Search Results

Search found 12952 results on 519 pages for 'model'.

Page 435/519 | < Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >

  • Can YAML have inheritance?

    - by Jason
    This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

    Read the article

  • Starting out Silverlight 4 design

    - by Fermin
    I come from mainly a web development background (ASP.NET, ASP.NET MVC, XHTML, CSS etc) but have been tasked with creating/designing a Silverlight application. The application is utilising Bing Maps control for Silverlight, this will be contained in a user control and will be the 'main' screen in the system. There will be numerous other user controls on the form that will be used to choose/filter/sort/order the data on the map. I think of it like Visual Studio: the Bing Maps will be like the code editor window and the other controls will be like Solutions Explorer, Find Results etc. (although a lot less of them!) I have read up and I'm comfortable with the data side (RIA-Services) of the application. I've (kinda) got my head around databinding and using a view model to present data and keep the code behind file lite. What I do need some help on is UI design/navigation framework, specifically 2 aspects: How do I best implement a fluid design so that the various user controls which filter the map data can be resized/pinned/unpinned (for example, like the Solution Explorer in VS)? I made a test using a Grid with a GridSplitter control, is this the best way? Would it be best to create a Grid/Gridsplitter with Navigation Frames inside the grid to load the content? Since I have multiple user controls that basically use the same set of data, should I set the dataContext at the highest possible level (e.g. if using a grid with multiple frames, at the Grid level?). Any help, tips, links etc. will be very much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Rails has_and_belongs_to_many relationship question

    - by Kevin Whitaker
    Hello all, I'm sure that this question has been asked somewhere before, as the habtm relationship seems to be very confusing. I have two models, users and promotions. The idea is that a promotion can have many users, and a user can have many promotions. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :promotions end class Promotion < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :users end I also have a promotions_users table/model, with no id of its own. It references user_id and promotions_id class PromotionsUsers < ActiveRecord::Base end So, how do I add a user to a promotion? I've tried something like this: user = User.find(params[:id]) promotion = Promotion.find(params[:promo_id]) promo = user.promotions.new(promo) This results in the following error: NoMethodError: undefined method `stringify_keys!' for #<Promotion:0x10514d420> If I try this line instead: promo= user.promotions.new(promo.id) I get this error: TypeError: can't dup Fixnum I'm sure that there is a very easy solution to my problem, and I'm just not searching for the solution the right way. Thank you for your time, and any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • RSpec and stubbing parameters for a named scope

    - by Andy Waite
    I'm try to write a spec for a named scope which is date dependent. The spec: it "should return 6 months of documents" do Date.stub!(:today).and_return(Date.new(2005, 03, 03)) doc_1 = Factory.create(:document, :date => '2005-01-01') Document.past_six_months.should == [doc_1] end The named scope in the Document model: named_scope :past_six_months, :conditions => ['date > ? AND date < ?', Date.today - 6.months, Date.today] The spec fails with an empty array, and the query in test.log shows why: SELECT * FROM "documents" WHERE (date > '2009-11-11' AND date < '2010-05-11') i.e. it appears to be ignoring my stubbed Date method. However, if I use a class method instead of a named scope then it passes: def self.past_six_months find(:all, :conditions => ['date > ? AND date < ?', Date.today - 6.months, Date.today]) end I would rather use the named scope approach but I don't understand why it isn't working.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Unable to access a primitive array inside a custom class from a UIViewController instance

    - by Daniel
    Hello! I have made a subclass of NSObject that is meant to be the model of my application. The class has a few methods and on instance primitive array as such: @interface Cube : NSObject { int cubeState[5][2][2]; } - (id)printContent; @end @implementation Cube - (void)init { if (self = [super init]) { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { cubeState[i][j][k] = i; } } } } return self; } - (void)printContent { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { NSLog(@"[%d] [%d] [%d] = %d", i, j, k, cubeState[i][j][k]); } } } } @end This works fine if instanciated from the delegate as such: #include "Cube.h" @implementation CubeAppDelegate @synthesize window; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { Cube *cube = [[Cube alloc] init]; [cube printContent]; [cube release]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } However, the application crashes if I try to create a subclass of UIViewController with a Cube *cube property and later try to access the Cube instance object through the view controller's property as such: @interface CustomController : UIViewController { Cube *cube; } @property (nonatomic, retain) Cube *cube; @end @implementation CustomController @synthesize cube; - (void)dealloc { [cube release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and in the delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { viewController = [[CustomController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; viewController.cube = [[[Cube alloc] init] autorelease]; [viewController.cube printContent]; // Application crashes here } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Is Berkeley DB XML a viable database backend?

    - by w00t
    Apparently, BDB-XML has been around since at least 2003 but I only recently stumbled upon it on Oracle's website: Berkeley DB XML. Here's the blurb: Oracle Berkeley DB XML is an open source, embeddable XML database with XQuery-based access to documents stored in containers and indexed based on their content. Oracle Berkeley DB XML is built on top of Oracle Berkeley DB and inherits its rich features and attributes. Like Oracle Berkeley DB, it runs in process with the application with no need for human administration. Oracle Berkeley DB XML adds a document parser, XML indexer and XQuery engine on top of Oracle Berkeley DB to enable the fastest, most efficient retrieval of data. To me it seems that the underlying ideas are technically sound and probably more mature than the newer document-based DBs like CouchDB or MongoDB. It has support for C, C++, Ruby and Perl, as far as I can determine. It even has HA-capabilities like automatic replication using a master/slave model with automatic election. However, I can't seem to find any projects that use it. Is there something fundamentally wrong with it? Is the license too onerous? Is it too complicated? Why is it not being used?

    Read the article

  • Paperclip wont save image in rails app

    - by Micke
    Hello stackoverflow. I am trying to use Paperclip with my rails app to add an avatar to a user but it wont save my image when creating the user. This is what the model looks like: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :avatar And the registerform in haml: - form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "signup" }, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| ... ... %li %div{:class => "header"} Profilepicture %div{:class => "input"} = f.file_field :avatar And when i look in the log this is what is being passet to the "signup" action: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save", "action"=>"signup", "controller"=>"user/register", "user"=>{"name"=>"Micke Lisinge", "birthmonth"=>"07", "password_confirmation"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"lisinge", "avatar"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100426-3076-1x04oxy-0>, "gen"=>"m", "birthday"=>"23", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "birthyear"=>"1992", "email"=>"[email protected]"}} [paperclip] Saving attachments. Paperclip says it is saving the template but when i look in the public folder in my app it has created a system but the system folder is empty. So it seems like it isnt saving the picture to the folder. It gets handled by the form and saved in my /tmp folder. Maybe you guys have any tips or know what this problem might be? Thanks in advance, Micke.

    Read the article

  • Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

    - by Loz
    Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

    Read the article

  • Front End Developer v/s PHP-MySQL Engineer

    - by user301943
    Hello, I want to decide which of this would be a more viable career option? I am ready to quit my current job and hence I am looking for new opportunity. Current job is maintainence and no more active development. My current role is of a PHP/MySQL Developer. I very well understand web-programming and am comfortable with RoR/Sinatra/Zend MVC/JQuery/JSON manipulation, etc. I understand MySQL InnoDB/MyISAM engine and how one differs from the other, etc. Basically, I could very well manage the deployment of a web-application end-to-end including configuration of Apache/Nginx servers, memcache,etc On the other hand, I am being offered a Sr.Front End Web developer that would require me to extensively write HTML/CSS crossbrowser/crossplatform compliant code. I very well understand XHTML/CSS/Box model etc. I would be working on Drupal for the management of websites. While I understand continuing to work on server-side technologies would always be a good career path, how would the role of Core front-end developer turn out to be? If I take this opportunity, will I eventually get a chance to focus onto UCD, HCI, Information Architect,etc. So are these kinda roles possible if I focus on front end development? No offenses to the Front end developers, just want to understand if this is something I want to gain a mastery over. I have 2 yrs of industry experience after graduating with a MS-Computer Science. Although, I have a CS degree, if I were to take uip serious front-end role; I could probably go back and take up some design/HCI/UI courses. Please advise.

    Read the article

  • Using T4 templates to add custom code to EF4 generated entities?

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, using model-first development. I am building a simple WPF demo app to learn the framework. My app has two entities, Topic and Note. A Topic is a discussion topic; it has Title, Text, and DateRevised properties. Topic also has a Notes collection property. a Note has DateCreated and Text properties. I have used EF4 to create an EDM and data store for the app. Now I need to add just a bit of intelligence to the entities. For example, the property setter for the Topic.Text property needs to update the Topic.DateRevised property, and a Note needs to set its DateCreated property when it is instantiated--pretty simple stuff. I assume that I can't modify the generated classes directly, because my code would be lost if the entities are re-generated. Is this the sort of thing that I can implement by modifying the T4 template that EF4 uses to generate the entities? In other words, can a T4 template be modified to add my code for performing these tasks to the entities that it generates? Can you refer me to a good tutorial or explanation of how to get started? Most of what I have found so far talks about how to add a tt file to an EDM, so I can do that. What I am looking for is a resource that I can use to get to the next level, assuming that a T4 template can be used to customize generated entities as I have described. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to use class_eval <<-"end_eval" in Ruby? Not parsing correctly

    - by viatropos
    I would like to define dynamic methods based on some options people give when instantiating it. So in their AR model, they'd do something like this: acts_as_something :class_name => "CustomClass" I'm trying to implement that like so: module MyModule def self.included(base) as = Config.class_name.underscore foreign_key = "#{as}_id" # 1 - class eval, throws these errors # ~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:45: syntax error, unexpected $undefined # @ ||= MyForm.new( # ^ # ~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:46: syntax error, unexpected ',' #~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:48: syntax error, unexpected ')', # expecting kEND from ~/test-project/helpers.rb:12:in `include' base.class_eval <<-"end_eval", __FILE__, __LINE__ attr_accessor :#{as} def #{as} @#{as} ||= MyForm.new( :id => self.#{foreign_key}, :title => self.title ) @#{as} end end_eval end end But it's throwing a bunch of errors I've printed in the comments. Am I using this incorrectly? What are some better ways I can define dynamic method names and dynamic names inside the method like this? I see people use this often instead of define_method (see these classes in resource_controller and couchrest toward the bottom). What I missing here? Thanks for the help

    Read the article

  • FindBugs controversal description

    - by Tom Brito
    Am I understanding it wrong, or is the description wrong? Equals checks for noncompatible operand (EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS) This equals method is checking to see if the argument is some incompatible type (i.e., a class that is neither a supertype nor subtype of the class that defines the equals method). For example, the Foo class might have an equals method that looks like: public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Foo) return name.equals(((Foo)o).name); else if (o instanceof String) return name.equals(o); else return false; This is considered bad practice, as it makes it very hard to implement an equals method that is symmetric and transitive. Without those properties, very unexpected behavoirs are possible. From: http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html#EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS The description says that the Foo class might have an aquals method like that, and after it says that "This is considered bad practice". I'm not getting the "right way".. How should the following method be to be right? @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { if (obj instanceof DefaultTableModel) return model.equals((DefaultTableModel)obj); else return false; }

    Read the article

  • How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

    Read the article

  • Surprising results with .NET multi-theading algorithm

    - by Myles J
    Hi, I've recently wrote a C# console time tabling algorithm that is based on a combination of a genetic algorithm with a few brute force routines thrown in. The initial results were promising but I figured I could improve the performance by splitting the brute force routines up to run in parallel on multi processor architectures. To do this I used the well documented Producer/Consumer model (as documented in this fantastic article http://www.albahari.com/threading/part2.aspx#_ProducerConsumerQWaitHandle). I changed my code to create one thread per logical processor during the brute force routines. The performance gains on my work station were very pleasing. I am running Windows XP on the following hardware: Intel Core 2 Quad CPU 2.33 GHz 3.49 GB RAM Initial tests indicated average performance gains of approx 40% when using 4 threads. The next step was to deploy the new multi-threading version of the algorithm to our higher spec UAT server. Here is the spec of our UAT server: Windows 2003 Server R2 Enterprise x64 8 cpu (Quad-Core) AMD Opteron 2.70 GHz 255 GB RAM After running the first round of tests we were all extremely surprised to find that the algorithm actually runs slower on the high spec W2003 server than on my local XP work station! In fact the tests seem to indicate that it doesn't matter how many threads are generated (tests were ran with the app spawning between 2 to 32 threads). The algorithm always runs significantly slower on the UAT W2003 server? How could this be? Surely the app should run faster on a 8 cpu (Quad-Core) than my 2 Quad work station? Why are we seeing no performance gains with the multi-threading on the W2003 server whilst the XP workstation tests show gains of up to 40%? Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Regards Myles

    Read the article

  • UX question: is better to have "serious delete" or have "trash"

    - by ftrotter
    I am developing an application that allows for a user to manage some individual data points. One of the things that my users will want to do is "delete" but what should that mean? For a web application is it better to present a user with the option to have serious delete or to use a "trash" system? Under "serious delete" (would love to know if there is a better name for this...) you click "delete" and then the user is warned "this is final and tragic action. Once you do this you will not be able to get -insert data point name here- back, even if you are crying..." Then if they click delete... well it truly is gone forever. Under the "trash" model, you never trust that the user really wants to delete... instead you remove the data point from the "main display" and put into a bucket called "the trash". This gets it out of the users way, which is what they usually want, but they can get it back if they make a mistake. Obviously this is the way most operating systems have gone. The advantages of "serious delete" are: Easy to implement Easy to explain to users The disadvantages of "serious delete" are: it can be tragically final sometimes, cats walk on keyboards The advantages of the "trash" system are: user is safe from themselves bulk methods like "delete a bunch at once" make more sense saves support headaches The disadvantages of the "trash" system are": For sensitive data, you create an illusion of destruction users think something is gone, but it is not. Lots of subtle distinctions make implementation more difficult Do you "eventually" delete the contents of the trash? My question is which one is the right design pattern for modern web applications? With enough discussion to justify your answer... Would love to be pointed towards some relevant research. -FT

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate - Cascade delete a child object when no explicit parent->child relationship exists

    - by John Price
    I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted? Update: I've been trying to set up the mapping from the "RestaurantDrink" end of things using References(x => x.Drink) .Column("DrinkId") .Cascade.All(); But this doesn't seem to work (I still get an FK violation when deleting a Drink).

    Read the article

  • Why would a SQL query JOIN on the same table twice with the same condition?

    - by Scott Leis
    I'm working on changes to a SQL Server v8 database developed by someone else, and have found something that seems (based on my limited SQL knowledge) strange and pointless. One of the views has a query that does a LEFT OUTER JOIN twice on the same table with the same condition. Is there any reason for doing this? The query is below. See the second- and third-last lines that both join the "te_SDE_Survey" table on the "SDE_ID" field. Also note these lines set two different aliases for the table, and both aliases are used in the SELECT part of the query. SELECT vs.SLMS_Code, vs.Retail_Date, vs.TagNo, vs.Rego, vs.Model, vs.Company, vs.AccountType, viqdp.SDE_ID, bd.Debit_Date, isu.Survey_Date, CASE WHEN isu.Q6 IS NOT NULL THEN isu.Q6 ELSE CASE WHEN returned_surveys.survey_date IS NULL THEN CASE WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 IS NULL AND cs.sup2 IS NULL AND cs.sup3 IS NULL AND cs.sup5 IS NULL AND cs.sup8 IS NULL AND cs.sup9 IS NULL) THEN 'E' WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 = 'F' AND cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F' AND cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup1 = 'T' THEN 'S' WHEN cs.sup2 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup3 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup5 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup8 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup9 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN (cs.sup8 = 'T' OR cs.sup9 = 'T') AND (cs.sup2 = 'T' OR cs.sup3 = 'T' OR cs.sup5 = 'T') THEN 'S' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'pre2008') THEN CASE WHEN (datediff(month, viqdp.generate_date, returned_surveys.survey_date) 1) THEN 'E' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'expiryDateColumn') THEN CASE WHEN (returned_surveys.survey_date viqdp.expiryDate) THEN 'E' END END END AS score_or_exclusion_status, CASE WHEN (bd.explanation IS NULL) THEN '' ELSE bd.explanation END AS explanation, tey.te_Year FROM dbo.te_Vehicle_Sale vs INNER JOIN dbo.te_Year tey ON vs.Retail_Date = tey.Start_Date AND vs.Retail_Date <= tey.End_Date LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Bad_Data bd ON vs.TagNo = bd.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_Vehicle_SDESurvey viqdp ON vs.TagNo = viqdp.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey isu ON viqdp.SDE_ID = isu.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey returned_surveys ON viqdp.SDE_ID = returned_surveys.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Contact_Suppression cs ON viqdp.SDE_ID = cs.SDE_ID

    Read the article

  • Trouble with data not saving with bindings and shared NSUserDefaults in IB

    - by Chief
    I'm having a bit of a strange issue that I can't quite figure out. I'm somewhat of a n00b to Interface Builder. What I am trying to do seems like it should be simple, but it's not working for some reason. In interface builder I have a preferences window with a simple NSTextField. I have set the value binding to the Shared User Defaults Controller with the controller key "values" and model key "test". I build/run my app and open the preferences window, type some random value into said text field, close the window. Command-Q the app. Then in a shell i do a "defaults read com.xxx.yyy" for my app and the key and value are nowhere to be found. That being said, it seems like the next time I fire up the app and change the value it works but only if I switch focus off of the NSTextField before closing the window. In the documentation for NSUserDefaults it says that the shared controller saves values immediately, am I missing something stupid here? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Help with debugging COM errors? (.mdi to .pdf file conversions using Microsoft Office Document Imagi

    - by RyanW
    I thought I had a working solution for converting .mdi files to PDF using the Microsoft Office Document Imaging object model. The solution is in a Windows Service, but now I'm running into some errors that I'm having trouble tracking down info on. The exception I get is: The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80010105): The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) at MODI.DocumentClass.Create(String FileOpen) at DocumentStore.Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) Then, in the Event Viewer there is the following Application error: Faulting application MyWindowsServiceName.exe, version 1.0.0.0, time stamp 0x4b97f185, faulting module mso.dll, version 12.0.6425.1000, time stamp 0x49d65443, exception code 0xc0000005, fault offset 0x0000bd8e, process id 0xa5c, application start time 0x01cac08cf032914b. Here's the method that is doing the conversion: private int? Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) { int? pageCount = null; string tmpTif = Path.GetTempFileName(); MODI.Document mdiDoc = new MODI.Document(); mdiDoc.Create(path); mdiDoc.SaveAs(tmpTif, MODI.MiFILE_FORMAT.miFILE_FORMAT_TIFF_LOSSLESS, MODI.MiCOMP_LEVEL.miCOMP_LEVEL_HIGH); mdiDoc.Close(false); pageCount = Tiff2PDF(tmpTif, newPath); if (File.Exists(tmpTif)) File.Delete(tmpTif); return pageCount; } I removed all threading from the service invoking this, so that only the primary thread was initializing the MODI object, but still got the error, so it doesn't appear to be threading related. I also built a a console apps converting hundreds of documents and DID NOT get the exception. So, it seems to be caused by creating too many instances of the MODI object, but only instantiated within a Service? Doesn't quite make sense. Anybody have any clues about these errors and how to debug them further?

    Read the article

  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

    Read the article

  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

    Read the article

  • How do I refer to a constant URL in my route configuration?

    - by Remnant
    Suppose I have the following within a webpage <% using (Html.BeginForm("ShowData", "Summary")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("CourseSelection", Model.CourseList, new { @class = "dropdown", onchange="this.form.submit();" })%> </div> <% } %> When the user makes a selection from the dropdown the form is submitted and I would like it to link to another page with a URL as follows: http://localhost:1721/Summary I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute(null, "Summary", new { controller = "Summary", action = "ShowData", CourseSelection = (string) null }); routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Login", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); When a user selects an item in the dropdownlist, the URL returned is: http://localhost:1721/Summary/ShowData?CourseSelection = UserSelection Clearly the first route in the list is not being matched. I don't want the URL to show the action name and parameter. I simply want to show "Summary" which is what I have hard coded in the URL. How do I achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3 - Category Filter Using Select - Load Partial Via Ajax

    - by fourfour
    Hey. I am trying to filter Client Comments by using a select and rendering it in a partial. Right now the partial loads @client.comments. I have a Category model with a Categorizations join. This all works, just need to know how to get the select to call the filter action and load the partial with ajax. Thanks for you help. Categories controller: def filter_category @categories = Category.all respond_to do |format| format.js # filter.rjs end end filter.js.erb: page.replace_html 'client-not-inner', :partial => 'comments', :locals => { :com => Category.first.comments } show.html.erb (clients) <% form_tag(filter_category_path(:id), :method => :put, :class => 'categories', :remote => true, :controller => 'categoires', :action => 'filter') do %> <label>Categories</label> <%= select_tag(:category, options_for_select(Category.all.map {|category| [category.name, category.id]}, @category_id)) %> <% end %> <div class="client-note-inner"> <%= render :partial => 'comments', :locals => { :com => @comments } %> </div><!--end client-note-inner--> Hope that makes sense. Cheers.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >