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• WPF: Editable ComboBox; how to make search/auto-fill functionality case sensitive?

  - by unforgiven3

  Say I have a ComboBox, like so: <ComboBox IsEditable="True" Height="30"> <ComboBoxItem>robot</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Robot</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> If a user comes along and starts by typing a lower-case 'r' into that ComboBox when it is empty, the ComboBox predictably auto-fills itself with the word 'robot'. Great. Now the same user comes along and starts typing an upper-case 'R' into that ComboBox when it is again empty. Unpredictable, the ComboBox auto-fills itself with the lower-case word 'robot'. Not great. I desperately want it to auto-fill itself with 'Robot', but WPF does not seem to want to smile down upon me. No matter what you do (CAPS lock, shift+key), the ComboBox will always auto-fill with the lower case 'robot', provided that the lower case 'robot' precedes the upper case 'Robot' in the ComboBox's items collection. Is there any way to prevent this? This behavior is maddening and makes for an absolutely abysmal user experience.

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• Problem with date_select when using :discard option. (Rails)

  - by MikeH

  I'm using a date_select with the option :discard_year => true If a user selects a date in the date select, and then he comes back and returns the select to the prompt values of Month and Day, Rails automatically sets the select values to January 1. I know this is the intended functionality if a month is selected and a day is left blank, but that's not the case here. In my example, the user sets both the month and day back to the prompt. By Rails forcing January 1, I'm getting bad results. I've tried every parameter available in the api. :default = nil, :include_blank = true. None of those change the behavior I'm describing. I've isolated the root of the problem, which is this: Because I'm discarding the :year parameter, when the user tries to return the month and day to the prompt values, Rails doesn't see an empty prompt select. It perhaps sees a year selected with empty month and day, which it then sets to January 1. This is the case because the :discard_year parameter does in fact set a date in the database, it just removes it from the view. How can I code around this problem?

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• Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

  - by maddy

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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• Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

  - by user309029

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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• .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

  - by Phillip Theriault

  I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

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• Custom Model Validator for MVC

  - by scottrakes

  I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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• Using max-width = 100% and max-height = 100% on an image, calculate the display width/height

  - by NatalieMac

  I am creating a slideshow for images of various sizes to display centered vertically and horizontally within a canvas area. In my CSS, I set the width and height of the image to 100% so that each image would proportionally fill the canvas. I want the canvas to auto-size itself to fit within the viewer's screensize as the original size of the images is quite large (up to 800 pixels tall). I am using jQuery 1.4, and using the height of the image to calculate the top value for absolute positioning it to the middle of the canvas. I have tried using jQuery to get the .height(), innerHeight(), and outerHeight(), but it always gets the full size of the image. I extracted the DOM element from the jQuery object and tried using .width, .offsetWidth, and .clientWidth, but that too always seems to return the full size of the image. Firebug displays the correct dimensions, so I know there's some way of calculating the actual display height of the image, I just can't figure out what it is. How do you get the actual display height of an image if you've set max-height = 100%? I didn't want to have to calculate and set the height of each image in the js, but if I have to, I will. It just seems like I should be able to set the canvas size and have the images auto-adjust.

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• Bidirectional replication update record problem

  - by Mirek

  Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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• Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

  - by Mathias Koch

  Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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• Rails Active Record Mysql find query HAVING clause

  - by meetraghu28

  Is there a way to use the HAVING clause in some other way without using group by. I am using rails and following is a sample sccenario of the problem that i am facing. In rails you can use the Model.find(:all,:select,conditions,:group) function to get data. In this query i can specify a having clause in the :group param. But what if i dont have a group by clause but want to have a having clause in the result set. Ex: Lets take a query select sum(x) as a,b,c from y where "some_conditions" group by b,c; This query has a sum() aggregation on one of the fields. No if there is nothing to aggregate then my result should be an empty set. But mysql return a NULL row. So this problem can be solved by using select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions" group by b having a NOT NULL; but what happens in case i dont have a group by clause?? a query like below select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions"; so how to specify that sum(x) should not be NULL? Any solution that would return an empty set in this case instead of a NULL row will help and also that solution should be doable in rails. We can use subqueries to get this condition working with sumthin like this select * from ((select sum(x) as b FROM y where "some_condition") as subq) where subq.b is not null; but is there a better way to do this thru sql/rails ??

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• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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• C# reflection, cloning

  - by Enriquev

  Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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• Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

  - by Snowright

  Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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• Stored procedure using cursor in mySql.

  - by RAVI

  I wrote a stored procedure using cursor in mysql but that procedure is taking 10 second to fetch the result while that result set have only 450 records so, I want to know that why that proedure is taking that much time to fetch tha record. procedure as below: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS curdemo123// CREATE PROCEDURE curdemo123(IN Branchcode int,IN vYear int,IN vMonth int) BEGIN DECLARE EndOfData,tempamount INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempsaledate CHAR(12); DECLARE tempspot_rate DOUBLE; DECLARE var1,totalrow INT DEFAULT 1; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR select SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS ad.agentCode,ad.planType,ad.amount,ad.date from adplan_detailstbl ad where ad.branchCode=Branchcode and (ad.date between '2009-12-1' and '2009-12-31')order by ad.NUM_ID asc; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET EndOfData = 1; DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS temptable; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temptable (agent_code varchar(15), plan_type char(12),sale double,spot_rate double default '0.0', dATE DATE); OPEN cur1; SET totalrow=FOUND_ROWS(); while var1 <= totalrow DO fetch cur1 into tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate; IF((tempplantype='Unit Plan' OR tempplantype='MIP') OR tempplantype='STUP') then select spotRate into tempspot_rate from spot_amount where ((monthCode=vMonth and year=vYear) and ((agentCode=tempagent_code and branchCode=Branchcode) and (planType=tempplantype))); INSERT INTO temptable VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempspot_rate,tempsaledate); else INSERT INTO temptable(agent_code,plan_type,sale,dATE) VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate); END IF; SET var1=var1+1; END WHILE; CLOSE cur1; select * from temptable; DROP TABLE temptable; END // DELIMITER ;

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• backbone.js removing template from DOM upon success

  - by timpone

  I'm writing a simple message board app to learn backbone. It's going ok (a lot of the use of this isn't making sense) but am a little stuck in terms of how I would remove a form / html from the dom. I have included most of the code but you can see about 4 lines up from the bottom, the part that isn't working. How would I remove this from the DOM? thx in advance var MbForm=Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click button.add-new-post': 'savePost' }, el: $('#detail'), template:_.template($('#post-add-edit-tmpl').html()), render: function(){ var compiled_template = this.template(); this.$el.html(compiled_template); return this; }, savePost: function(e){ //var self=this; //console.log("I want you to say Hello!"); data={ header: $('#post_header').val(), detail: $('#post_detail').val(), forum_id: $('#forum_id').val(), post_id: $('#post_id').val(), parent_id: $('#parent_id').val() }; this.model.save(data, { success: function(){ alert('this saved'); //$(this.el).html('this is what i want'); this.$el.remove();// <- this is the part that isn't working /* none of these worked - error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'unbind' of undefined this.$el.unbind(); this.$el.empty(); this.el.unbind(); this.el.empty(); */ //this.unbind(); //self.append('this is appended'); } });

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• how do I get eclipse to use a different compiler version for Java?

  - by codeman73

  It seems like this should be a simple task, with the options in the Preferences menu for different JREs and the ability to set different compiler and build paths per project. However, it also seems to simply not work. For example, I have my JAVA_HOME set to a jre for Java 1.6. It's still not clear to me how Eclipse uses this, but it appears to be defaulting to this and not taking the project overrides. I have also installed Java 1.5, and added a JRE for this in eclipse in the Java-Installed JREs section. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 1.5. In the build path for the project, I've added the System Library for the Java 1.5 JRE. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 1.5, it instead uses 1.6. Any ideas why?

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• Can can I reference extended methods/params without having to cast from the base class object return

  - by Greg

  Hi, Is there away to not have a "cast" the top.First().Value() return to "Node", but rather have it automatically assume this (as opposed to NodeBase), so I then see extended attributes for the class I define in Node? That is is there a way to say: top.Nodes.First().Value.Path; as opposed to now having to go: ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path) thanks [TestMethod()] public void CreateNoteTest() { var top = new Topology(); Node node = top.CreateNode("a"); node.Path = "testpath"; Assert.AreEqual("testpath", ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path); // *** HERE *** } class Topology : TopologyBase<string, Node, Relationship> { } class Node : NodeBase<string> { public string Path { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } } public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } }

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• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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• Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

  - by Chris R

  I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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• Asymptotic runtime of list-to-tree function

  - by Deestan

  I have a merge function which takes time O(log n) to combine two trees into one, and a listToTree function which converts an initial list of elements to singleton trees and repeatedly calls merge on each successive pair of trees until only one tree remains. Function signatures and relevant implementations are as follows: merge :: Tree a -> Tree a -> Tree a --// O(log n) where n is size of input trees singleton :: a -> Tree a --// O(1) empty :: Tree a --// O(1) listToTree :: [a] -> Tree a --// Supposedly O(n) listToTree = listToTreeR . (map singleton) listToTreeR :: [Tree a] -> Tree a listToTreeR [] = empty listToTreeR (x:[]) = x listToTreeR xs = listToTreeR (mergePairs xs) mergePairs :: [Tree a] -> [Tree a] mergePairs [] = [] mergePairs (x:[]) = [x] mergePairs (x:y:xs) = merge x y : mergePairs xs This is a slightly simplified version of exercise 3.3 in Purely Functional Data Structures by Chris Okasaki. According to the exercise, I shall now show that listToTree takes O(n) time. Which I can't. :-( There are trivially ceil(log n) recursive calls to listToTreeR, meaning ceil(log n) calls to mergePairs. The running time of mergePairs is dependent on the length of the list, and the sizes of the trees. The length of the list is 2^h-1, and the sizes of the trees are log(n/(2^h)), where h=log n is the first recursive step, and h=1 is the last recursive step. Each call to mergePairs thus takes time (2^h-1) * log(n/(2^h)) I'm having trouble taking this analysis any further. Can anyone give me a hint in the right direction?

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• Dynamic ExpandableListView

  - by JLB

  Can anyone tell me how I can Dynamically add groups & children to an ExpandableListView. The purpose is to create a type of task list that I can add new items/groups to. I can populate the view with pre-filled arrays but of course can't add to them to populate the list further. The other method i tried was using the SimpleExpandableListAdapter. Using this i am able to add groups from a List but when it comes to adding children i can only add 1 item per group. public List<Map<String, String>> groupData = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); public List<List<Map<String, String>>> childData = new ArrayList<List<Map<String, String>>>(); public void addGroup(String group) { Map curGroupMap = new HashMap(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put(NAME, group); //Add an empty child or else the app will crash when group is expanded. List<Map<String, String>> children = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); Map<String, String> curChildMap = new HashMap<String, String>(); children.add(curChildMap); curChildMap.put(NAME, "EMPTY"); childData.add(children); updateAdapter(); } public void addChild(String child) { List children = new ArrayList(); Map curChildMap = new HashMap(); children.add(curChildMap); curChildMap.put(NAME, child); curChildMap.put(IS_EVEN, "This child is even"); childData.add(activeGroup, children); updateAdapter(); }

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• Cascading DropDown List in MVC 4

  - by Misi

  I have a ASP.NET MVC 4 project with EF I have a table with Parteners. This table has 2 types of parteners : agents(part_type=1) and clients(part_type=2). In an Create view I have the first DropDownList that shows all my agents, a button and the second DDL that shows all my clients that correspond to the selected agent. Q1 : What button shoud I use ? , , @Html.ActionLink() ? Create.cshtml <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("idagenti", ViewData["idagenti"] as List<SelectListItem>, String.Empty) </div> @*a button*@ <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.id_parten, "Client") </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("id_parten", String.Empty) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.id_parten) </div> OrdersController.cs public ActionResult Create(int? id) // id is the selected agent { var agqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 1).Where(p => p.activ == true); var cltqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 2).Where(p => p.activ == true); List<SelectListItem> idagenti = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (partener ag in agqry) { idagenti.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = ag.den_parten, Value = ag.id_parten.ToString() }); } if (id != null) { cltqry = cltqry.Where(p => p.par_parten == id); } ViewData["idagenti"] = idagenti; ViewBag.id_parten = new SelectList(cltqry, "id_parten", "den_parten");// } Q: How can I pass the selected agent id from the first DDL to my controller ?

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• Ldap_add() : Invalid Syntax

  - by Suezy

  I have a program here that uses the ldap_add, when i try to run the program, it displays an error: Warning: ldap_add() [function.ldap-add]: Add: Invalid syntax in /var/www/suey/costcenter.20090617.php on line 780 My lil' code here is: $ldapservers='ourServer'; $ds = ldap_connect($ldapservers); if ($ds){ $r = ldap_bind($ds, $ldaprootun, $ldaprootpw); $add = ldap_add($ds, "uid=$fuid, $ldapbasedn", $infonew); } ldapbasedn is set to o=ourGroup; infonew is an array of entries (person information) and am so sure that the array is not empty because i already tested it. the uid is not empty too. What could be wrong? Is it the entries(array)? or the server am trying to connect to? I tried testing the ldap_bind, and it also works well too..hmmm.. Pls help.. thanks! I found the problem.. it's in the index infonew["createdBy"] = getenv("REMOTE_USER"); it returns NULL! now, is that right?

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• Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

  - by Jaco Pretorius

  For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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• Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

  - by Jon Erickson

  I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

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