Search Results

Search found 61241 results on 2450 pages for 'empty set'.

Page 418/2450 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

    Read the article

  • Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

    - by Anonymouslemming
    Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • GL_COLOR_MATERIAL with lighting on Android

    - by kostmo
    It appears that glColorMaterial() is absent from OpenGL ES. According to this post (for iPhone), you may still enable GL_COLOR_MATERIAL in OpenGL ES 1.x, but you're stuck with the default settings of GL_FRONT_AND_BACK and GL_AMBIENT_AND_DIFFUSE that you would otherwise set with glColorMaterial(). I would be OK with this, but the diffuse lighting is not working correctly. I set up my scene and tested it with one light, setting glMaterialfv() for GL_AMBIENT and GL_DIFFUSE once in the initialization. The normals have been set correctly, and lighting works the way it's supposed to. I see the Gourad shading. With GL_LIGHTING disabled, the flat colors I have set with glColor4f() appear on the various objects in the scene. This also functions as expected. However, when glEnable(GL_COLOR_MATERIAL) is called, the flat colors remain. I would expect to see the lighting effects. What might be missing? glColorMaterial() is also mentioned on anddev.org, but I'm not sure if the information there is accurate. I'm testing this on an Android 2.1 handset (Motorola Droid). Edit: It works properly on my 1.6 handset (ADP1).

    Read the article

  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

    Read the article

  • Suppressing PostSharp Multicast with Attribute

    - by Dan Bryant
    I've recently started experimenting with PostSharp and I found a particularly helpful aspect to automate implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged. You can see the example here. The basic functionality is excellent (all properties will be notified), but there are cases where I might want to suppress notification. For instance, I might know that a particular property is set once in the constructor and will never change again. As such, there is no need to emit the code for NotifyPropertyChanged. The overhead is minimal when classes are not frequently instantiated and I can prevent the problem by switching from an automatically generated property to a field-backed property and writing to the field. However, as I'm learning this new tool, it would be helpful to know if there is a way to tag a property with an attribute to suppress the code generation. I'd like to be able to do something like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public class MyClass { public double SomeValue { get; set; } public double ModifiedValue { get; private set; } [SuppressNotify] public double OnlySetOnce { get; private set; } public MyClass() { OnlySetOnce = 1.0; } }

    Read the article

  • Compiling gstreamer plugin in windows

    - by utnapistim
    Hello all, My question: What is the correct way to compile a gstreamer plugin in windows, so that it will be accepted by gstreamer (actually Songbird on top of gstreamer). My setup: I have downloaded the songbird sources following the steps described here and I have a trunk/dependencies/windows-i686-msvc8 directory within my svn sources with all the gstreamer binaries. I have created a gstreamer empty plugin skeleton following the steps detailed in the GStreamer Plugin Writer's Guide, and compiled it against the gstreamer binaries in the Songbird dependencies folder. The compilation was done with VS2010 RC1 (Visual Studio 2008 yelded the same results), using an empty DLL project with the .h and .c files generated using the GStreamer Plugin Writer's Guide. The DLL was lined with libcpmt.lib, libcmt.lib, ws2_32.lib, gobject-2.0.lib, gthread-2.0.lib, gstreamer-0.10-0.lib, glib-2.0.lib, kernel32.lib, nspr4.lib and ignoring all default libraries. I have compiled the files as both .c and .cpp with the same results. Testing: I have installed the Songbird binaries corresponding to the correct svn version, then installed Songbird Developer Tools addon and used it to create an addon for testing my gstreamer plugin. Songbird will not load the pluggin. I have also tried to load it with gst-launch.exe from the trunk/dependencies/windows-i686-msvc8/[...] directory and that generated runtime error R6034: An application has made an attempt to load the C runtime library incorrectly. Most resources I found for this problem recommended restarting or reinstalling windows :(.

    Read the article

  • Alpha animation bug on button

    - by RaiderJ
    I have animations that fade in a Button (alpha from 0 to 1) and fade out a button (alpha from 1 to 0). This part is all working fine. Button A triggers the fade in of Button B. Button B triggers the fade out of itself. Button B totally covers up Button A. The idea is that Button B contains an image that is used like an information popup. Button A is touched and Button B fades in on top. When Button B is touched it fades itself out again. Initially, Button B's visibility is set INVISIBLE and when the fade in animation is complete, it is set to VISIBLE. When Button B is clicked it fades out and then I set the visibility to INVISIBLE. The problem is that after Button B has faded out, and it is set INVISIBLE, it is still clickable and even though it is not visible, and touches are not received by Button A. I have tried removing Button B from the parent and re-adding it after the animation is completed, and this allows for touches to reach Button A, but only once. After that button B is not longer touchable.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

    Read the article

  • Raising event in custom control.

    - by SeSSiZ
    Hi all, I'm writing a custom textblock control thats populate hyperlinks and raises event when clicked to hyperlink. I wrote this code but I got stucked. My code is : Imports System.Text.RegularExpressions Public Class CustomTextBlock Inherits TextBlock Public Event Klik As EventHandler(Of EventArgs) Public ReadOnly InlineCollectionProperty As DependencyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("InlineCollection", GetType(String), GetType(CustomTextBlock), New PropertyMetadata(New PropertyChangedCallback(AddressOf CustomTextBlock.InlineChanged))) Private Shared Sub InlineChanged(ByVal sender As DependencyObject, ByVal e As DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs) DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Clear() Dim kelimeler = Split(e.NewValue, " ") For i = 0 To kelimeler.Length - 1 If Regex.Match(kelimeler(i), "(http|ftp|https):\/\/[\w\-_]+(\.[\w\-_]+)+([\w\-\.,@?^=%&amp;:/~\+#]*[\w\-\@?^=%&amp;/~\+#])?").Success Then Dim x = New Hyperlink(New Run(kelimeler(i))) x.AddHandler(Hyperlink.ClickEvent, New RoutedEventHandler(AddressOf t_Click)) x.ToolTip = kelimeler(i) x.Tag = kelimeler(i) DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(x) If Not i = kelimeler.Length Then DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(" ") Else DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(kelimeler(i)) If Not i = kelimeler.Length Then DirectCast(sender, CustomTextBlock).Inlines.Add(" ") End If ''//Console.WriteLine(kelime(i).ToString.StartsWith("@")) Next kelimeler = Nothing End Sub Public Property InlineCollection As String Get Return DirectCast(GetValue(InlineCollectionProperty), String) End Get Set(ByVal value As String) SetValue(InlineCollectionProperty, value) End Set End Property Private Shared Sub t_Click(ByVal sender As Hyperlink, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) e.Handled = True RaiseEvent Klik(sender, EventArgs.Empty) End Sub End Class This code gives error at RaiseEvent Klik(sender, EventArgs.Empty) Error is : Cannot refer to an instance member of a class from within a shared method or shared member initializer without an expliticit instance of the class. Thanks for your answers, Alper

    Read the article

  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Editing list properties using DataGridview

    - by toom
    Ok, I have my custom class: public class FileItem : INotifyPropertyChanged { int id=0; string value=""; public int Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; Changed("Id"); } } public string Value { get { return value; } set { this.value = value; Changed("Value"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void Changed(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } public BindingList<FileItem> FilesystemEntries = new BindingList<FileItem>(); And I have DatagridView1 with DataSource set to FilesystemEntries: binding.DataSource = FilesystemEntries; Already I can Add and remove rows - these chnages are reflected on collection. However, Value and Id are not saved into bidning list when i change them in DataGridView, id is always 0 and value is "". How can I make this work? Do I need to implement some interface to FileItem to allow editing properties? ReadOnly of DGV is set to false, same to all columns. Editing, Deleting and Changing are enabled.

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to use VBA to colour pie chart

    - by Timon Heinomann
    I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

    Read the article

  • Validating age field

    - by Marcelo
    Hi people, I'm trying to validate an age field in a form but I'm having some problem. First I tried to make sure that the field will not be send empty. I don't know JavaScript so I searched some scripts and adapted them to this: function isInteger (s) { var i; if (isEmpty(s)) if (isInteger.arguments.length == 1) return 0; else return (isInteger.arguments[1] == true); for (i = 0; i < s.length; i++) { var c = s.charAt(i); if (!isDigit(c)) return false; } return true; } function isEmpty(s) { return ((s == null) || (s.length == 0)) } function validate_required(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if ((validate_required(age,"Age must be filled out!")==false) || isInteger(age,"Age must be and int number")==false)) {email.focus();return false;} } } //html part <form action="doador.php" onsubmit="return validate_form(this)" method="post"> It's working fine for empty fields, but if I type any letters or characters in age field, it'll be sent and saved a 0 in my database. Can anyone help me? Sorry for any mistake in English, and thanks in anvance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Intellisense on custom types in Iron Python

    - by Anish Patel
    Hi everybody, I'm just starting to play around with IronPython and am having a hard time using it with custom types created in C#. I can get IronPython to load in assemblies from C# classes, but I'm struggling without the help of intellisense. If I have a class in C# as defined below, how can I make it so that IronPython will be able to see the methods/properties that are available in it? public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age{ get; set; } public double Weight{ get; set; } public double Height { get; set; } public double CalculateBMI() { return Weight/Math.Pow(Height, 2); } } In Iron python I'd instance a Person object as follows: newPerson = Person() newPerson.Name = 'John' newPerson.Age = 25 newPerson.Weight = 75 newPerson.Height = 1.70 newPerson.CalculateBMI() The thing that is annoying me is that I want to be able to say newPerson = Person() And then be able to see all the methods and properties associated with the person object whenever I type: newPerson. Anyone have any ideas if this can be done?

    Read the article

  • How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

    - by Slauma
    SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

    Read the article

  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

    Read the article

  • .net runtime type casting when using reflection

    - by Mike
    I have need to cast a generic list of a concrete type to a generic list of an interface that the concrete types implement. This interface list is a property on an object and I am assigning the value using reflection. I only know the value at runtime. Below is a simple code example of what I am trying to accomplish: public void EmployeeTest() { IList<Employee> initialStaff = new List<Employee> { new Employee("John Smith"), new Employee("Jane Doe") }; Company testCompany = new Company("Acme Inc"); //testCompany.Staff = initialStaff; PropertyInfo staffProperty = testCompany.GetType().GetProperty("Staff"); staffProperty.SetValue(testCompany, (staffProperty.PropertyType)initialStaff, null); } Classes are defined like so: public class Company { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } private IList<IEmployee> _staff; public IList<IEmployee> Staff { get { return _staff; } set { _staff = value; } } public Company(string name) { _name = name; } } public class Employee : IEmployee { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public Employee(string name) { _name = name; } } public interface IEmployee { string Name { get; set; } } Any thoughts? I am using .NET 4.0. Would the new covariant or contravariant features help? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

    - by Egahn
    I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Mail "Can't continue" for a AppleScript function

    - by Paul J. Lucas
    I'm trying to write an AppleScript for use with Mail (on Snow Leopard) to save image attachments of messages to a folder. The main part of the AppleScript is: property ImageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} property PicturesFolder : path to pictures folder as text property SaveFolderName : "Fetched" property SaveFolder : PicturesFolder & SaveFolderName tell application "Mail" set theMessages to the selection repeat with theMessage in theMessages repeat with theAttachment in every mail attachment of theMessage set attachmentFileName to theAttachment's name if isImageFileName(attachmentFileName) then set attachmentPathName to SaveFolder & attachmmentFileName save theAttachment in getNonexistantFile(attachmentPathName) end if end repeat end repeat end tell on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName When run, I get the error: error "Mail got an error: Can’t continue isImageFileName." number -1708 where error -1708 is: Event wasnt handled by an Apple event handler. However, if I copy/paste the isImageFileName() into another script like: property imageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName if isImageFileName("foo.jpg") then return true else return false end if it works fine. Why does Mail complain about this?

    Read the article

  • Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

    - by Emer
    Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

    Read the article

  • Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

    - by Zind
    The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

    Read the article

  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC 2 SPARK - Create "Add New Item" link in spark page.

    - by KarlBear
    I have a web form in SPARK which allow the editing of a Facility class that contains Rooms. When editing the Facility all the Rooms are listed for editing too. The form works fine for editing, but I would like to include a button "Add Room" that adds a new blank room below the existing ones. Any idea how this is accomplished? Currently I am doing this in my SPARK page: [All the Facility editing stuff...] <p>Room</p> <div class="small">Enter the rooms associated with this facility.</div> <div class="add"> <div id="room"> <AddFacilityRoom each="var roomModel in Model.FacilityRooms" RoomModel="roomModel" Index="roomModelIndex" /> </div> <a id="addRoom" class="add" href="events/room/add.mvc">Add a room</a> </div> AddFacilityRoom contains the html elements for editing a room. I would like add.mvc to create a new empty Room class and inject a new identical (but empty) control below the existing ones. Currently, though it opens a new page when the "Add a Room" button is clicked.

    Read the article

  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >