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• Do servlet containers prevent web applications from causing each other interference and how do they do it?

  - by chrisbunney

  I know that a servlet container, such as Apache Tomcat, runs in a single instance of the JVM, which means all of its servlets will run in the same process. I also know that the architecture of the servlet container means each web application exists in its own context, which suggests it is isolated from other web applications. As depicted here: Accepting that each web application is isolated, I would expect that you could create 2 copies of an identical web application, change the names and context paths of each (as well as any other relevant configuration), and run them in parallel without one affecting the other. The answers to this question appear to support this view. However, a colleague disagrees based on their experience of attempting just that. They took a web application and tried to run 2 separate instances (with different names etc) in the same servlet container and experienced issues with the 2 instances conflicting (I'm unable to elaborate more as I wasn't involved in that work). Based on this, they argue that since the web applications run in the same process space, they can't be isolated and things such as class attributes would end up being inadvertently shared. This answer appears to suggest the same thing The two views don't seem to be compatible, so I ask you: Do servlet containers prevent web applications deployed to the same container from conflicting with each other? If yes, How do they do this? If no, Why does interference occur? and finally, Under what circumstances could separate web applications conflict and cause each other interference?, perhaps scenarios involving resources on the file system, native code, or database connections?

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• Can I build this XPath query dynamically in XSLT?

  - by Martin Doms

  I have a document that looks something like <root> <element> <subelement1 /> <subelement2 /> </element> <element> <subelement2 /> <subelement1 /> </element> </root> In my XSLT sheet in the context of /element[2]/[someNode] I want to get a number that represents the distance of /element[1]/[someNode] (ie, the number of preceding siblings of /element1/[someNode]). For example, in the context of /element[2]/subelement1 I'd like to have some way to get the number 2, the distance from /element[1] to /element[1]/subelement2. I only ever need the distance of the given node name from the first instance of . Intuitively I thought I could construct this like <xsl:variable name="nodename" select="name()" /> <xsl:value-of select="/element[1]/$nodename/preceding-sibling::*" /> but unfortunately this sheet doesn't compile. Is what I'm trying to achieve possible in XSLT?

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• Behavior of retained propertie while holder is retained

  - by Aurélien Vallée

  Hello everyone, I am a beginner ObjectiveC programmer, coming from the C++ world. I find it very difficult to understand the memory management offered by NSObject :/ Say I have the following class: @interface User : NSObject { NSString* name; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString* name; - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName; - (void) release; @end @implementation User @synthetise name - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setName:theName]; } return self; } - (void) release { [name release]; [super release]; } @end No considering the following code, I can't understand the retain count results: NSString* name = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:/*C string from sqlite3*/]; // (1) name retainCount = 1 User* user = [[User alloc] initWithName:name]; // (2) name retainCount = 2 [whateverMutableArray addObject:user]; // (3) name retainCount = 2 [user release]; // (4) name retainCount = 1 [name release]; // (5) name retainCount = 0 At (4), the retain count of name decreased from 2 to 1. But that's not correct, there is still the instance of user inside the array that points to name ! The retain count of a variable should only decrease when the retain count of a referring variable is 0, that is, when it is dealloced, not released.

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• SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

  - by StickyMcGinty

  We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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• Integrating ASP.NET MVC 2 with classic ASP

  - by David Lively

  I'm in the process of moving a large classic ASP application to ASP.NET MVC 2. Questions: My question is about project organization. I would prefer to not mix the MVC code with the ASP code in the same VS project. I'd like to have an MVC WAP with areas that match the parts of the website that I'm migrating. For instance, the old site has a folder /products/default.asp..... /products/productName/default.asp etc. In the MVC WAP, I'd like to have an area called "products", which I could then, either through a rewrite, routing, or preferably through some IIS configuration, point the "products" folder on the ASP site to. In this way, I could gradually move root folders from the ASP site to the MVC application. However, if I create the MVC WAP in a virtual folder, then my routes wind up looking like http://localhost/virtualFolder/products instead of http://localhost/products Any suggestions on how to conquer this? I know that, during deployment, I could deploy the MVC WAP into the root of the ASP site, but this doesn't help with debugging.

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• Script working with mysql and php into a textarea and back

  - by Tribalcomm

  I am trying to write a custom script that will keep a list of strings in a textarea. Each line of the textarea will be a row from a table. The problem I have is how to work the script to allow for adding, updating, or deleting rows based on a submit. So, for instance, I currently have 3 rows in the database: john sue mark I want to be able to delete sue and add richard and it will delete the row with sue and insert a row for richard. My code so far is as follows: To query the db and list it in the textarea: $basearray = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM mytable ORDER BY name"); <textarea name="names" cols=6 rows=12>'); <?php foreach($basearray as $base){ echo $base->name."\n"; } ?> </textarea> After the submit, I have: <?php $namelist = $_REQUEST[names]; $newarray = explode("\n", $namelist); foreach($newarray as $name) { if (!in_array($name, $basearray)) { mysql_query(DELETE FROM mytable WHERE word='$name'"); } elseif (in_array($name, $basearray)) { ; } else { mysql_query("INSERT INTO mytable (name) VALUES ("$name")"); } } ?> Please tell me what I am doing wrong. I am not getting any functions to work when I edit the contents of the textarea. Thanks!

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• Delphi Mock Wizard

  - by Todd

  Let me preface this by saying I'm fairly new to Unit Testing, Mocks, Stubs, Etc... I've installed Delphi-Mock-Wizard. When I select a unit and "Generate Mock", a new unit is created but it's very basic and not anything what I understand Mocks to be. unit Unit1; (** WARNING - AUTO-GENERATED MOCK! Change this unit if you want to, but be aware that any changes you make will be lost if you regenerate the mock object (for instance, if the interface changes). My advice is to create a descendent class of your auto-generated mock - in a different unit - and override things there. That way you get to keep them. Also, the auto-generate code is not yet smart enough to generate stubs for inherited interfaces. In that case, change your mock declaration to inherit from a mock implementation that implements the missing interface. This, unfortunately, is a violation of the directive above. I'm working on it. You may also need to manually change the unit name, above. Another thing I am working on. **) interface uses PascalMock, TestInterfaces; type IThingy = interface; implementation end. Looking at the source there seems to be quite a bit commented out. I'm wondering, has anyone gotten this to work? My IDE is D2010. Thanks.

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• How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

  - by Krashman5k

  I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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• IValidator.Validate method and adding error message to a custom type

  - by user102533

  I have several server controls that implement the IValidator interface. As such, they have their own Validate() methods that look like this. public void Validate() { this.IsValid = true; if (someConditionFails()) { ErrorMessage = "Condition failed!"; this.IsValid = false; } } I understand that these Validate() methods are executed on postback before the load completed event that is executed before the save button's event handler. What I would like to do is pass in a reference to an instance of a custom class that collects all the error messages that I can access from Save button event handler. In other words, I would like to do something like this: public void Validate(ref SummaryOfErrorMessages sum) I guess I can't do this as the signature is different from what the IValidator interface has. The other option I can think of is on Load Completed event, I would iterate through all the validators on page, get the ones with IsValid = false and create my SummaryOfErrorMessages there. Does this sound right? Is there a better way of doing it?

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• Why did i get this error?

  - by David

  here's the code: class Acount { int sum ; String owner ; //these seem to make sense //a constructor or two public Acount () { this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = "John Doe" ; } public Acount (String name) {this.sum = 0 ; this.owner = name ; } public Acount (String name, int sum) {this.sum = sum ; this.owner = name ; } //prints an acount in the format "owner" "sum" public static void printAcount (Acount Acount) {System.out.print (Acount.owner) ; System.out.print (" ") ; System.out.println (Acount.sum) ; } public static void main (String[]arg) { Acount Acount1 = new Acount ("david", 100) ; System.out.println ("heres the first acount as it was created:") ; printAcount (Acount1) ; System.out.println ("now i changed one of its instance varaibles with a static method") ; upOne (Acount1) ; printAcount (Acount1) ; } public static Acount upOne (Acount Acount) { Acount.sum = Acount.sum + 1 ; return Acount ; } } here's the error: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Acount/java What went wrong?

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• JQUERY - jQuery UI Nested Sortables 2 - help getting it working

  - by nobosh

  Hello, I'm interested in using the following JQUERY - http://lucaswoj.com/2010/01/jquery-ui-nested-sortables-2/ However, I can't seem to get a demo instance of the plugin work. Here's the code I'm using: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#findit').nestedSortable({}); </script> <div > <ul id="findit"> <li> List Item Content <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 2 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 3 <ul></ul> <li> <li> List Item Content 4 <ul></ul> <li> <ul> </div> Any ideas? Thanks

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• A dynamic array of class "landmark", inside another single class "landmarks"

  - by pinnacler

  I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

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• Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

  - by ptomli

  I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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• Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

  - by GroovyB

  I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

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• Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB and others)?

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though?

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• What would be the equivalent VB.NET code for this C# FluentNHibernate component mapping?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I'm a C# programmer constrained to write VB.NET code. While exploring NHibernate further for my current client, I encountered FluentNHibernate, which I find real attractive. But now, I wonder how to "translate" this C# code for component mapping into VB.NET code: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); I know from here: Component(Of Client)(Function(c) c.Address, ...) what I miss is how to continue with the brackets in VB.NET, since there's no Begin End keywords or so. EDIT 1: Following Mr. JaredPar instructions, I figured that his solution might work. If we take the time to read his answer, we may notice that we both don't know what the MType is within his solution. I might have found out that the MType is: FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of TComponent) Thus, TComponent is, from my understanding, an anonymous type that I shall parameter to use. From this point of view, since I wish to map the properties of my Address object, replacing TComponent in my help method signature seems not to work. Private Sub MapAdresseHelper(Of Adresse)(ByVal a As FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of Adresse)) a.Map(Function(m) m.Number) a.Map(Function(m) m.Street).Length(50) a.Map(Function(m) m.PostCode).Length(10) End Sub The error I get is that my Address class doesn't have a property member named Street, for instance. It sees my Address type, it recognizes it, but it seems buggy somehow. I guess VBNET is poorly designed for lambda expressions and is less evolved than C# (Sorry, a bit of frustration due to the constraint of working with it and not being capable of doing things VERY easily done in C#.) Thanks!

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• C# WinForms. Multiple Forms in separate threads

  - by Calum Murray

  I'm trying to run an ATM Simulation in C# with Windows Forms that can have more than one instance of an ATM machine transacting with a bank account simultaneously. The idea is to use semaphores/locking to block critical code that may lead to race conditions. My question is this: How can I run two Forms simultaneously on separate threads? In particular, how does all of this fit in with the Application.Run() that's already there? Here's my main class: public class Bank { private Account[] ac = new Account[3]; private ATM atm; public Bank() { ac[0] = new Account(300, 1111, 111111); ac[1] = new Account(750, 2222, 222222); ac[2] = new Account(3000, 3333, 333333); Application.Run(new ATM(ac)); } static void Main(string[] args) { new Bank(); } } ...that I want to run two of these forms on separate threads... public partial class ATM : Form { //local reference to the array of accounts private Account[] ac; //this is a reference to the account that is being used private Account activeAccount = null; private static int stepCount = 0; private string buffer = ""; // the ATM constructor takes an array of account objects as a reference public ATM(Account[] ac) { InitializeComponent(); //Sets up Form ATM GUI in ATM.Designer.cs this.ac = ac; } ... I've tried using Thread ATM2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(/*What goes in here?*/)); But what method do I put in the ThreadStart constructor, since the ATM form is event-driven and there's no one method controlling it? Thanks, Calum

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• Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

  - by Collin Allen

  The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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• C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

  - by Oskar Kjellin

  I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

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• How to run an app in Tomcat?

  - by artaxerxe

  Hi! I have put my project in tomcat_home/webapps/ directory. The structure is : project_name/WEB-INF/classes. in WEB-INF i have put my web.xml descriptor. The problem is that when i try to run the application, it doesn't find the files. The error is: The requested resource () is not available. My web.xml content is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <servlet> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>Ch1Servlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Chapter1 Servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-url>/Serv1</servlet-url> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I have also restarted the server, but it doesn't want to work. Any suggestions?

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• Is it possible to template a template in WPF XAML?

  - by imekon

  Is it possible to use templates within templates? For instance, I have the following two templates: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="RecursiveTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkGreen" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="ContainerTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="1" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Ellipse Fill="DarkBlue" Width="14" Height="14"/> <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> There's a section of identical XAML: <TextBlock MouseDown="OnTreeMouseDown" TargetUpdated="OnTargetUpdated" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityInverter}}" Margin="5" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBox PreviewKeyDown="OnTreeKeyDown" Visibility="{Binding Editing, Converter={StaticResource visibilityConverter}}" Margin="2" Text="{Binding Name}"/> Is it possible to move that to a resource and refer to it by name, rather than repeat it?

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• Select XML nodes as rows

  - by Bjørn

  I am selecting from a table that has an XML column using T-SQL. I would like to select a certain type of node and have a row created for each one. For instance, suppose I am selecting from a people table. This table has an XML column for addresses. The XML is formated similar to the following: <address> <street>Street 1</street> <city>City 1</city> <state>State 1</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 1</zipcode> </address> <address> <street>Street 2</street> <city>City 2</city> <state>State 2</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 2</zipcode> </address> How can I get results like this: Name         City         State Joe Baker   Seattle      WA Joe Baker   Tacoma     WA Fred Jones  Vancouver BC

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• Unit testing with Mocks when SUT is leveraging Task Parallel Libaray

  - by StevenH

  I am trying to unit test / verify that a method is being called on a dependency, by the system under test. The depenedency is IFoo. The dependent class is IBar. IBar is implemented as Bar. Bar will call Start() on IFoo in a new (System.Threading.Tasks.)Task, when Start() is called on Bar instance. Unit Test (Moq): [Test] public void StartBar_ShouldCallStartOnAllFoo_WhenFoosExist() { //ARRANGE //Create a foo, and setup expectation var mockFoo0 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo0.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); var mockFoo1 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo1.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); //Add mockobjects to a collection var foos = new List<IFoo> { mockFoo0.Object, mockFoo1.Object }; IBar sutBar = new Bar(foos); //ACT sutBar.Start(); //Should call mockFoo.Start() //ASSERT mockFoo0.VerifyAll(); mockFoo1.VerifyAll(); } Implementation of IBar as Bar: class Bar : IBar { private IEnumerable<IFoo> Foos { get; set; } public Bar(IEnumerable<IFoo> foos) { Foos = foos; } public void Start() { foreach(var foo in Foos) { Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { foo.Start(); }); } } } I appears that the issue is obviously due to the fact that the call to "foo.Start()" is taking place on another thread (/task), and the mock (Moq framework) can't detect it. But I could be wrong. Thanks

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• Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

  - by dzs

  Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

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• Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

  - by Bob

  I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

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