3.2, but installed on a device running OS 3.1)? If I build with SDK 3.2, when I try to install it on a phone with OS 3.1, I get an error saying that the phone's OS isn't updated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

    - by Larry K
    MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

    Read the article

  • DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

    - by Lee
    So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

    Read the article

  • Detect TCP connection close when playing Flash video

    - by JoJo
    On the Flash client side, how do I detect when the server purposely closes the TCP connection to its video stream? I'll need to take action when this occurs - maybe attempt to restart the video or display an error message. Currently, the connection closing and the connection being slow look the same to me. The NetStream object ushers a NetStream.Play.Stop event in both cases. When the connection is slow, it usually recovers by itself within seconds. I wish to only take action when the connection is closed, not when it is slow. Here's how my general setup looks like. It's the basic NetConnection-NetStream-Video setup. this.vidConnection = new NetConnection(); this.vidConnection.addEventListener(AsyncErrorEvent.ASYNC_ERROR, this.connectionAsyncError); this.vidConnection.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, this.connectionIoError); this.vidConnection.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, this.connectionNetStatus); this.vidConnection.connect(null); this.vidStream = new NetStream(this.vidConnection); this.vidStream.addEventListener(AsyncErrorEvent.ASYNC_ERROR, this.streamAsyncError); this.vidStream.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, this.streamIoError); this.vidStream.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, this.streamNetStatus); this.vid.attachNetStream(this.vidStream); None of the error events fire when the server closes the TCP or when the connection freezes up. Only the NetStream.Play.Stop event fires. Here's a trace of what happens from initially playing the video to the TCP connection closing. connection net status = NetConnection.Connect.Success playStream(http://192.168.0.44/flv/4d29104a9aefa) NetStream.Play.Start NetStream.Buffer.Flush NetStream.Buffer.Full NetStream.Buffer.Empty checkDimensions 0 0 onMetaData NetStream.Buffer.Full NetStream.Buffer.Flush checkDimensions 960 544 NetStream.Buffer.Empty NetStream.Buffer.Flush NetStream.Play.Stop

    Read the article

  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

    Read the article

  • How to use VBA to colour pie chart

    - by Timon Heinomann
    I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

    Read the article

  • Ajax UpdatePanels scroll on partial page update.

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

    Read the article

  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

    Read the article

  • .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

    - by Phillip Theriault
    I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Sencha touch 2/ app workflow with navigation view

    - by eplatonov
    I am trying to understand how can I implement the same functionality which provides navigation view in sencha touch 2, but .... Each item of the 'Ext.NavigationView' component should have it's own unique set of 'navigationBar' elements. I mean set of buttons, for example. I know that I can do something like this: this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.removeAll(); this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.add(this.getSettingButton()); //where 'getSettingButton' predefined by me a button And do this action each time when 'push' event happens (clear 'navigationBar' and add appropriate set of buttons) Of course, I even can implement 'Ext.Panel' with 'layout: card' and set of 'Ext.panel' elements in the 'items' property, each of which will be have unique 'toolbar'. To control the behavior I can use 'setActiveItem' method. But, I think each of these approaches is a bit weird, isn't it? I expected that would be much more natural approach to implement it. Most likely I don't know what I need. Confirm my doubts. What is the best way to do it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

    - by Deniz Dogan
    For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

    - by Zhok
    Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

    Read the article

  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

    Read the article

  • preparing SMS app for Android KitKat

    - by Pmsc
    in agreement with the recent post from Android Developers http://android-developers.blogspot.pt/2013/10/getting-your-sms-apps-ready-for-kitkat.html ,I was trying to prepare my app to the new android version, but encountered a problem with the part they suggest to create a dialog to let the user set the app as the default application to handle SMS's : Android Developers Post public class ComposeSmsActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); final String myPackageName = getPackageName(); if (!Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage(this).equals(myPackageName)) { // App is not default. // Show the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); // Set up a button that allows the user to change the default SMS app Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.change_default_app); button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(Telephony.Sms.Intents.ACTION_CHANGE_DEFAULT); intent.putExtra(Telephony.Sms.Intents.EXTRA_PACKAGE_NAME, myPackageName); startActivity(intent); } }); } else { // App is the default. // Hide the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } } the code itself in pretty much straightforward, but I'm unable to access to Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage because it says that Telephony cannot be resolved, and I can't find any import or declaration that would fix that. Can anyone please help? Thanks in advanced.

    Read the article

  • 404 when getting private YouTube video even when logged in with the owner's account using gdata-pyth

    - by Gonzalo
    If a YouTube video is set as private and I try to fetch it using the gdata Python API a 404 RequestError is raised, even though I have done a programmatic login with the account that owns that video: from gdata.youtube import service yt_service = service.YouTubeService(email=my_email, password=my_password, client_id=my_client_id, source=my_source, developer_key=my_developer_key) yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() yt_service.GetYouTubeVideoEntry(video_id='IcVqemzfyYs') --------------------------------------------------------------------------- RequestError Traceback (most recent call last) <ipython console> /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/youtube/service.pyc in GetYouTubeVideoEntry(self, uri, video_id) 203 elif video_id and not uri: 204 uri = '%s/%s' % (YOUTUBE_VIDEO_URI, video_id) --> 205 return self.Get(uri, converter=gdata.youtube.YouTubeVideoEntryFromString) 206 207 def GetYouTubeContactFeed(self, uri=None, username='default'): /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/service.pyc in Get(self, uri, extra_headers, redirects_remaining, encoding, converter) 1100 'body': result_body} 1101 else: -> 1102 raise RequestError, {'status': server_response.status, 1103 'reason': server_response.reason, 'body': result_body} 1104 RequestError: {'status': 404, 'body': 'Video not found', 'reason': 'Not Found'} This happens every time, unless I go into my YouTube account (through the YouTube website) and set it public, after that I can set it as private and back to public using the Python API. Am I missing a step or is there another (or any) way to fetch a YouTube video set as private from the API? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Reporting: Setting subreport parameters in code

    - by Svish
    How can I set a parameter of a sub-report? I have successfully hooked myself up to the SubreportProcessing event, I can find the correct sub-report through e.ReportPath, and I can add datasources through e.DataSources.Add. But I find no way of adding report parameters?? I have found people suggesting to add them to the master report, but I don't really want to do that, since the master report shouldn't have to be connected to the sub-report at all, other than that it is wrapping the sub-report. I am using one report as a master template, printing name of the report, page numbers etc. And the subreport is going to be the report itself. And if I could only find a way to set those report parameters of the sub-report I would be good to go... Clarification: Creating/Defining the parameters is not the problem. The problem is to set their values. I thought the natural thing to do was to do it in the SubreportProcessing event. And the SubreportProcessingEventArgs do in fact have a Parameters property. But it is read only! So how do you use that? How can I set their value?

    Read the article

  • Association and model data saving problem

    - by Zhlobopotam
    Developing with cakephp 1.3 (latest from github). There are 2 models bind with hasAndBelongsToMany: documents and tags. Document can have many tags in other words. I've add a new document submitting form there user can enter a list of tags separated with commas (new tag will be added, if not exist already). I looked at cakephp bakery 2.0 source code on github and found the solution. But it seems that something is wrong. class Document extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Tag'); public function beforeSave($options = array()) { if (isset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']) && !empty($this- >data[$this->alias]['tags'])) { $tagIds = $this->Tag->saveDocTags($this->data[$this->alias] ['tags']); unset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']); $this->data[$this->Tag->alias][$this->Tag->alias] = $tagIds; } return true; } } class Tag extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ('Document'); public function saveDocTags($commalist = '') { if ($commalist == '') return null; $tags = explode(',',$commalist); if (empty($tags)) return null; $existing = $this->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array('title' => $tags) )); $return = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/id'); if (sizeof($existing) == sizeof($tags)) { return $return; } $existing = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/title'); foreach ($tags as $tag) { if (!in_array($tag, $existing)) { $this->create(array('title' => $tag)); $this->save(); $return[] = $this->id; } } return $return; } } So, new tags creation works well but document model can't save association data and tells: SQL Error: 1054: Unknown column 'Array' in 'field list' Query: INSERT INTO documents (title, content, shortnfo, date, status) VALUES ('Document with tags', '', '', Array, 1) Any ideas how to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Using a NSMutableArry in the AppDelegate as a Global Variable

    - by aahrens
    What i'm trying to accomplish is to have an NSMutableArray defined in the AppDelegate. I then have two UIViewControllers. One view is responsible for displaying the array from the AppDelegate. The other view is used to add items to the array. So the array starts out to be empty. View1 doesn't display anything because the array is empty. The User goes to View2 and adds an item to the array in AppDelegate. Then when the user goes back to View1 it now displays one item. Here is how I'm trying to accomplish this @interface CalcAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; UITabBarController *tabBarController; NSMutableArray *globalClasses; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *globalClasses; My other view In the viewDidload I set the array in my View to be the one in the AppDelegate. In an effort to retain values. allCourses = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; CalcAppDelegate *appDelegate = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; allCourses = appDelegate.globalClasses; Then I would update my allCourses array by adding a new item. Then try to set the array in the AppDelegate to be equal to the modified one. CalcAppDelegate *appDel = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSLog(@"Size before reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); appDel.globalClasses = allCourses; NSLog(@"Size after reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); What I'm seeing that's returned is 2 in the before, and 2 after. So it doesn't appear to be getting updated properly. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • PHP script not automatically updating when moved to another server

    - by user32007
    A friend built a ranking system on his site and I am trying to host in on mine via WordPress and Go Daddy. It updates for him but when I load it to my site, it works for 6 hours, but as soon as the reload is supposed to occur, it errors and I get a 500 timeout error. His page is at: jeremynoeljohnson .com/yakezieclub My page is currently at http://sweatingthebigstuff.com/yakezieclub but when you ?reload=1 it will give the error. Any idea why this might be happening? Any settings that I might need to change? Here is the top of the index.php file. I'm not sure which part of any of it is messing up. I literally uploaded the same code as him. Here's the reload part: $cachefile = "rankings.html"; $daycachefile = "rankings_history.xml"; $cachetime = (60 * 60) * 6; // every 6 hours, the cache refreshes $daycachetime = (60 * 60) * 24; // every 24 hours, the history will be written to // - or whenever the page is requested after 24 hours has passed $writenewdata = false; if (!empty($_GET['reload'])) { if ($_GET['reload']== 1) { $cachetime = 1; } } if (!empty($_GET['reloadhistory'])) { if ($_GET['reloadhistory'] == 1) { $daycachetime = 1; $cachetime = 1; } } if (file_exists($daycachefile) && (time() - $daycachetime < filemtime($daycachefile))) { // Do nothing } else { $writenewdata = true; $cachetime = 1; } // Serve from the cache if it is younger than $cachetime if (file_exists($cachefile) && (time() - $cachetime < filemtime($cachefile))) { include($cachefile); echo "<!-- Cached ".date('jS F Y H:i', filemtime($cachefile))." -->"; exit; } ob_start(); // start the output buffer ?>

    Read the article

  • How should backbone.js handle a GET request that returns no results?

    - by Nyxynyx
    I have a number of text input elements that when its values are changed, will trigger a fetch on listingListView's collection listingCollection, which then updates listingListView with the new data via the function listingListView.refreshList as shown below. I am using PHP/Codeigniter to expose a RESTful API. Problem: Everything works fine if there are results retrieved from the fetch(). However, when the filters results in no result being returned, how should the server side and the client side handle it? Currently Chrome's javascript console displays a 404 error and in the Network tab, the XHR request is highlighted in red. All I want to do in the event of zero results returned, is to blank the listingListView and show a message like (No results returned) and not throw any errors in the javascript console. Thanks! PHP Code function listings_get() { // Get filters $price_min = $this->get('price_min'); $this->load->model('app_model'); $results = $this->app_model->get_listings($price_min); if($results) $this->response($results); else $this->response(NULL); } JS Code window.ListingListView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'table', initialize: function() { this.model.bind('reset', this.refreshList, this); this.model.bind('add', function(listing) { $(this.el).append(new ListingListItemView({ model: listing }).render().el); }, this); }, render: function() { _.each(this.model.models, function(listing) { $(this.el).append(new ListingListItemView({ model: listing }).render().el); }, this); return this; }, close: function() { $(this.el).unbind(); $(this.el).empty(); }, refreshList: function() { $(this.el).empty(); this.render(); } });

    Read the article

  • Asymptotic runtime of list-to-tree function

    - by Deestan
    I have a merge function which takes time O(log n) to combine two trees into one, and a listToTree function which converts an initial list of elements to singleton trees and repeatedly calls merge on each successive pair of trees until only one tree remains. Function signatures and relevant implementations are as follows: merge :: Tree a -> Tree a -> Tree a --// O(log n) where n is size of input trees singleton :: a -> Tree a --// O(1) empty :: Tree a --// O(1) listToTree :: [a] -> Tree a --// Supposedly O(n) listToTree = listToTreeR . (map singleton) listToTreeR :: [Tree a] -> Tree a listToTreeR [] = empty listToTreeR (x:[]) = x listToTreeR xs = listToTreeR (mergePairs xs) mergePairs :: [Tree a] -> [Tree a] mergePairs [] = [] mergePairs (x:[]) = [x] mergePairs (x:y:xs) = merge x y : mergePairs xs This is a slightly simplified version of exercise 3.3 in Purely Functional Data Structures by Chris Okasaki. According to the exercise, I shall now show that listToTree takes O(n) time. Which I can't. :-( There are trivially ceil(log n) recursive calls to listToTreeR, meaning ceil(log n) calls to mergePairs. The running time of mergePairs is dependent on the length of the list, and the sizes of the trees. The length of the list is 2^h-1, and the sizes of the trees are log(n/(2^h)), where h=log n is the first recursive step, and h=1 is the last recursive step. Each call to mergePairs thus takes time (2^h-1) * log(n/(2^h)) I'm having trouble taking this analysis any further. Can anyone give me a hint in the right direction?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423  | Next Page >