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• Show PDF in HTML in web

  - by Anil

  Hi, I'm using the object tag to render PDF in HTML, but I'm doing it in MVC like this: <object data="/JDLCustomer/GetPDFData?projID=<%=ViewData["ProjectID"]%>&folder=<%=ViewData["Folder"] %>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900"> </object> and Controller/Action is public void GetPDFData(string projID, Project_Thin.Folders folder) { Highmark.BLL.Models.Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(folder, false); if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").ToList(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Highmark.BLL.PDF.JDLCustomerPDF pdfObj = new JDLCustomerPDF(ff, proj.SimpleDbID); byte[] bArr = pdfObj.GetPDF(Response.OutputStream); pdfObj = null; Response.ContentType = "application/" + System.IO.Path.GetExtension("TakeOffPlans").Replace(".", ""); Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=\"TakeOffPlans\""); Response.BinaryWrite(bArr); Response.Flush(); } } The problem is, as I'm downloading data first from server and then return the byte data, it is taking some time in downloading, so I want to show some kind of progress to show processing. Please help me on this.

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• Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

  - by philrabin

  I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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• How do you localize/internationalize an MVC Controller when using a SQL based localization provider?

  - by EBarr

  Hopefully this isn't too silly of a question. In MVC there appears to be plenty of localization support in the views. Once I get to the controller, however, it becomes murky. Using meta:resourcekey="blah" is out, same with <%$ Resources:PageTitle.Text%. ASP.NET MVC - Localization Helpers -- suggested extensions for the Html helper classes like Resource(this Controller controller, string expression, params object[] args). Similarly, Localize your MVC with ease suggested a slightly different extension like Localize(this System.Web.UI.UserControl control, string resourceKey, params object[] args) None of these approaches works while in a controller. I put together the below function and I'm using the controllers full class name as my VirtualPath. But I'm new to MVC and assume there's a better way. public static string Localize (System.Type theType, string resourceKey, params object[] args) { string resource = (HttpContext.GetLocalResourceObject(theType.FullName, resourceKey) ?? string.Empty).ToString(); return mergeTokens(resource, args); } Thoughts? Comments?

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• How to map coordinates in AxesImage to coordinates in saved image file?

  - by Vebjorn Ljosa

  I use matplotlib to display a matrix of numbers as an image, attach labels along the axes, and save the plot to a PNG file. For the purpose of creating an HTML image map, I need to know the pixel coordinates in the PNG file for a region in the image being displayed by imshow. I have found an example of how to do this with a regular plot, but when I try to do the same with imshow, the mapping is not correct. Here is my code, which saves an image and attempts to print the pixel coordinates of the center of each square on the diagonal: import numpy as np import matplotlib.pyplot as plt fig = plt.figure() ax = fig.add_axes([0.1, 0.1, 0.8, 0.8]) axim = ax.imshow(np.random.random((27,27)), interpolation='nearest') for x, y in axim.get_transform().transform(zip(range(28), range(28))): print int(x), int(fig.get_figheight() * fig.get_dpi() - y) plt.savefig('foo.png', dpi=fig.get_dpi()) Here is the resulting foo.png, shown as a screenshot in order to include the rulers: The output of the script starts and ends as follows: 73 55 92 69 111 83 130 97 149 112 … 509 382 528 396 547 410 566 424 585 439 As you see, the y-coordinates are correct, but the x-coordinates are stretched: they range from 73 to 585 instead of the expected 135 to 506, and they are spaced 19 pixels o.c. instead of the expected 14. What am I doing wrong?

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

  - by Ron Klein

  Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

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• loaded resources looks ugly

  - by Xaver

  I have the TreeView class using in my project. I use icons for it.First i load icons so: ImageList^ il = gcnew ImageList(); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("DISK.ico")); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("FILE.ico")); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("FOLDER.ico")); treeView1->ImageList = il; All was good. But i dont like that if i delete my icons from directory of project. there is error in my project. I decide to add icons in .resx file. Now icons loading look so: ImageList^ il = gcnew ImageList(); Resources::ResourceManager^ resourceManager = gcnew Resources::ResourceManager ("FilesSaver.Form1", GetType()->Assembly); Object^ disk = resourceManager->GetObject("DISK"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(disk)); Object^ file = resourceManager->GetObject("FILE"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(file)); Object^ folder = resourceManager->GetObject("FOLDER"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(folder)); treeView1->ImageList = il; And why icons in the TreeView looks ugly (they look lighter and have a big black border). Why did this happen?

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• calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

  - by CraigJSte

  Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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• jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

  - by jamiebarrow

  Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

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• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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• Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

  - by Zarion

  Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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• Problem using structured data with sproxy-generated proxy c++ class

  - by Odrade

  I am attempting to communicate structured data types between a Visual C++ client application and an ASP.NET web service. I'm am having issues whenever any parameter or return type is not a basic type (e.g. string, int, float, etc). To illustrate the issue, I created the following ASP.NET web service: namespace TestWebService { [WebService(Namespace = "http://localhost/TestWebService")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [ToolboxItem(false)] public class Service1 : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public TestData StructuredOutput() { TestData td = new TestData(); td.data = 1729; return td; } } public class TestData { public int data; } } To consume the service, I created a dirt-simple Visual C++ client in VS2005. I added a web reference to the project, which caused sproxy to generate a proxy class for me. With the generated header properly included, I attempted to invoke the service like this: int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { CoInitialize(NULL); Service1::CService1 ws; Service1::TestData td; HRESULT hr = ws.StructuredOutput(&td); //data is returned as expected CoUninitialize(); return 0; } // crashes here with access violation The call to StructuredOutput returns the data as expected, but an access violation occurs on destruction of the CService1 object. The access violation is occurring here (from atlsoap.h): void UninitializeSOAP() { if (m_spReader.p != NULL) { m_spReader->putContentHandler(NULL); //access violation m_spReader.Release(); } } I see the same behavior when using a TestData object as an input parameter, or when using any other structured data types as input or output. When I use basic types for input/output from the web service I do not experience these errors. Any ideas about why this might be happening? Is sproxy screwing something up, or am I? NOTE: I'm aware of gSOAP and the wsdl2h tool, but those aren't freely available for commercial use (and nobody here is going to buy a license). I am open to alternatives for generating the c++ proxy, as long as they are free for commercial use.

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• Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

  - by fgnt

  I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

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• Updates to fullcalendar events (through updateEvent) not maintaining across ajax month changes

  - by user549615

  Hey there. I have the calendar configured to allow me to edit and add (drag/drop) calendar events. I use .fullCalendar('updateEvent', theEvent) to edit an event, and it immediately updates on the page. Excellent. If I move to another month and then move back (get via ajax), that change is undone. By contrast, if I add a new event by drag/drop using: .fullCalendar('renderEvent', newEventObject, true); it appears on the calendar, and if I move to another month, and move back, it maintains. If I edit this newly added event object, and move to another month and back, the updates are retained! So the "stickiness" of edits seem to work on newly added events, but not events that were pulled via ajax (since it just pulls a fresh version via ajax when the month changes). My calendar config is: $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ theme: true, header: { left: "prev,next today", center: 'title', right: "today prev,next" }, selectable: true, selectHelper: true, select: calendarSelect, droppable: true, drop: calendarDrop, events:getCalendarData, eventClick:calendarEventClicked }); I tried setting editable: true, as well, but no dice. I noticed that if I view "event.source" on one of the ajax pulled events, it shows me a function, and if i read the source attribute on one of the "added" events, it reads [object]. So I tried setting the event.source of the event being added, to that same event object: curCalendarEvent.source = curCalendarEvent But no dice. It sets, but when I move back month forward again, it returns to the function as a source. I tried adding lazyFetching: false to my calendar config, but that didn't help. I even tried a .fullCalendar('renderEvent', curCalendarEvent, true); on the existing "edited" event to see if I could get "stick" to work, and it didn't help. The only thing I can think of doing is deleting the event flat out and recreating it. Any help would be appreciated. -Brian

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• Getting value of "i" from GEvent

  - by Cosizzle

  Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

  - by ck

  I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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• How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

  - by Russ Hayward

  I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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• How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

  - by Tchalvak

  I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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• MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

  - by Infinity

  Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

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• SqlCe odd results why? -- Same SQL, different results in different apps. Issue with

  - by NitroxDM

  When I run this SQl in my mobile app I get zero rows. select * from inventory WHERE [ITEMNUM] LIKE 'PUMP%' AND [LOCATION] = 'GARAGE' When I run the same SQL in Query Analyzer 3.5 using the same database I get my expected one row. Why the difference? Here is the code I'm using in the mobile app: SqlCeCommand cmd = new SqlCeCommand(Query); cmd.Connection = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source="+filePath+";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); cmd.Connection.Open(); SqlCeDataReader tmpRdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (tmpRdr.Read()) tmpTable.Load(tmpRdr); tmpRdr.Close(); cmd.Connection.Close(); return tmpTable; UPDATE: For the sake of trying I used the code found in one of the answers found here and it works as expected. So my code looks like this: SqlCeConnection conn = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source=" + filePath + ";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); SqlCeDataAdapter AD = new SqlCeDataAdapter(Query, conn); AD.Fill(tmpTable); The issue appears to be with the SqlCeDataReader. Hope this helps someone else out!

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• Crystal Report: Missing Parameter Values

  - by Chintan

  Hi! I am new to Crystal report, application is on ASP.net 3.5 and MySQL 5.1 with, going to develop report with between dates from date and to date, first page of report is shown good but when i tried to navigate on another page i got error like Missing Parameter Values Thanks in advance public partial class BookingStatement : System.Web.UI.Page { //DAL is my Data Access Layer Class //Book is ReportClass DAL obj = new DAL(); Book bkStmt = new Book(); protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { //crvBooking is Crystal Report Viewer //reportFill method is to fill Report reportFill(); crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; crvBooking.EnableParameterPrompt = false; } /* Also try reportFill() out side !IsPostBack but didn't work */ //Check if the parmeters have been shown. /* if ((ViewState["ParametersShown"] != null) && (ViewState["ParametersShown"].ToString() == "True")) { bkStmt.SetParameterValue(0, "20/04/2010"); bkStmt.SetParameterValue(1, "20/04/2010"); }*/ } protected void crvBooking_navigate(object sender, CrystalDecisions.Web.NavigateEventArgs e) { // reportFill(); } protected void reportFill() { //bkStmt.rpt is Report file //bookingstatment is View //bkStmt is ReportClass object of Book string rptPath = "bkStmt.rpt"; string query = "select * from bookingstatment"; crvBooking.RefreshReport(); crvBooking.Height = 600; crvBooking.Width = 900; bkStmt.ResourceName = rptPath; String dtFrm = bkStmt.ParameterFields[0].CurrentValues.ToString(); obj.SetCommandType(CommandType.Text); obj.CommText = query; DataTable dtst = obj.GetDataTable(); crvBooking.ParameterFieldInfo.Clear(); ParameterDiscreteValue discretevalue = new ParameterDiscreteValue(); discretevalue.Value = "20/04/2010"; // Assign parameter ParameterValues values = new ParameterValues(); values.Add(discretevalue); bkStmt.SetDataSource(dtst); ViewState["ParametersShown"] = "True"; crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[0].ApplyCurrentValues(values); bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[1].ApplyCurrentValues(values); crvBooking.ReportSource = bkStmt; } }

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• Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

  - by Danny Douglass

  I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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• AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

  - by Julian

  Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

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