Search Results

Search found 36081 results on 1444 pages for 'object expected'.

Page 446/1444 | < Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >

  • C function const multidimensional-array argument strange warning

    - by rogi
    Ehllo, I'm getting some strange warning about this code: typedef double mat4[4][4]; void mprod4(mat4 r, const mat4 a, const mat4 b) { /* yes, function is empty */ } int main() { mat4 mr, ma, mb; mprod4(mr, ma, mb); } gcc output as follows: $ gcc -o test test.c test.c: In function 'main': test.c:13: warning: passing argument 2 of 'mprod4' from incompatible pointer type test.c:4: note: expected 'const double (*)[4]' but argument is of type 'double (*)[4]' test.c:13: warning: passing argument 3 of 'mprod4' from incompatible pointer type test.c:4: note: expected 'const double ()[4]' but argument is of type 'double ()[4]' defining the function as: void mprod4(mat4 r, mat4 a, mat4 b) { } OR defining matrices at main as: mat4 mr; const mat4 ma; const mat4 mb; OR calling teh function in main as: mprod4(mr, (const double(*)[4])ma, (const double(*)[4])mb); OR even defining mat4 as: typedef double mat4[16]; make teh warning go away. Wat is happening here? Am I doing something invalid? gcc version is 4.4.3 if relevant. Thanks for your attention.

    Read the article

  • Way to automate setting of MergeOptions

    - by Nix
    I am looking for an automated way to iterate over all ObjectQueries and set the merge option to no tracking (read only context). Once i find out how to do it i will be able to generate a default read only context using a T4 template. Is this possible? For example lets say i have these tables in my object context SampleContext TableA TableB TableC I would have to go through and do the below. SampleContext sc = new SampleContext(); sc.TableA.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; sc.TableB.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; sc.TableC.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; I am trying to find a way to generalize this using object context. I want to get it down to something like foreach(var objectQuery : sc){ objectQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; } Preferably I would like to do it using the baseclass(ObjectContext): ObjectContext baseClass = sc as ObjectContext var objectQueries = sc.MetadataWorkspace.GetItem("Magic Object Query Option); But i am not sure i can even get access to the queries. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to insert an Array/Objet into SQL (bestpractice)

    - by Jason
    I need to store three items as an array in a single column and be able to quickly/easily modify that data in later functions. [---YOU CAN SKIP THIS PART IF YOU TRUST ME--] To be clear, I love and use x_ref tables all the time but an x_ref doesn't work here because this is not a one-to-many relationship. I am making a project management tool that among other things, assigns a user to a project and assigns hours to that project on a weekly basis, per user, sometimes for weeks many weeks into the future. Of course there are many projects, a project can have many team members, a team member can be involved with many projects at one time BUT its not one-to-many because a team member can be working many weeks on the same project but have different hours for different weeks. In other words, each object really is unique. Also/finally, this data can be changed at any time by any team-member - hence it needs to be easily to manipulate. Basically, I need to handle three values (the team member, the week we're talking about, and how many hours) dropped into a project row in the projects table (under the column for project team members) and treated as one item - a team member - that will actually be part of a larger array of all the team members involved on the project. [--END SKIP, START READING HERE :) --] So assuming that the application's general schema and relation tables aren't total crap and that we are in fact up against a wall in this one case to use an array/object as a value for this column, is there a best practice for that? Like a particular SQL data-type? A particular object/array format? CSV? JSON? XML? Most of the app is in C# but (for very odd reasons that I won't explain) we could really use any environment if there is a particular one that handles this well. For the moment, I am thinking either (webservice + JS/JSON) or PHP unserialize/serialize (but I am bit sketched out by the PHP solution because it seems a bit cumbersome when using ajax?) Thoughts anyone?

    Read the article

  • Check mail attachment

    - by comii
    Hi! I am using vb.net to display email from outlook express! Everything work fine but when some message has attachment, i can not display message that email has attachment! This is my code: Private Sub LoginButton_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles LoginButton.Click Dim oItem Dim i As Integer Dim Message As MAPI.Message Dim items As String() = New String(6) {} ' Items are the sender name,subject and date and read/unread value Dim PrSenderEmail, PrBodyEmail Session = CreateObject("MAPI.Session") ' we use a session object of MAPI Component Session.Logon(ProfileName:=Me.UserId.Text, ProfilePassword:=Me.Password.Text) Session.MAPIOBJECT = Session.MAPIOBJECT ' Folder = CObj(Session.Inbox) ' choose the folder Application = CreateObject("Outlook.Application") Namespace1 = Application.GetNamespace("MAPI") Namespace1.Logon() ' for getting the sender name and avoid security validation of Outlook/Exchange server 2003 ' we are using the "Redemption" component sItem = CreateObject("Redemption.SafeMailItem") Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor ' show we're busy doing the sort ListInbox.BeginUpdate() ' Notify that update begins ListInbox.Items.Clear() i = 0 ' first email message is 0 For Each Message In Folder.Messages Try i = i + 1 ' increment to the next email message 'get e-mail from the Inbox, can be any other item oItem = Application.Session.GetDefaultFolder(6).Items(i) ' GetDefaultFolder(6) refers to Inbox sItem.Item = oItem 'sItem is an object of Redemption COM and is used to get the senders name items(0) = sItem.SenderName() Catch items(0) = "error" End Try Dim objApp As Outlook.Application = New Outlook.Application 'Get Mapi NameSpace Dim objNS As Outlook.NameSpace = objApp.GetNamespace("MAPI") Dim oMsg As Outlook.MailItem Dim pp As String Dim b As Integer Dim objAttachment As Outlook.Attachment pp = Message.StoreID items(1) = Message.Subject items(2) = Message.TimeReceived items(4) = Message.Subject items(5) = Message.Size Dim objInbox As Outlook.MAPIFolder = objNS.GetDefaultFolder(Outlook.OlDefaultFolders.olFolderInbox) Dim objItems As Outlook.Items = objInbox.Items items(5) = Message.Size.ToString / 1000 & "kb" If Message.Unread = True Then items(3) = "unread" Else items(3) = "read" End If ListInbox.Items.Add(New ListViewItem(items)) Next ListInbox.EndUpdate() ' Notify that update ends Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default End If End Sub How I can display message that email has attachment?

    Read the article

  • .net framework execution aborted while executing CLR sproc?

    - by Sean Ochoa
    I constructed a sproc that does the equivalent of FOR XML AUTO in SQL 2008. Now that I'm testing it, it gives me a really unhelpful error msg. Any idea what this error means? Msg 10329, Level 16, State 49, Procedure ForXML, Line 0 .Net Framework execution was aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: Thread was being aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: at System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.PtrToStringUni(IntPtr ptr, Int32 len) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.CXVariantBase.WSTRToString() at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.SqlWSTRLimitedBuffer.GetString(SmiEventSink sink) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.RowData.GetString(SmiEventSink sink, Int32 i) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue(SmiEventSink_Default sink, ITypedGettersV3 getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue200(SmiEventSink_Default sink, SmiTypedGetterSetter getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) at ForXML.GetXML...

    Read the article

  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • Flex - Increase timeout on a PHP service function call

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4 Beta 2. I have it connecting to a PHP service. The way I set this up was using the wizard, so I didn't actually write the code to connect to it. The service looks like this: package services.flash { import mx.rpc.AsyncToken; import com.adobe.fiber.core.model_internal; import mx.rpc.AbstractOperation; import valueObjects.CustomDatatype8; import valueObjects.NewUsageData; import mx.collections.ItemResponder; import mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject; import mx.rpc.remoting.Operation; import com.adobe.fiber.services.wrapper.RemoteObjectServiceWrapper; import com.adobe.fiber.valueobjects.AvailablePropertyIterator; import com.adobe.serializers.utility.TypeUtility; [ExcludeClass] internal class _Super_FLASH extends RemoteObjectServiceWrapper { // Constructor public function _Super_FLASH() { // initialize service control _serviceControl = new RemoteObject(); var operations:Object = new Object(); var operation:Operation; operation = new Operation(null, "sendCommand"); operation.resultType = Object; operations["sendCommand"] = operation; ... } } One of the functions that I'm calling fetches users from a MySQL database. There are about 30,000 users right now. The service seems to timeout when fetching more than around 22,000 rows, I get the "Channel Disconnected before an acknowledgement was received" error. If I call the PHP script from a browser, it fetches them all with no problems at all, however. I have tried increasing the timeout in the PHP script (which didn't work), but obviously this isn't the problem since the browser is able to pull them up with no problems. Is there a way to increase the timeout of the PHP service in Flash Builder? I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to Flash, so please be descriptive. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I get multimonth plugin of the jQuery datePicker to load with certain dates already selected?

    - by imHavoc
    well im using this script right here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/ and I have a multiMonth plugin and multiple select enabled. I want to be able to on load have certain dates already selected and those dates come from a database I found two possible clues to help me out, but since I have not strictly learned JS yet, I can not made heads or tails. http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/renderCalendarBankHolidays.html http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerDefaultToday.html here's the code right now im using: <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(function() { jQuery('#multimonth').datePickerMultiMonth({ numMonths: 12, inline: true, selectMultiple: true, startDate: '01/09/2009', // DD/MM/YY month: 8, // 0=JAN 1=FEB ... year: 2009 }).bind( 'dpMonthChanged', function(event, displayedMonth, displayedYear) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dpMonthChanged', arguments); }).bind( 'dateSelected', function(event, date, jQuerytd, status) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dateSelected', arguments); }).val( new Date().asString()).trigger('change'); jQuery('#getSelected').bind( 'click', function(e) { alert(jQuery('#multimonth').dpmmGetSelected()); return false; }); }); </script> and this part is not being selected, I took it from the select todays date demo .val(new Date().asString()).trigger('change');

    Read the article

  • XamlReader.Parse throws exception on empty String

    - by sub-jp
    In our app, we need to save properties of objects to the same database table regardless of the type of object, in the form of propertyName, propertyValue, propertyType. We decided to use XamlWriter to save all of the given object's properties. We then use XamlReader to load up the XAML that was created, and turn it back into the value for the property. This works fine for the most part, except for empty strings. The XamlWriter will save an empty string as below. <String xmlns="clr-namespace:System;assembly=mscorlib" xml:space="preserve" /> The XamlReader sees this string and tries to create a string, but can't find an empty constructor in the String object to use, so it throws a ParserException. The only workaround that I can think of is to not actually save the property if it is an empty string. Then, as I load up the properties, I can check for which ones did not exist, which means they would have been empty strings. Is there some workaround for this, or is there even a better way of doing this?

    Read the article

  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

    Read the article

  • Google map API v3 event click raise when clickingMarkerClusterer?

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a Google Map API v3 map object on a page that uses MarkerClusterer. I have a function that need to run when we click on the map to it is registered as: google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function (event) { CallMe(event.latLng); }); So my problem is as follows: When I click on a cluster of MarkerClusterer instead of behaving like a marker and not raise the click event on the map but only the one from the marker it calls the click from the map. To test this I have generated an alert from the markerclusterer click: google.maps.event.addListener(markerClusterer, "clusterclick", function (cluster) { alert('MarkerClusterer click event'); }); So the clusterclick rises after the click event of map object. I then can't remove the listener of map object as a solution. Is there any way to test if there was a clusterer click in the click event of the map? Or a way to replicate the marker behaviour and do not raise the click event of map when clustererclick is called? Google and documentation didn’t help me. Thx

    Read the article

  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • DIVS over flash movies in Internet Explorer

    - by drew
    The age old question... why the hell doesn't a div positioned over a flash object stay on top with z-index. I have found the answer in the past, but it's been so long, I can't seem to get it. My flash movie is in a div floating left: <div id="flash"> <object width="614" height="289"> <param name="movie" value="images/75.swf"> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"> <embed src="images/75.swf" width="614" height="289" wmode"transparent"> </embed> </object> </div> My css for the div that needs to be on top is: .menu ul li:hover ul li a:hover { background:#5a3f2d; color:#FFF; z-index: 9999; I cannot get it to show above the flash movie in ie6 or ie8. I know this is old school but I'm frustrated! Does my nav div need to have an absolute position? Is that why it doesn't work? Example is here. Hover over the first link on the right: "CUSTOMER SERVICE" Thanks all :)

    Read the article

  • Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

    - by user1289061
    I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

    Read the article

  • How to configure RetryAdvice and ExceptionTranslation for Deadlocks using NHibernate and Spring

    - by zoidbeck
    Hi, i am using Spring.net 1.2 with NHibernate 2.0.1. Within my project i'am facing some Deadlock issues and besides the database tweaks to minimize the occurence i would like to implement Springs RetryAdvice to handle this. I can't find any working example how to configure a this. The reference seems to be clear about how to use it but somehow i can't get it working. <!--Used to translate NHibernate exception to Spring.DataAccessExceptions--> <object type="Spring.Dao.Attributes.PersistenceExceptionTranslationPostProcessor, Spring.Data"/> <!--ExceptionHandler performing Retry on Deadlocks--> <object name="ExceptionHandlingAdvice" type="Spring.Aspects.RetryAdvice, Spring.Aop"> <property name="retryExpression" value="on exception name DeadLockLoserException retry 3x rate (1*#n + 0.5)"/> </object> I have added the [Repository] attribute to my DAOs to get ExceptionTranslation enabled and tried to add the RetryAdvice to the TransactionProxyFactoryObject i am using but it won't work. I don't understand where to put this Advice. Do i have to declare a PointCut to add it or how could i get it to work as expected. Thx in advance - any help appreciated.

    Read the article

  • IPhone SDK removal of NSLog causes NSArray to be undeclared !

    - by Maxwell Segal
    I have a working application I'm about to distribute and am tidying up NSLog statements in it. When I remove NSLog from from a "case" statement, the NSArray declared within the "case" statement errors as Expected expression before AND undeclared. Anybody any idea why this may be? This is happening on all case statements in my app where I'm now removing NSLog. An example code sections appears below: switch (chosenScene) { case 0: //NSLog(@"group1"); // the following NSArray errors with "expected expression.." AND "..group1Secondsarray undeclared" NSArray *group1SecondsArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"1/15",@"1/30",@"1/30",@"1/60",@"1/125",@"1/250",nil]; NSArray *group1FStopArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"2.8",@"2.8",@"4",@"5.6",@"5.6",@"5.6",nil]; NSString *group1SecondsText = [group1SecondsArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedSeconds.text = group1SecondsText; NSString *group1FStopText = [group1FStopArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedFStop.text = group1FStopText; [group1SecondsText release]; [group1FStopText release]; break;

    Read the article

  • Bind SQLiteDataReader to GridView in ASP.NET

    - by Charles Gargent
    Hi, this is all rather new to me, but I have searched for a good while and cant find any idea why I cant get this to work, dr looks like it is populated but I get this nullreferenceexeception when I try to bind to the gridview Thanks code SQLiteConnection cnn = new SQLiteConnection(@"Data Source=c:\log.db"); cnn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(@"SELECT * FROM evtlog", cnn); SQLiteDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView1.DataSource = dr; GridView1.DataBind(); dr.Close(); cnn.Close(); Codebehind <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> error Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at WPKG_Report.SiteMaster.Button1_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\Report\Site.Master.cs:line 32 at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

    Read the article

  • Python unicode problem

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm receiving some data from a ZODB (Zope Object Database). I receive a mybrains object. Then I do: o = mybrains.getObject() and I receive a "Person" object in my project. Then, I can do b = o.name and doing print b on my class I get: José Carlos and print b.name.__class__ <type 'unicode'> I have a lot of "Person" objects. They are added to a list. names = [o.nome, o1.nome, o2.nome] Then, I trying to create a text file with this data. delimiter = ';' all = delimiter.join(names) + '\n' No problem. Now, when I do a print all I have: José Carlos;Jonas;Natália Juan;John But when I try to create a file of it: f = open("/tmp/test.txt", "w") f.write(all) I get an error like this (the positions aren't exaclty the same, since I change the names) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xe9' in position 84: ordinal not in range(128) If I can print already with the "correct" form to display it, why I can't write a file with it? Which encode/decode method should I use to write a file with this data? I'm using Python 2.4.5 (can't upgrade it)

    Read the article

  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

    Read the article

  • How do you localize/internationalize an MVC Controller when using a SQL based localization provider?

    - by EBarr
    Hopefully this isn't too silly of a question. In MVC there appears to be plenty of localization support in the views. Once I get to the controller, however, it becomes murky. Using meta:resourcekey="blah" is out, same with <%$ Resources:PageTitle.Text%. ASP.NET MVC - Localization Helpers -- suggested extensions for the Html helper classes like Resource(this Controller controller, string expression, params object[] args). Similarly, Localize your MVC with ease suggested a slightly different extension like Localize(this System.Web.UI.UserControl control, string resourceKey, params object[] args) None of these approaches works while in a controller. I put together the below function and I'm using the controllers full class name as my VirtualPath. But I'm new to MVC and assume there's a better way. public static string Localize (System.Type theType, string resourceKey, params object[] args) { string resource = (HttpContext.GetLocalResourceObject(theType.FullName, resourceKey) ?? string.Empty).ToString(); return mergeTokens(resource, args); } Thoughts? Comments?

    Read the article

  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

    Read the article

  • sqlite3 - stringWithUTF8String is leaking!

    - by Darko Hebrang
    I would appreciate if someone could help me solve my leaking problem. The leaks occur at: aImage, aCategory, aDescription, category and categories. I release them in dealloc, but obviously that is not sufficient: -(void) readListFromDatabase:(char *) sqlStatement { // Setup some globals databaseName = @"mydatabase.sql"; // Get the path to the documents directory and append the databaseName NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; // Setup the database object sqlite3 *database; // Init the categories Array categories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Open the database from the users filessytem if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row aImage = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 0)]; aCategory = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)]; aDescription = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2)]; // Create a new category object with the data from the database category=[[Category alloc] initWithName:aImage category_name:aCategory description_text:aDescription]; // Add the category object to the categories Array [categories addObject:category]; [category release]; } } // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); } - (void)dealloc { [databaseName release]; [databasePath release]; [categories release]; [aImage release]; [aCategory release]; [aDescription release]; [category release]; [super dealloc]; }

    Read the article

  • How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

    - by Ron Klein
    Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

    Read the article

  • Show me your Linq to SQL architectures!

    - by Brad Heller
    I've been using Linq to SQL for a new implementation that I've been working on. I have about 5000 lines of code and am a little ways from a solid demo. I've been pretty satisfied with Linq to SQL so far -- the tools are excellent and pretty painless and it allows you to get a DAL up and running quickly. That said, there are some major draw backs that I just keep hitting over and over again. Namely how to handle separation of concerns between my DAL and my business layer and juggling that with different data contexts. Here is the architecture I've been using: My repositories do all my data access and they return Linq to SQL objects. Each of my Linq to SQL objects implements an IDetachable interface. A typical implementation looks like this: partial class PaymentDetail : IDetachable { #region IDetachable Members public bool IsAttached { get { return PropertyChanging != null; } } public void Detach() { if (IsAttached) { PropertyChanged = null; PropertyChanging = null; Transaction.Detach(); } } #endregion } Every time I do a DAL operation in my repository I "detach" when I'm done with the object (and it should theoretically detach from any child objects) to remove the DataContext's context. Like I said, this works pretty well, but there are some edge cases that seem to be a big pain in the ass. For instance, my Transaction object has many PaymentDetails. Even when there are no PaymentDetails in that collection it's still attached to the DataContext's context! Thus, if I try to update (I update by Attach()ing to the object and then SubmitChanges()) I get that dreaded "An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported." message. Anyway, I'm starting to doubt that this technology was a good gamble. Has anyone got a decent architecture that they're willing to share? I'd really love to use this technology but I feel like I spend 1/3 of my time just debugging is retarded quirks!

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

    - by ilitirit
    This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >