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• kick off a map reduce job from my java/mysql webapp

  - by Brian

  Hi guys, I need a bit of archecture advice. I have a java based webapp, with a JPA based ORM backed onto a mysql relational database. Now, as part of the application I have a batch job that compares thousands of database records with each other. This job has become too time consuming and needs to be parallelized. I'm looking at using mapreduce and hadoop in order to do this. However, I'm not too sure about how to integrate this into my current architecture. I think the easiest initial solution is to find a way to push data from mysql into hadoop jobs. I have done some initial research on this and found the following relevant information and possibilities: 1) https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/HADOOP-2536 this gives an interesting overview of some inbuilt JDBC support 2) This article http://architects.dzone.com/articles/tools-moving-sql-database describes some third party tools to move data from mysql to hadoop. To be honest I'm just starting out with learning about hbase and hadoop but I really don't know how to integrate this into my webapp. Any advice is greatly appreciated. cheers, Brian

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• LaTeX hyperref link goes to wrong page

  - by ecto

  I am trying to create a reference to a float that doesn't use a caption. If I include \label{foo} within the float and reference it using \pageref{foo}, the correct page number is displayed in my pdf document but the hyperlink created by the hyperref package links to a different page (the first page of the section). If I include a caption before the label in the float, the hyperref link goes to the correct page. Is there a way to get the hyperref link to work correctly without including a caption in the float? Or else is there a way to suppress the display of a caption so I can include one without it being shown? Below is a minimal example. If I process it using pdflatex, I get three pages. The "figure" is shown on the second page, and the third page says "See figure on page 2." But the hyperlink on the '2' says "Go to page 1", and if I click it it takes me to page 1. If I put an empty \caption{} before the \label{foo}, then the hyperlink works correctly, but I don't want to show a caption for my float. \documentclass[11pt]{memoir} \usepackage{hyperref} \begin{document} some text \clearpage \begin{figure} a figure \label{foo} \end{figure} more text \clearpage See figure on page \pageref{foo}. \end{document}

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• Dynamic Column that contains a Repeater

  - by djbyter

  How would I go about doing this programatically? I can do this just fine declaratively, using a template column and then using something like this: ... <TemplateGridColumn> <ItemTemplate> <div> <asp:Image ID="groupImg" CssClass="groupImg" runat="server"/> <asp:Repeater ID="groupItemRpt" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <ul class="groupItemList"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:Image ID="itemImg" runat="server" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="itemValue" runat="server" /> </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </ul> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> </ItemTemplate> </TemplateGridColumn> ... I am dynamically creating this grid based on the data, so I'm already added columns with one set of controls. But now I need to figure out how to show multiple images, which expand/contract if the groupImg image control is clicked (i just toggle the ul) .. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks.

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• JVM terminates when launching eclipse with J2SE 6.0 on mac os x (need J2SE 6.0 for Oracle enterprise

  - by rooban bajwa

  I know my issue has party been addressed at this link http://stackoverflow.com/questions/245803/jvm-terminates-when-launching-eclipse-mat-on-mac-os-with-j2se-60 but it was a year+ ago.. plus the link that's provided in there http://landonf.bikemonkey.org/static/soylatte/ does not seem to be alive (i mean the download section on that link no longer provide the 32-bit port of j2se 6.0 for mac osx 10.5) I am trying to run eclipse 3.5 on mac OSX 10.5. It works fine with J2SE 5.0. But when I installed the Oracle enterprise pack for eclipse - it requires to start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM otherwise it will get disabled. Here's the exact message I get from it - "You are running Eclipse on Java VM version: 1.5.0_22 Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse requires Java version 6 or higher. Click next to configure a compatible Java VM." It asks me to point to J2SE 6.0 JVM, when I do that (i.e point it to "/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home") , it asks to restart eclipse , when I do that, eclipse just bombs .. with JVM terminated error .. SO I need to start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM but eclipse needs carbon which is only available in 32 bits and hence I cann't start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM which is only available in 64bit mode from mac. And the site providing 32 bit port of J2SE 6.0 JVM does not seem to be active anymore.. Can someone help me on this issue, Thanks in advance,

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• How can I make a WPF combo box have the width of its widest element in XAML ?

  - by csuporj

  I know how to do it in code, but can this be done in XAML ? Window1.xaml: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <ComboBox Name="ComboBox1" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <ComboBoxItem>ComboBoxItem1</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>ComboBoxItem2</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> </Grid> </Window> Window1.xaml.cs: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; namespace WpfApplication1 { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); double width = 0; foreach (ComboBoxItem item in ComboBox1.Items) { item.Measure(new Size( double.PositiveInfinity, double.PositiveInfinity)); if (item.DesiredSize.Width > width) width = item.DesiredSize.Width; } ComboBox1.Measure(new Size( double.PositiveInfinity, double.PositiveInfinity)); ComboBox1.Width = ComboBox1.DesiredSize.Width + width; } } }

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• How can I read a DBF file with incorrectly defined column data types using ADO.NET?

  - by Jason

  I have a several DBF files generated by a third party that I need to be able to query. I am having trouble because all of the column types have been defined as characters, but the data within some of these fields actually contain binary data. If I try to read these fields using an OleDbDataReader as anything other than a string or character array, I get an InvalidCastException thrown, but I need to be able to read them as a binary value or at least cast/convert them after they are read. The columns that actually DO contain text are being returned as expected. For example, the very first column is defined as a character field with a length of 2 bytes, but the field contains a 16-bit integer. I have written the following test code to read the first column and convert it to the appropriate data type, but the value is not coming out right. The first row of the database has a value of 17365 (0x43D5) in the first column. Running the following code, what I end up getting is 17215 (0x433F). I'm pretty sure it has to do with using the ASCII encoding to get the bytes from the string returned by the data reader, but I'm not sure of another way to get the value into the format that I need, other that to write my own DBF reader and bypass ADO.NET altogether which I don't want to do unless I absolutely have to. Any help would be greatly appreciated. byte[] c0; int i0; string con = @"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=C:\ASTM;Extended Properties=dBASE III;User ID=Admin;Password=;"; using (OleDbConnection c = new OleDbConnection(con)) { c.Open(); OleDbCommand cmd = c.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM astm2007"; OleDbDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { c0 = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(dr.GetValue(0).ToString()); i0 = BitConverter.ToInt16(c0, 0); } dr.Dispose(); }

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• Should I move big data blobs in JSON or in separate binary connection?

  - by Amagrammer

  QUESTION: Is it better to send large data blobs in JSON for simplicity, or send them as binary data over a separate connection? If the former, can you offer tips on how to optimize the JSON to minimize size? If the latter, is it worth it to logically connect the JSON data to the binary data using an identifier that appears in both, e.g., as "data" : "< unique identifier " in the JSON and with the first bytes of the data blob being < unique identifier ? CONTEXT: My iPhone application needs to receive JSON data over the 3G network. This means that I need to think seriously about efficiency of data transfer, as well as the load on the CPU. Most of the data transfers will be relatively small packets of text data for which JSON is a natural format and for which there is no point in worrying much about efficiency. However, some of the most critical transfers will be big blobs of binary data -- definitely at least 100 kilobytes of data, and possibly closer to 1 megabyte as customers accumulate a longer history with the product. (Note: I will be caching what I can on the iPhone itself, but the data still has to be transferred at least once.) It is NOT streaming data. I will probably use a third-party JSON SDK -- the one I am using during development is here. Thanks

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• Yet another Python Windows CMD mklink problem ... can't get it to work!

  - by Felix Dombek

  OK I have just posted another question which outlined my program but the specific problem was different. Now, my program just stops working without any message whatsoever. I'd be grateful if someone could help me here. I want to create symlinks for each file in a directory structure, all in one large flat folder, and have the following code by now: # loop over directory structure: # for all items in current directory, # if item is directory, recurse into it; # else it's a file, then create a symlink for it def makelinks(folder, targetfolder, cmdprocess = None): if not cmdprocess: cmdprocess = subprocess.Popen("cmd", stdin = subprocess.PIPE, stdout = subprocess.PIPE, stderr = subprocess.PIPE) print(folder) for name in os.listdir(folder): fullname = os.path.join(folder, name) if os.path.isdir(fullname): makelinks(fullname, targetfolder, cmdprocess) else: makelink(fullname, targetfolder, cmdprocess) #for a given file, create one symlink in the target folder def makelink(fullname, targetfolder, cmdprocess): linkname = os.path.join(targetfolder, re.sub(r"[\/\\\:\*\?\"\<\>\|]", "-", fullname)) if not os.path.exists(linkname): try: os.remove(linkname) print("Invalid symlink removed:", linkname) except: pass if not os.path.exists(linkname): cmdprocess.stdin.write("mklink " + linkname + " " + fullname + "\r\n") So this is a top-down recursion where first the folder name is printed, then the subdirectories are processed. If I run this now over some folder, the whole thing just stops after 10 or so symbolic links. Here is the output: D:\Musik\neu D:\Musik\neu\# Electronic D:\Musik\neu\# Electronic\# tag & reencode D:\Musik\neu\# Electronic\# tag & reencode\ChillOutMix D:\Musik\neu\# Electronic\# tag & reencode\Unknown D&B D:\Musik\neu\# Electronic\# tag & reencode\Unknown D&B 2 The program still seems to run but no new output is generated. It created 9 symlinks for some files in the # tag & reencode and the first three files in the ChillOutMix folder. The cmd.exe Window is still open and empty, and shows in its title bar that it is currently processing the mklink command for the third file in ChillOutMix. I tried to insert a time.sleep(2) after each cmdprocess.stdin.write in case Python is just too fast for the cmd process, but it doesn't help. Does anyone know what the problem might be?

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• Advice welcomed on creating my own Swing component

  - by Toto

  Recently I asked which was the best Swing component to bind to a BigDecimal variable (with some particular editing properties). It turns out that none of the standard Swing components suit me completely, nor did the third-party Swing component libraries I've found out there. So I’ve decided to create my own Swing component. Component description: I want to extend JTextField or JFormattedTextField, so my new component can be easily bound to a BigDecimal variable. The component will have customizable scale and length properties. Behavior: When the component is drawn, it shows only the decimal point and space for scale digits to its right. When the component receives focus the caret should be positioned left to the decimal point. As the user types numbers (any other character is ignored) they appear to the left of the caret, only length – scale numbers are accepted, any other number typed is ignored as the integer portion is full. Any time the user types the decimal point the caret moves to the right side of the decimal point. The following numbers typed are shown in the decimal part, only scale numbers are considered any other number typed is ignored as the decimal portion is full. Additionally, thousand separators should appear as the user types numbers left to the decimal point. Invoking a getValue() method on the component should yield the BigDecimal representing the number just entered. I’ve never created my own Swing component; I’ve barely used the standard ones. So I would appreciate any good tutorial/info/tip on creating the component described. This is the only thing I've got so far. Thanks in advance.

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• Outlook style events calendar for project based on MVC framework

  - by Roman

  I need large Calendar (not jQuery datepicker) with possibility to schedule events and show them on calendar. Calendar must support month/week/day views. It is very desirable for Calendar not to reload whole page when view changes (AJAX refresh). It must be easily customizable (CSS themes) and localizable. It should support drag & drop (for scheduled events). Such Calendar must be rendered on client side from JSON data snippet. I know there are too many requirements to find Calendar that matches them all but all they are important. I have found some free open source Calendar controls, but almost all are tightly tuned for ASP.NET but not MVC or have very "heavy" JavaScript codebase. Ideally i see it as jQuery extension but not server side ASP.NET control. The best ready-to-use solution I have found is FullCalendar by Adam Shaw (http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/). It is jQuery plugin which source code I can change to fit my needs. If you can suggest some better existing solutions I'll be very appreciative.

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• Why does my adorner not re-render when the element it's applied to changes?

  - by Robert Rossney

  In a UI I'm building, I want to adorn a panel whenever one of the controls in the panel has the focus. So I handle the IsKeyboardFocusWithinChanged event, and add an adorner to the element when it gains the focus and remove the adorner when it loses focus. This seems to work OK. The problem I'm having is that the adorner isn't getting re-rendered if the bounds of the adorned element changes. For instance, in this simple case: <WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" IsKeyboardFocusChanged="Panel_IsKeyboardFocusChanged"> <Label>Caption</Label> <TextBox>Data</TextBox> </WrapPanel> the adorner correctly decorates the bounds of the WrapPanel when the TextBox receives the focus, but as I type in text, the TextBox expands underneath the edge of the adorner. Of course as soon as I do anything that forces the adorner to render, like ALT-TAB out of the application or give another panel the focus, it corrects itself. But how can I get it to re-render when the bounds of the adorned element change?

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• How to deal with multiple sub-type of one super-type in Django admin

  - by Henri

  What would be the best solution for adding/editing multiple sub-types. E.g a super-type class Contact with sub-type class Client and sub-type class Supplier. The way shown here works, but when you edit a Contact you get both inlines i.e. sub-type Client AND sub-type Supplier. So even if you only want to add a Client you also get the fields for Supplier of vice versa. If you add a third sub-type , you get three sub-type field groups, while you actually only want one sub-type group, in the mentioned example: Client. E.g.: class Contact(models.Model): contact_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) class Client(models.Model): contact = models.OneToOneField(Contact, primary_key=True) user_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) class Supplier(models.Model): contact.OneToOneField(Contact, primary_key=True) company_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) and in admin.py class ClientInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Client class SupplierInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Supplier class ContactAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = (ClientInline, SupplierInline,) class ClientAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): ... class SupplierAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): ... Now when I want to add a Client, i.e. only a Client I edit Contact and I get the inlines for both Client and Supplier. And of course the same for Supplier. Is there a way to avoid this? When I want to add/edit a Client that I only see the Inline for Client and when I want to add/edit a Supplier that I only see the Inline for Supplier, when adding/editing a Contact? Or perhaps there is a different approach. Any help or suggestion will be greatly appreciated.

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• SQL Joining Two or More from Table B with Common Data in Table A

  - by Matthew Frederick

  The real-world situation is a series of events that each have two or more participants (like sports teams, though there can be more than two in an event), only one of which is the host of the event. There is an Event db table for each unique event and a Participant db table with unique participants. They are joined together using a Matchup table. They look like this: Event EventID (PK) (other event data like the date, etc.) Participant ParticipantID (PK) Name Matchup EventID (FK to Event table) ParicipantID (FK to Participant) Host (1 or 0, only 1 host = 1 per EventID) What I'd like to get as a result is something like this: EventID ParticipantID where host = 1 Participant.Name where host = 1 ParticipantID where host = 0 Participant.Name where host = 0 ParticipantID where host = 0 Participant.Name where host = 0 ... Where one event has 2 participants and another has 3 participants, for example, the third participant column data would be null or otherwise noticeable, something like (PID = ParticipantID): EventID PID-1(host) Name-1 (host) PID-2 Name-2 PID-3 Name-3 ------- ----------- ------------- ----- ------ ----- ------ 1 7 Lions 8 Tigers 12 Bears 2 11 Dogs 9 Cats NULL NULL I suspect the answer is reasonably straightforward but for some reason I'm not wrapping my head around it. Alternately it's very difficult. :) I'm using MYSQL 5 if that affects the available SQL.

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• Making one table equal to another without a delete *

  - by Joshua Atkins

  Hey, I know this is bit of a strange one but if anyone had any help that would be greatly appreciated. The scenario is that we have a production database at a remote site and a developer database in our local office. Developers make changes directly to the developer db and as part of the deployment process a C# application runs and produces a series of .sql scripts that we can execute on the remote side (essentially delete *, insert) but we are looking for something a bit more elaborate as the downtime from the delete * is unacceptable. This is all reference data that controls menu items, functionality etc of a major website. I have a sproc that essentially returns a diff of two tables. My thinking is that I can insert all the expected data in to a tmp table, execute the diff, and drop anything from the destination table that is not in the source and then upsert everything else. The question is that is there an easy way to do this without using a cursor? To illustrate the sproc returns a recordset structured like this: TableName Col1 Col2 Col3 Dest Src Anything in the recordset with TableName = Dest should be deleted (as it does not exist in src) and anything in Src should be upserted in to dest. I cannot think of a way to do this purely set based but my DB-fu is weak. Any help would be appreciated. Apologies if the explanation is sketchy; let me know if you need anymore details.

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• Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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• thread reaches end but isn't removed

  - by pstanton

  I create a bunch of threads to do some processing: new Thread("upd-" + id){ @Override public void run(){ try{ doSomething(); } catch (Throwable e){ LOG.error("error", e); } finally{ LOG.debug("thread death"); } } }.start(); I know i should be using a threadPool but i need to understand the following problem before i change it: I'm using eclipse's debugger and looking at the threads in the debug pane which lists active threads. Many of them complete as you would expect, and are removed from the debug pane, however some seem to stay in the list of active threads even though the log shows the "thread death" entry for these. When i attempt to debug these threads, they either do not pause for debugging or show an error dialog: "A timeout occurred while retrieving stack frames for thread: upd-...". there is some synchronization going on within the doSomething() call but i'm fairly sure it's ok and since the "thread death" log is being called i'm assuming these threads aren't deadlocked in that method. i don't do any Thread.join()s, however i do call a third party API but doubt they do either. Can anyone think of another reason these threads are lingering? Thanks. EDIT: I created this test to check the Garbage Collection theory: Thread thread = new Thread("!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!") { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("running"); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(5000); System.out.println("finished"); // <-- thread removed from list here } }; thread.start(); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); System.out.println(thread.isAlive()); // <-- thread already removed from list but hasn't been GC'd ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); this proves that it is nothing to do with garbage collection as eclipse removes the thread from the thread list as soon as it completes and isn't waiting for the object to be de-referenced/GC'd.

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• java time check API

  - by ring bearer

  I am sure this was done 1000 times in 1000 different places. The question is I want to know if there is a better/standard/faster way to check if current "time" is between two time values given in hh:mm:ss format. For example, my big business logic should not run between 18:00:00 and 18:30:00. So here is what I had in mind: public static boolean isCurrentTimeBetween(String starthhmmss, String endhhmmss) throws ParseException{ DateFormat hhmmssFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyyMMddhh:mm:ss"); Date now = new Date(); String yyyMMdd = hhmmssFormat.format(now).substring(0, 8); return(hhmmssFormat.parse(yyyMMdd+starthhmmss).before(now) && hhmmssFormat.parse(yyyMMdd+endhhmmss).after(now)); } Example test case: String doNotRunBetween="18:00:00,18:30:00";//read from props file String[] hhmmss = downTime.split(","); if(isCurrentTimeBetween(hhmmss[0], hhmmss[1])){ System.out.println("NOT OK TO RUN"); }else{ System.out.println("OK TO RUN"); } What I am looking for is code that is better in performance in looks in correctness What I am not looking for third-party libraries Exception handling debate variable naming conventions method modifier issues

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• How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

  - by Mark Brittingham

  I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

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• JQuery & Wordpress - Hide multiple divs inside unique ID?

  - by steelfrog

  I'm trying to write a short Wordpress JQuery for Wordpress comments that would allow users to toggle specific comments on and off. This is my first script, and I'm having a tough time. Once overtly simplified, the comments are formatted like so: <li id="li-comment-<?php comment_ID() ?>"> <div class="gravatar"><img src="#" /></div> <div class="comment_poster">Username</div> <div class="comment_options">Option buttons</div> <div class="comment_content">Comment</div> </li> In the "comment_options" DIV is a series of buttons that control the individual comments (reply, quote, edit, close, etc.). The close button is what I'm trying to write this script for. I need it to toggle the "gravtar" and "comment_content" DIVs, but leave the rest in place so that it still displays the user ID and controls. However, I can't seem to figure out how to contain the action. This is what I have so far: $(document).ready(function() { $("div.trigger").click(function() { $("div.gravatar").slideToggle(); $("div.comment_content").slideToggle(); }); }); The problem with this is that it closes are the .gravatar and .comment_content on the page, not just the ones found in the same list item. If you're curious, this is the page I'm working on. Any idea how I could resolve this? Again, this is my firs time with JQuery, so I'm a little fuzzy on how it all works. Thanks!

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• How does one target all divs of any webpage but differentiate them in javascript?

  - by Chaz

  So I am trying to create an extension in Chrome (a prototype for a project that I am doing) that targets all of the <div> tags of any web page, hides them or rather doesn't display them until the user clicks the mouse (further explained below). So typing a url into the browser yields a white page. The person clicks, and the first <div> appears (probably the mast head or menu). The user clicks again and the second <div> appears. I have gotten to the point where I can hide or show all <div>'s (the obvious easy part) but I am not sure how to go about targeting each since every website has different id's for them while still using the <div> tag. This is what I need the most help with. This is part of a grander operation called the Web Crank. It's just a physical crank that controls the speed by which a web page loads. Each time you make one full rotation of the crank, one section (the first <div>) of the web page loads. The faster you go, the quicker the page loads. I hope this is clear enough. I am a newbie when it comes to this, but I have done some minor coding in the past and it's not such a big deal. Thanks for your help!

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• PocketPC c++ windows message processing recursion problem

  - by user197350

  Hello, I am having a problem in a large scale application that seems related to windows messaging on the Pocket PC. What I have is a PocketPC application written in c++. It has only one standard message loop. while (GetMessage (&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } } We also have standard dlgProc's. In the switch of the dlgProc, we will call a proprietary 3rd party API. This API uses a socket connection to communicate with another process. The problem I am seeing is this: whenever two of the same messages come in quickly (from the user clicking the screen twice too fast and shouldn't be) it seems as though recursion is created. Windows begins processing the first message, gets the api into a thread safe state, and then jumps to process the next (identical ui) message. Well since the second message also makes the API call, the call fails because it is locked. Because of the design of this legacy system, the API will be locked until the recursion comes back out (which also is triggered by the user; so it could be locked the entire working day). I am struggling to figure out exactly why this is happening and what I can do about it. Is this because windows recognizes the socket communication will take time and preempts it? Is there a way I can force this API call to complete before preemption? Is there a way I can slow down the message processing or re-queue the message to ensure the first will execute (capturing it and doing a PostMessage back to itself didnt work). We don't want to lock the ui down while the first call completes. Any insight is greatly appreciated! Thanks!!

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• Calculate shortest path through a grocery store

  - by Bart

  Hi, I'm trying to find a way to find the shortest path through a grocery store, visiting a list of locations (shopping list). The path should start at a specified startposition and can end at multiple endpositions (there are multiple checkout counters). Also, I have some predefined constraints on the path, such as "item x on the shopping list needs to be the last, second last, or third last item on the path". There is a function that will return true or false for a given path. Finally, this needs to be calculated with limited cpu power (on a smartphone) and within a second or so. If this isn't possible, then an approximation to the optimal path is also ok. Is this possible? So far I think I need to start by calculating the distance between every item on the list using something like A* or Dijkstra's. After that, should I treat it like the travelling salesman problem? Because in my problem there is a specified startnode, specified endnodes, and some constraints, which are not in the travelling salesman problem. Any help would be appreciated :)

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• Map element position in data file to class property

  - by Augusto

  I need to read/write files, following a format provided by a third party specification. The specification itself is pretty simple: it says the position and the size of the data that will be saved in the file. For example: Position Size Description -------------------------------------------------- 0001 10 Device serial number 0011 02 Hour 0013 02 Minute 0015 02 Second 0017 02 Day 0019 02 Month 0021 02 Year The list is very long, it has about 400 elements. But lots of them can be combined. For example, hour, minute, second, day, month and year can be combined in a single DateTime object. I've splitted the elements into about 4 categories, and created separeted classes for holding the data. So, instead of a big structure representing the data, I have some smaller classes. I've also created different classes for reading and writing the data. The problem is: how to map the positions in the file to the objects properties, so that I don't need to repeat the values in the reading/writing class? I could use some custom attributes and retrieve them via reflection. But since the code will be running on devices with small memory and processor, it would be nice to find another way. My current read code looks like this: public void Read() { DataFile dataFile = new DataFile(); // the arguments are: position, size dataFile.SerialNumber = ReadLong(1, 10); //... } Any ideas on this one? Thanks!

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• Strange behaviour using Drag and Drop in word 2003 automation in headers

  - by Oliver Hanappi

  Hi! I am developing a template based addin for Word 2003 which allows the user to drag and drop elements from a listbox into the word document. Unfortunately I'm getting a really strange behaviour when trying to drop elements in the document's header. Open the template and type something in the header Close the header and insert some content on the page Add a page break. Switch to page layout mode where and set zoom level to "Two Pages" Open the header Slowly Drag and Drop an list item from the list box to the header. See multiple Page Setups dialogs occur which cause Word to crash. Here is my code: // in ThisDocument.cs public MyUserControl _control; public void Init() { _control = new MyUserControl(); ActionsPane.Controls.Add(_control); ActionsPane.Visible = true; } // in MyUserControl.cs public void listBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { DoDragDrop("something", DragDropEffects.Copy); } Have I done somethinkg wrong with implementing Drag and Drop? Is there a workaround for this strange behaviour? Thanks in advance, Oliver Hanappi

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• x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

  - by gmb11

  While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

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