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• How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

  - by Mordachai

  I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

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• When is a bool not a bool (compiler warning C4800)

  - by omatai

  Consider this being compiled in MS Visual Studio 2005 (and probably others): CPoint point1( 1, 2 ); CPoint point2( 3, 4 ); const bool point1And2Identical( point1 == point2 ); // C4800 warning const bool point1And2TheSame( ( point1 == point2 ) == TRUE ); // no warning What the...? Is the MSVC compiler brain-dead? As far as I can tell, TRUE is #defined as 1, without any type information. So by what magic is there any difference between these two lines? Surely the type of the expression inside the brackets is the same in both cases? [This part of the question now satisfactorily answered in the comments just below] Personally, I think that avoiding the warning by using the == TRUE option is ugly (though less ugly than the != 0 alternative, despite being more strictly correct), and it is better to use #pragma warning( disable:4800 ) to imply "my code is good, the compiler is an ass". Agree? Note - I have seen all manner of discussion on C4800 talking about assigning ints to bools, or casting a burger combo with large fries (hold the onions) to a bool, and wondering why there are strange results. I can't find a clear answer on what seems like a much simpler question... that might just shine line on C4800 in general.

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• Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

  - by max

  Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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• Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

  - by Pazinio

  I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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• Creating simple calculator with bison & flex in C++ (not C)

  - by ak91

  Hey, I would like to create simple C++ calculator using bison and flex. Please note I'm new to the creating parsers. I already found few examples in bison/flex but they were all written in C. My goal is to create C++ code, where classes would contain nodes of values, operations, funcs - to create AST (evaluation would be done just after creating whole AST - starting from the root and going forward). For example: my_var = sqrt(9 ** 2 - 32) + 4 - 20 / 5 my_var * 3 Would be parsed as: = / \ my_var + / \ sqrt - | / \ - 4 / / \ / \ ** 32 20 5 / \ 9 2 and the second AST would look like: * / \ my_var 3 Then following pseudocode reflects AST: ast_root = create_node('=', new_variable("my_var"), exp) where exp is: exp = create_node(OPERATOR, val1, val2) but NOT like this: $$ = $1 OPERATOR $3 because this way I directly get value of operation instead of creation the Node. I believe the Node should contain type (of operation), val1 (Node), val2 (Node). In some cases val2 would be NULL, like above mentioned sqrt which takes in the end one argument. Right? It will be nice if you can propose me C++ skeleton (without evaluation) for above described problem (including *.y file creating AST) to help me understand the way of creating/holding Nodes in AST. Code can be snipped, just to let me get the idea. I'll also be grateful if you point me to an existing (possibly simple) example if you know any. Thank you all for your time and assistance!

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• ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

  - by Gareth D

  We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

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• cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

  - by CJ

  I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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• C#: How to get all public (both get and set) string properties of a type

  - by Svish

  I am trying to make a method that will go through a list of generic objects and replace all their properties of type string which is either null or empty with a replacement. How is a good way to do this? I have this kind of... shell... so far: public static void ReplaceEmptyStrings<T>(List<T> list, string replacement) { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties( -- What BindingFlags? -- ); foreach(var p in properties) { foreach(var item in list) { if(string.IsNullOrEmpty((string) p.GetValue(item, null))) p.SetValue(item, replacement, null); } } } So, how do I find all the properties of a type that are: Of type string Has public get Has public set ? I made this test class: class TestSubject { public string Public; private string Private; public string PublicPublic { get; set; } public string PublicPrivate { get; private set; } public string PrivatePublic { private get; set; } private string PrivatePrivate { get; set; } } The following does not work: var properties = typeof(TestSubject) .GetProperties(BindingFlags.Instance|BindingFlags.Public) .Where(ø => ø.CanRead && ø.CanWrite) .Where(ø => ø.PropertyType == typeof(string)); If I print out the Name of those properties I get there, I get: PublicPublic PublicPrivate PrivatePublic In other words, I get two properties too much. Note: This could probably be done in a better way... using nested foreach and reflection and all here... but if you have any great alternative ideas, please let me know cause I want to learn!

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• How is the C++ synthesized move constructor affected by volatile and virtual members?

  - by user1827766

  Look at the following code: struct node { node(); //node(const node&); //#1 //node(node&&); //#2 virtual //#3 ~node (); node* volatile //#4 next; }; main() { node m(node()); //#5 node n=node(); //#6 } When compiled with gcc-4.6.1 it produces the following error: g++ -g --std=c++0x -c -o node.o node.cc node.cc: In constructor node::node(node&&): node.cc:3:8: error: expression node::next has side-effects node.cc: In function int main(): node.cc:18:14: note: synthesized method node::node(node&&) first required here As I understand the compiler fails to create default move or copy constructor on line #6, if I uncomment either line #1 or #2 it compiles fine, that is clear. The code compiles fine without c++0x option, so the error is related to default move constructor. However, what in the node class prevents default move constructor to be created? If I comment any of the lines #3 or #4 (i.e. make the destructor non-virtual or make data member non-volatile) it compiles again, so is it the combination of these two makes it not to compile? Another puzzle, line #5 does not cause an compilation error, what is different from line #6? Is it all specific for gcc? or gcc-4.6.1?

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• JavaCC: How can I specify which token(s) are expected in certain context?

  - by java.is.for.desktop

  Hello, everyone! I need to make JavaCC aware of a context (current parent token), and depending on that context, expect different token(s) to occur. Consider the following pseudo-code: TOKEN <abc> { "abc*" } // recognizes "abc", "abcd", "abcde", ... TOKEN <abcd> { "abcd*" } // recognizes "abcd", "abcde", "abcdef", ... TOKEN <element1> { "element1" "[" expectOnly(<abc>) "]" } TOKEN <element2> { "element2" "[" expectOnly(<abcd>) "]" } ... So when the generated parser is "inside" a token named "element1" and it encounter "abcdef" it recognizes it as <abc>, but when its "inside" a token named "element2" it recognizes the same string as <abcd>. element1 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abc> element2 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abcd> If I'm not wrong, it would behave similar to more complex DTD definitions of an XML file. So, how can one specify, in which "context" which token(s) are valid/expected? NOTE: It would be not enough for my real case to define a kind of "hierarchy" of tokens, so that "abcdef" is always first matched against <abcd> and than <abc>. I really need context-aware tokens.

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• How to understand "if ( obj.length === +obj.length )" Javascript condition statement?

  - by humanityANDpeace

  I have run across a condition statement which I have some difficulties to understand. It looks like (please note the +-sign on the right-hand-side) this: obj.length === +obj.length. Can this condition and its purpose/syntax be explained? Looking at the statement (without knowing it) provokes the impression that it is a dirty hack of some sort, but I am almost certain that underscore.js is rather a well designed library, so there must be a better explanation. Background I found this statement used in some functions of the underscore.js library (underscore.js annotated source). My guesswork is that this condition statement is somehow related to testing for a variable obj to be of Array type? (but I am totally unsure). I have tried to test this using this code. var myArray = [1,2,3]; testResult1 = myArray.length === +myArray.length; console.log( testResult1 ); //prints true var myObject = { foo : "somestring", bar : 123 }; testResult2 = myObject.length === +myObject.length; console.log( testResult2 ); //prints false

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• FileNotFoundExcecption while inserting image into SDCard.

  - by Are

  Hi, I want to insert images into my SDCard.So I used below code m_cImagePath = "/sdcard/"+ String.format("%d.jpg", System.currentTimeMillis()); FileOutputStream lObjOutStream = null; try { lObjOutStream = new FileOutputStream(m_cImagePath); if (null != lObjOutStream && null != finalBitmap) { finalBitmap.compress(Bitmap.CompressFormat.JPEG, 85, lObjOutStream); lObjOutStream.close(); }catch(FileNotFoundException fe){ fe.printStackTrace(); } Sometimes it is giving FileNotFoundException even my SDCard had memory.When I remove some images from sdcard again it is working smoothly.Why this Happend?How can i know that file is inserted successfully in SDCard and Is there any functionality in Java1.5 to know available space of the SDCard like java 1.6?How can i know file length which is not before inserting into the SDCard(I searched in google and found that "when the file is not physically there then file.length() always gives 0" ).But before inserting i want to know the length of the file.Then Comparing this space to available SDCard space is simple. Note :I had an idea to use Unix command df sdcard using in Runtime class to found SDCard space. Please give me an idea in this problem. Regards, Android Developer

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• How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

  - by Arms

  After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Suitable data structures for saving files in localStorage (HTML5) ?

  - by WmasterJ

  It is nice when there isn't a DB to maintain and users to authenticate. My professor has asked me to convert a recent research project of his that uses Bespin and calculates errors made by users in a code editor as part of his research. The goal is to convert from MySQL to using HTML5 localStorage completely. Doesn't seem so hard to do, even though digging in his code might take some time. Question: I need to store files and state (last placement of cursor and active file). I have already done so by implementing the recommendations in another stackoverflow thread. But would like your input considering how to structure the content to use. My current solution Hashmap like solution with javascript objects: files = {}; // later, saving files[fileName] = data; And then storing in localStorage using some recommendations localStorage.setObject("files", files); // Note that setObject(key, data) does not exist but is added // using Storage.prototype.setObject = function() {... Currently I'm also considering using some type of numeric id. So that names can be changed without any hassle renaming the key in the hashmap. What is your opinion on the way it is solved and would you do it any differently?

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• Which pattern to use for logging? Dependency Injection or Service Locator?

  - by andlju

  Consider this scenario. I have some business logic that now and then will be required to write to a log. interface ILogger { void Log(string stuff); } interface IDependency { string GetInfo(); } class MyBusinessObject { private IDependency _dependency; public MyBusinessObject(IDependency dependency) { _dependency = dependency; } public string DoSomething(string input) { // Process input var info = _dependency.GetInfo(); var intermediateResult = PerformInterestingStuff(input, info); if (intermediateResult== "SomethingWeNeedToLog") { // How do I get to the ILogger-interface? } var result = PerformSomethingElse(intermediateResult); return result; } } How would you get the ILogger interface? I see two main possibilities; Pass it using Dependency Injection on the constructor. Get it via a singleton Service Locator. Which method would you prefer, and why? Or is there an even better pattern? Update: Note that I don't need to log ALL method calls. I only want to log a few (rare) events that may or may not occur within my method.

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• Binding ComboBox Item with a text property of different DataContext

  - by Jhelumi786

  Hi Everyone, I have a comboBox as below. What I want is to bind the selectedItem value to a Text property of a datacontext so that another DataTemplate can show the Image. Please note that the Combobox and Target Image elements are on two different DataTemplates so that's why I need to update the Text Property (ImageName) ofDataContext at backend. <ComboBox x:Name="cboOverlay" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" SelectedIndex="0" > <ComboBoxItem Name="BC_OL" IsSelected="True"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\BC_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image1</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem Name="Indian_OL"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\Indian_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image2</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> <Image Source="{Binding Path=Image}" Width="81" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" />

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• Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

  - by Mousarules

  Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

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• Visual Studio internal project references not always working

  - by Chris

  I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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• Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

  - by DanM

  I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

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• multiple models in Rails with a shared interface

  - by dfondente

  I'm not sure of the best structure for a particular situation in Rails. We have several types of workshops. The administration of the workshops is the same regardless of workshop type, so the data for the workshops is in a single model. We collect feedback from participants about the workshops, and the questionnaire is different for each type of workshop. I want to access the feedback about the workshop from the workshop model, but the class of the associated model will depend on the type of workshop. If I was doing this in something other than Rails, I would set up an abstract class for WorkshopFeedback, and then have subclasses for each type of workshop: WorkshopFeedbackOne, WorkshopFeedbackTwo, WorkshopFeedbackThree. I'm unsure how to best handle this with Rails. I currently have: class Workshop < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :workshop_feedbacks end class Feedback < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :workshop has_many :feedback_ones has_many :feedback_twos has_many :feedback_threes end class FeedbackOne < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end class FeedbackTwo < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end class FeedbackThree < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end This doesn't seem like to the cleanest way to access the feedback from the workshop model, as accessing the correct feedback will require logic investigating the Workshop type and then choosing, for instance, @workshop.feedback.feedback_one. Is there a better way to handle this situation? Would it be better to use a polymorphic association for feedback? Or maybe using a Module or Mixin for the shared Feedback interface? Note: I am avoiding using Single Table Inheritance here because the FeedbackOne, FeedbackTwo, FeedbackThree models do not share much common data, so I would end up with a large sparsely populated table with STI.

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• Need help with an xpath query!

  - by gerrod

  Can anyone help with the following XPath question? Given the node-set: <table> <rows> <row> <value column="Product">Coal</value> <value column="Quantity">10000</value> </row> <row> <value column="Product">Iron</value> <value column="Quantity">5000</value> </row> <row> <value column="Product">Ore</value> <value column="Quantity">4000</value> </row> </rows> </table> I want to query to find the node sub-set with a given product name. Note that the product name is being supplied by an attribute of the current node being processed (i.e. "@name"). So when the @name attribute has the value of "Coal" I would expect this to be returned: <row> <value column="Product">Coal</value> <value column="Quantity">10000</value> </row> This is what I've come up with; I know it's wrong, because I don't get anything back. $table/rows/row[value[@column='Product'][text()=@name]] </code>

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• Detectig by how much user has scrolled

  - by Sean

  I have an image pop-up ability on my website (see this screenshot), in order to show users the full resolution picture when they click on a smaller version on the page. This is the current CSS that positions it: div#enlargedImgWrapper { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 55px; z-index: 999; } The problem now is that if I click on an image further down the page, the window still appears in the top left corner of the page, where I can't see it until I scroll back up. I need it to appear relative to the window, whatever its current position relative to the document is. Note: I don't want to use position: fixed; as some images might be taller than the screen, so I want users to be able to scroll along the image as well. My idea was to use JS to change the top value: var scrollValue = ???; document.getElementById('enlargedImgWrapper').style.top = scrollValue+30 + 'px'; How can I detect by how much the user has scrolled down the page (var scrollValue)? Or is there a 'better' way to do this? Thanks!

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• Bootstrap inline button dropdown within <p> jumbotron

  - by C.B.

  Currently I have a jumbotron setup with some paragraph text, and I would like to stick a button dropdown inline with the text. Dropdown button <span class="btn-group"> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"> Button... <span class="caret"></span> </button> <ul class="dropdown-menu" role="menu"> <li><a href="#">Opt 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Opt 2</a></li> </ul> </span> Jumbotron <div class="jumbotron"> <h1>Hello!</h1> <p>Welcome</p> <p>Another paragraph <!-- dropdown is here --> </p> </div> <!-- jumbotron --> If the dropdown is within the <p> tag, it does not "dropdown" (but renders). If it is outside of the <p> tag it functions fine, but I would like it to be inline with the text and need the text to be in the <p> tag to get the style. Any ideas? Things to note -- If I replace the <span> tags with <div> tags, it will work fine within the <p> tags, but won't be inline.

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• OSGi bundle imports packages from non-bundle jars: create bundles for them?

  - by John Simmons

  I am new to OSGi, and am using Equinox. I have done several searches and can find no answer to this. The discussion at OSGI - handling 3rd party JARs required by a bundle helps somewhat, but does not fully answer my question. I have obtained a jar file, rabbitmq-client.jar, that is already packaged as an OSGi bundle (with Bundle-Name and other such properties in its MANIFEST.MF), that I would like to install as a bundle. This jar imports packages org.apache.commons.io and org.apache.commons.io.input from commons-io-1.2.jar. The RabbitMQ client 2.7.1 distribution also includes commons-cli-1.1.jar, so I presume that it is required as well. I examined the manifests of these commons jars and found that they do not appear to be packaged as bundles. That is, their manifests have none of the standard bundle properties. My specific question is: if I install rabbitmq-client.jar as a bundle, what is the proper way to get access to the packages that it needs to import from the commons jars? There are only three alternatives that I can think of, without rebuilding rabbitmq-client.jar. The packages from the commons jars are already included in the Equinox global classpath, and rabbitmq-client.jar will get them automatically from there. I must make another bundle with the two commons jars, export the needed packages, and install that bundle in Equinox. I must put these two commons jars in the global classpath when I start Equinox, and they will be available to rabbitmq-client.jar from there. I have read that one normally does not use the global classpath in an OSGi container. I am not clear on whether items from the global classpath are even available when building individual bundle classpaths. However, I note that rabbitmq-client.jar also imports other packages such as javax.net, which I presume come from the global classpath. Or is there some other bundle that exports them? Thanks for any assistance!

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• Linear Interpolation. How to implement this algorithm in C ? (Python version is given)

  - by psihodelia

  There exists one very good linear interpolation method. It performs linear interpolation requiring at most one multiply per output sample. I found its description in a third edition of Understanding DSP by Lyons. This method involves a special hold buffer. Given a number of samples to be inserted between any two input samples, it produces output points using linear interpolation. Here, I have rewritten this algorithm using Python: temp1, temp2 = 0, 0 iL = 1.0 / L for i in x: hold = [i-temp1] * L temp1 = i for j in hold: temp2 += j y.append(temp2 *iL) where x contains input samples, L is a number of points to be inserted, y will contain output samples. My question is how to implement such algorithm in ANSI C in a most effective way, e.g. is it possible to avoid the second loop? NOTE: presented Python code is just to understand how this algorithm works. UPDATE: here is an example how it works in Python: x=[] y=[] hold=[] num_points=20 points_inbetween = 2 temp1,temp2=0,0 for i in range(num_points): x.append( sin(i*2.0*pi * 0.1) ) L = points_inbetween iL = 1.0/L for i in x: hold = [i-temp1] * L temp1 = i for j in hold: temp2 += j y.append(temp2 * iL) Let's say x=[.... 10, 20, 30 ....]. Then, if L=1, it will produce [... 10, 15, 20, 25, 30 ...]

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