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• EXPORT AS INSERT STATEMENTS: But in SQL Plus the line overrides 2500 characters!

  - by The chicken in the kitchen

  Hello, I have to export an Oracle table as INSERT STATEMENTS. But the INSERT STATEMENTS so generated, override 2500 characters. I am obliged to execute them in SQL Plus, so I receive an error message. This is my Oracle table: CREATE TABLE SAMPLE_TABLE ( C01 VARCHAR2 (5 BYTE) NOT NULL, C02 NUMBER (10) NOT NULL, C03 NUMBER (5) NOT NULL, C04 NUMBER (5) NOT NULL, C05 VARCHAR2 (20 BYTE) NOT NULL, c06 VARCHAR2 (200 BYTE) NOT NULL, c07 VARCHAR2 (200 BYTE) NOT NULL, c08 NUMBER (5) NOT NULL, c09 NUMBER (10) NOT NULL, c10 VARCHAR2 (80 BYTE), c11 VARCHAR2 (200 BYTE), c12 VARCHAR2 (200 BYTE), c13 VARCHAR2 (4000 BYTE), c14 VARCHAR2 (1 BYTE) DEFAULT 'N' NOT NULL, c15 CHAR (1 BYTE), c16 CHAR (1 BYTE) ); ASSUMPTIONS: a) I am OBLIGED to export table data as INSERT STATEMENTS; I am allowed to use UPDATE statements, in order to avoid the SQL*Plus error "sp2-0027 input is too long(2499 characters)"; b) I am OBLIGED to use SQL*Plus to execute the script so generated. c) Please assume that every record can contain special characters: CHR(10), CHR(13), and so on; d) I CAN'T use SQL Loader; e) I CAN'T export and then import the table: I can only add the "delta" using INSERT / UPDATE statements through SQL Plus.

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• DataGrid calculate difference between values in two databound cells

  - by justMe

  Hello! In my small application I have a DataGrid (see screenshot) that's bound to a list of Measurement objects. A Measurement is just a data container with two properties: Date and CounterGas (float). Each Measurement object represents my gas consumption at a specific date. The list of measurements is bound to the DataGrid as follows: <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Measurements}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Date" Binding="{Binding Path=Date, StringFormat={}{0:dd.MM.yyyy}}" /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Counter Gas" Binding="{Binding Path=ValueGas, StringFormat={}{0:F3}}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> Well, and now my question :) I'd like to have another column right next to the column "Counter Gas" which shows the difference between the actual counter value and the last counter value. E.g. this additional column should calculate the difference between the value of of Feb. 13th and Feb. 6th = 199.789 - 187.115 = 15.674 What is the best way to achieve this? I'd like to avoid any calculation in the Measurement class which should just hold the data. I'd rather more like the DataGrid to handle the calculation. So is there a way to add another column that just calculates the difference between to values? Maybe using some kind of converter and extreme binding? ;D P.S.: Maybe someone with a better reputation could embed the screenshot. Thanks :)

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• C# DynamicMethod prelink

  - by soywiz

  I'm the author of a psp emulator made in C#. I'm generating lots of "DynamicMethod" using ILGenerator. I'm converting assembly code into an AST, and then generating IL code and building that DynamicMethod. I'm doing this in another thread, so I can generate new methods while the program is executing others so it can run smoothly. My problem is that the native code generation is lazy, so the machine code is generated when the function is called, not when the IL is generated. So it generates in the program executing thread, native code generation is prettly slow as it is the asm-ast-il step. I have tried the Marshal.Prelink method that it is suposed to generate the machine code before executing the function. It does work on Mono, but it doesn't work on MS .NET. Marshal.Prelink(MethodInfo); Is there a way of prelinking a DynamicMethod on MS .NET? I thought adding a boolean parameter to the function that if set, exits the function immediately so no code is actually executed. I could "prelink" that way, but I think that's a nasty solution I want to avoid. Any idea?

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• Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

  - by Elliot Bonneville

  I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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• jQuery JSON .each problem

  - by Aran

  I have a JSON object that looks like this. [ { "id" : "23", "event_id" : "0", "sport_title" : null, "event_title" : null, "title" : "Under 1 day!", "content" : "It\\'s all hotting up and battle commences in under one day!", "link" : "" }, { "id" : "20", "event_id" : "0", "sport_title" : null, "event_title" : null, "title" : "Getting Exciting", "content" : "Less than two days till it all kicks off, with cricket....", "link" : "" }] and I am trying to get the details out of this JSON Object and prepend them to a <ul> the code that I am currently trying looks like this and is having problems var writeup_list = writeuplist; $.getJSON('../json/getWriteups.json', function(data) { $.each(data.items, function(i, item) { writeup_list.html(function() { var output; output = '<li><a href="/writeups/index.php#writeup_' + item.id + '">'; if(item.sport_title != null) { output += item.sport_title + ' - '; } output += item.title + '</a></li>'; return output; }); }); }); writeuplist is just the ul object. I am also worried about overriding information that is already in the list or just adding again. Don't want to keep adding the same data. What is a good way to avoid this? I seem to be having a problem in getting the data out of the JSON file I believe it has something to do with the way am trying to access it in the .each function. Can anyone spot where am going wrong?

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• How do I write unescaped XML outside of a CDATA

  - by kazanaki

  Hello I am trying to write XML data using Stax where the content itself is HTML If I try xtw.writeStartElement("contents"); xtw.writeCharacters("<b>here</b>"); xtw.writeEndElement(); I get this <contents>&lt;b&gt;here&lt;/b&gt;</contents> Then I notice the CDATA method and change my code to: xtw.writeStartElement("contents"); xtw.writeCData("<b>here</b>"); xtw.writeEndElement(); and this time the result is <contents><![CDATA[<b>here</b>]]></contents> which is still not good. What I really want is <contents><b>here</b></contents> So is there an XML API/Library that allows me to write raw text without being in a CDATA section? So far I have looked at Stax and JDom and they do not seem to offer this. In the end I might resort to good old StringBuilder but this would not be elegant. Update I agree mostly with the answers so far. However instead of <b>here</b> I could have a 1MB HTML document that I want to embed in a bigger XML document. What you suggest means that I have to parse this HTML document in order to understand its structure. I would like to avoid this if possible.

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• Using the Proxy pattern with C++ iterators

  - by Billy ONeal

  Hello everyone :) I've got a moderately complex iterator written which wraps the FindXFile apis on Win32. (See previous question) In order to avoid the overhead of constructing an object that essentially duplicates the work of the WIN32_FIND_DATAW structure, I have a proxy object which simply acts as a sort of const reference to the single WIN32_FIND_DATAW which is declared inside the noncopyable innards of the iterator. This is great because Clients do not pay for construction of irrelevant information they will probably not use (most of the time people are only interested in file names), and Clients can get at all the information provided by the FindXFile APIs if they need or want this information. This becomes an issue though because there is only ever a single copy of the object's actual data. Therefore, when the iterator is incrememnted, all of the proxies are invalidated (set to whatever the next file pointed to by the iterator is). I'm concerned if this is a major problem, because I can think of a case where the proxy object would not behave as somebody would expect: std::vector<MyIterator::value_type> files; std::copy(MyIterator("Hello"), MyIterator(), std::back_inserter(files)); because the vector contains nothing but a bunch of invalid proxies at that point. Instead, clients need to do something like: std::vector<std::wstring> filesToSearch; std::transform( DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>(L"C:\\Windows\\*"), DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>(), std::back_inserter(filesToSearch), std::mem_fun_ref(&DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>::value_type::GetFullFileName) ); Seeing this, I can see why somebody might dislike what the standard library designers did with std::vector<bool>. I'm still wondering though: is this a reasonable trade off in order to achieve (1) and (2) above? If not, is there any way to still achieve (1) and (2) without the proxy?

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• Boost Property_Tree iterators, how to handle them?

  - by Andry

  Hello... I am sorry but I asked a question about the same argument before, but my problem concerns another aspect of the one described in that question (How to iterate a boost...). My problem is this, take a look at the following code: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <boost/property_tree/ptree.hpp> #include <boost/property_tree/xml_parser.hpp> #include <boost/algorithm/string/trim.hpp> int main(int argc, char** argv) { using boost::property_tree::ptree; ptree pt; read_xml("try.xml", pt); ptree::const_iterator end = pt.end(); for (ptree::const_iterator it = pt.begin(); it != end; it++) std::cout << "Here " << it->? << std::endl; } Well, as told me in the previous question, there is the possibility to use iterators on property_tree in Boost, but I do not know what type it is... and what methods or properties I can use... Well, I assume that it must be another ptree or something representing another xml hierarchy to be browsed again (if I want) but documentation about this is very bad... I do not know why, but in boost docs I cannot find nothing good about this... just something about a macro to browse nodes, but this approach is one I would really like to avoid... Well, the question is so... Once getting the iterator on a ptree, how can I access node name, value, parameters (a node in a xml file)? Thankyou

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• Doctrine Default Primary Key Problem (Again)

  - by 01010011

  Hi, Should I change all of my uniquely-named MySQL database primary keys to 'id' to avoid getting errors related to Doctrine's default primary key set in the plugin 'doctrine_pi.php'? To further elaborate, I am getting the following reoccurring error, this time after trying to login to my login page: SQLSTATE[42S22]: Column not found: 1054 Unknown column 'u.book_id' in 'field list'' in... I suspect the problem resides at a MySQL table used for my login, of which has a primary key called id Marc B originally solved an identical problem for me in this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2702229/doctrine-codeigniter-mysql-crud-errors when I had the same problem with a different table within the same database. Following his suggestion, I changed the default primary key located at system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php from 'id' to 'book_id': <?php // system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php ... // set the default primary key to be named 'id', integer, 4 bytes Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS, array('name' => 'book_id', 'type' => 'integer', 'length' => 4)); and that solved my previous problem. However, my login page stopped working. So what is the safe thing to do? Change all of my primary keys to 'id' (will that solve the problem without causing some other problem I am not aware of). Or should I add some lines of code in doctrine_pi.php?

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• How to allow one thread to mutate an array property while another thread iterates on a copy of the a

  - by Steve918

  I would like to implement an observer pattern in Objective-C where the observer implements an interface similar to SKPaymentTransactionObserver and the observable class just extends my base observable. My observable class looks something like what is below. Notice I'm making copies of the observers before enumeration to avoid throwing an exception . I've tried adding an NSLock around add observers and notify observers, but I run into a deadlock. What would be the proper way to handle concurrency when observers are being added as notifications are being sent? @implementation Observable -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector withObject:(id)arg1 withObject:(id)arg2 { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector withObject: arg1 withObject: arg2]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)addObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers addObject: observer]; } } -(void)removeObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers removeObject: observer]; } }

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• Version Control: multiple version hell, file synchronization

  - by SigTerm

  Hello. I would like to know how you normally deal with this situation: I have a set of utility functions. Say..5..10 files. And technically they are static library, cross-platform - SConscript/SConstruct plus Visual Studio project (not solution). Those utility functions are used in multiple small projects (15+, number increases over time). Each project has a copy of a few files or of an entire library, not a link into one central place. Sometimes project uses one file, two files, some use everything. Normally, utility functions are included as a copy of every file and SConscript/SConstruct or Visual Studio Project (depending on the situation). Each project has a separate git repository. Sometimes one project is derived from other, sometimes it isn't. You work on every one of them, in random order. There are no other people (to make things simpler) The problem arises when while working on one project you modify those utility function files. Because each project has a copy of file, this introduces new version, which leads to the mess when you try later (week later, for example) to guess which version has a most complete functionality (i.e. you added a function to a.cpp in one project, and added another function to a.cpp in another project, which created a version fork) How would you handle this situation to avoid "version hell"? One way I can think of is using symbolic links/hard links, but it isn't perfect - if you delete one central storage, it will all go to hell. And hard links won't work on dual-boot system (although symbolic links will). It looks like what I need is something like advanced git repository, where code for the project is stored in one local repository, but is synchronized with multiple external repositories. But I'm not sure how to do it or if it is possible to do this with git. So, what do you think?

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• What is the best practice in regards to building composite dtos off of an aggregate root with domain

  - by Chance

  I'm trying to figure out the best approach/practice for assembling a composite data transfer object off of an aggregate root and would love to hear people's thoughts on this. For example, lets say I have a root that has a few domain objects as children. I want to assemble a specific view dto, based on some business logic, that either has attributes or full dto's of it's objects. What I'm struggling with is trying to figure out where that assembly should happen. I can see it going on the domain object of the aggregate root as there is some business logic associated with it. The benefits of this approach from what I've deduced thus far is that it should reduce the inevitable business logic from bleeding outisde of the domain object. It also allows for private methods that take care of tasks that could become more complex from an external builder. The downsides being that the domain object becomes much more entrenched in the application's workflow and represents much more than just the domain object. It also could become very large in the scenario where you need multiple composite Dtos. Alternatively, I could also see it belonging to some form of transfer object assembler where there is a builder for each domain object. The domain objects would still be responsible for GetDto() and UpdateFromDto(dto). Outside of that, the builder would handle the construction and deconstruction of composite dtos. The downside is kind of mentioned above, where I fear this will easily lead to developers unfamiliar with DDD bleeding a ton of business logic into the assembler which is what I want to desperately avoid. Any thoughts would be greatly apperciated.

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• Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

  - by Emer

  Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

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• Legal issues in Europe: check patents ?

  - by Bugz R us

  We live in Europe and are releasing commercial software in multiple countries. Besides of the licensing issues (GPL/LGPL/...) we have a question about patents. I know that if you're in the US, before you release software, you have to check if there aren't any patents you're infringing upon. I also know most of these patents or usually irrational and form a heavy burden on developers/software engineers. Now, as far as I know, EU rules are lots more ratinal, but there has been lobbying to also apply the same rules in EU. http://www.nosoftwarepatents.com http://www.stopsoftwarepatents.eu So what's the deal actually ? For example, there's mention of a patent on a shopping cart : http://v3.espacenet.com/publicationDetails/biblio?CC=EP&NR=807891&KC=&FT=E Is that true ? Is a "shopping cart" patented ??? .................. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1396191/what-should-every-developer-know-about-legal-matters : 4.Software patent lawsuits are crap shoots. You should not, of course, knowingly violate a software patent. However, there is a small but real chance some company will sue you for violating their patent. This may happen even if you develop your software independently, you never heard of the patent, and the patent covers a technique that is intuitively obvious and almost completely unrelated to your software. There is not a lot you can do to avoid this, given the current USPTO policies, other than buy insurance. The good news is that patent trolls generally sue large companies with lots of money.

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• Visual Studio 2008 Setup Project - Include .NET Framework 3.5

  - by rajadiga

  I built a Visual Studio 2008 setup Project wich depends on .NET 3.5. I added Prerequisites like: .NET 3.5, Microsoft office interoperability, VS tools for office System 3.0 Run time, .etc. After that Selected "Download Prerequisite from Same location as my application" in Specify install location for Prerequisite. I Built the setup and found mysetup.msi in Release directory. In a new machine I started fresh installation of my application. A dialog shows like this "This Setup Requires .NET framework 3.5 , Please install .NET setup then run this setup, .NET Framework can be obtained from web Do you want to do that now?" it gives "Yes" and "No" option - if I press yes it goes to Microsoft website. How can avoid it? I wanted setup take .NET Framework to be installed from same location where I put all setup files including mysetup.msi? In case of quiet installation cmd /c "msiexec /package mysetup.msi /quiet /log install.log" ..in log I can see only half way through installation then error Property(S): HideFatalErrorForm = TRUE MSI (s) (D0:24) [00:07:08:015]: Product: my product-- Installation failed. === Logging stopped: 3/23/2010 0:07:08 === How can complete I the installation without user intervention and without error using VS2008 setup project? Thanks for all the help in advance for any input.

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• POST xml to php with apache2

  - by Berry

  I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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• Regular expression to match empty HTML tags that may contain embedded JSTL?

  - by Keith Bentrup

  I'm trying to construct a regular expression to look for empty html tags that may have embedded JSTL. I'm using Perl for my matching. So far I can match any empty html tag that does not contain JSTL with the following? /<\w+\b(?!:)[^<]*?>\s*<\/\w+/si The \b(?!:) will avoid matching an opening JTSL tag but that doesn't address the whether JSTL may be within the HTML tag itself (which is allowable). I only want to know if this HTML tag has no children (only whitespace or empty). So I'm looking for a pattern that would match both the following: <div id="my-id"> </div> <div class="<c:out var="${my.property}" />"></div> Currently the first div matches. The second does not. Is it doable? I tried several variations using lookahead assertions, and I'm starting to think it's not. However, I can't say for certain or articulate why it's not. Edit: I'm not writing something to interpret the code, and I'm not interested in using a parser. I'm writing a script to point out potential issues/oversights. And at this point, I'm curious, too, to see if there is something clever with lookaheads or lookbehinds that I may be missing. If it bothers you that I'm trying to "solve" a problem this way, don't think of it as looking for a solution. To me it's more of a challenge now, and an opportunity to learn more about regular expressions. Also, if it helps, you can assume that the html is xhtml strict.

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• How do I store a string longer than 4000 characters in an Oracle Database using Java/JDBC?

  - by Ventrue

  I’m not sure how to use Java/JDBC to insert a very long string into an Oracle database. I have a String which is greater than 4000 characters, lets say it’s 6000. I want to take this string and store it in an Oracle database. The way to do this seems to be with the CLOB datatype. Okay, so I declared the column as description CLOB. Now, when it comes time to actually insert the data, I have a prepared statement pstmt. It looks like pstmt = conn.prepareStatement(“INSERT INTO Table VALUES(?)”). So I want to use the method pstmt.setClob(). However, I don’t know how to create a Clob object with my String in it; there’s no constructor (presumably because it can be potentially much larger than available memory). How do I put my String into a Clob? Keep in mind I’m not a very experienced programmer; please try to keep the explanations as simple as possible. Efficiency, good practices, etc. are not a concern here, I just want the absolute easiest solution. I’d like to avoid downloading other packages if it all possible; right now I’m just using JDK 1.4 and what is labelled “ojdbc14.jar”. I've looked around a bit but I haven't been able to follow any of the explanations I've found. If you have a solution that doesn’t use Clobs, I’d be open to that as well, but it has to be one column.

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• Trap SIGPIPE when trying to write without reader

  - by Matt

  I am trying to implement a named-pipe communication solution in BASH between two processes. The first process runs a script which echo something in a named-pipe: send(){ echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } And the second script is supposed to read the named-pipe via another script which contains: while true;do if read line < $NAMEDPIPE;do someCommands fi done Not that the named pipe has been previously created using the traditional command mkfifo $NAMEDPIPE My problem is that the reader script is not always running so that if the writer script try to write in the named-pipe it stay blocked until a reader connect the pipe. I want to avoid this behavior, and a solution would be to trap a SIGPIPE signal. Indeed, according to man 7 signal is supposed to be send when trying to write in a pipe with no reader. So I changed my red function by: read(){ trap 'echo "SIGPIPE received"' SIGPIPE echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } But when I run the reader script, the script stay blocked, and not "SIGPIPE received" appears... Am I mistaking on the signal mechanism or is there any better solution to my problem ? Thank you for your help.

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• For each <item> in CheckedListBox. <item> returns as Object and not as Control

  - by Tivie

  Hello there. I have a CheckedListBox previously populated. I want to loop with a "for each / next" through all items in the CheckedListBox and do a lot of "stuff" with each iteration element of the checkedlistbox. example code: For Each item In CheckedListBox1.Items If item.Checked = True Then 'do stuff like item.BackColor = Color.Blue Else 'do other stuff item.BackColor = Color.Brown End If Next the problem is that is an 'Object' type and not a 'Control' type. If I force the iteration var As CheckBox, it throws an InvalidCastException saying that type 'System.String' can't be associated with type 'System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox' I know I can easily work around using for i=0 to CheckedListBox.Items.Count - 1 but I want to use a for each /next loop since I have a lot of code in that loop (and With can't be used) and always poiting directly to the object is something I wish to avoid and I really need the code to be as simple as possible. I actually spent one afternoon looking for this but couldn't find any answer. If someone could be kind enough to enlight me in this, it would be extremely appreciated. Best regards

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• C89, Mixing Variable Declarations and Code

  - by rutski

  I'm very curious to know why exactly C89 compilers will dump on you when you try to mix variable declarations and code, like this for example: rutski@imac:~$ cat test.c #include <stdio.h> int main(void) { printf("Hello World!\n"); int x = 7; printf("%d!\n", x); return 0; } rutski@imac:~$ gcc -std=c89 -pedantic test.c test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:7: warning: ISO C90 forbids mixed declarations and code rutski@imac:~$ Yes, you can avoid this sort of thing by staying away from -pedantic. But then your code is no longer standards compliant. And as anybody capable of answering this post probably already knows, this is not just a theoretical concern. Platforms like Microsoft's C compiler enforce this quick in the standard under any and all circumstances. Given how ancient C is, I would imagine that this feature is due to some historical issue dating back to the extraordinary hardware limitations of the 70's, but I don't know the details. Or am I totally wrong there?

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• Opaque tenant identification with SQL Server & NHibernate

  - by Anton Gogolev

  Howdy! We're developing a nowadays-fashionable multi-tenanted SaaS app (shared database, shared schema), and there's one thing I don't like about it: public class Domain : BusinessObject { public virtual long TenantID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } The TenantID is driving me nuts, as it has to be accounted for almost everywhere, and it's a hassle from security standpoint: what happens if a malicious API user changes TenantID to some other value and will mix things up. What I want to do is to get rid of this TenantID in our domain objects altogether, and to have either NHibernate or SQL Server deal with it. From what I've already read on the Internets, this can be done with CONTEXT_INFO (here's a NHibernatebased implementation), NHibernate filters, SQL Views and with combination thereof. Now, my requirements are as follows: Remove any mentions of TenantID from domain objects ...but have SQL Server insert it where appropriate (I guess this is achieved with default constraints) ...and obviously provide support for filtering based on this criteria, so that customers will never see each other's data If possible, avoid SQL Server views. Have a solution which plays nicely with NHibernate, SQL Servers' MARS and general nature of SaaS apps being highly concurrent What are your thoughts on that?

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• returning autorelease NSString still causes memory leaks

  - by hookjd

  I have a simple function that returns an NSString after decoding it. I use it a lot throughout my application, and it appears to create a memory leak (according to "leaks" tool) every time I use it. Leaks tells me the problem is on the line where I alloc the NSString that I am going to return, even though I autorelease it. Here is the function: -(NSString *) decodeValue { NSString *newString; newString = [self stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"#" withString:@"$"]; NSData *stateData = [NSData dataWithBase64EncodedString:newString]; NSString *convertState = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:stateData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; return convertState; } My understanding of [autorelease] is that it should be used in exactly this way... where I want to hold onto the object just long enough to return it in my function and then let the object be autoreleased later. So I believe I can use this function through code like this without manually releasing anything: NSString *myDecodedString = [myString decodeValue]; But this process is reporting leaks and I don't understand how to change it to avoid the leaks. What am I doing wrong?

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• MySQL: Get average of time differences?

  - by Nebs

  I have a table called Sessions with two datetime columns: start and end. For each day (YYYY-MM-DD) there can be many different start and end times (HH:ii:ss). I need to find a daily average of all the differences between these start and end times. An example of a few rows would be: start: 2010-04-10 12:30:00 end: 2010-04-10 12:30:50 start: 2010-04-10 13:20:00 end: 2010-04-10 13:21:00 start: 2010-04-10 14:10:00 end: 2010-04-10 14:15:00 start: 2010-04-10 15:45:00 end: 2010-04-10 15:45:05 start: 2010-05-10 09:12:00 end: 2010-05-10 09:13:12 ... The time differences (in seconds) for 2010-04-10 would be: 50 60 300 5 The average for 2010-04-10 would be 103.75 seconds. I would like my query to return something like: day: 2010-04-10 ave: 103.75 day: 2010-05-10 ave: 72 ... I can get the time difference grouped by start date but I'm not sure how to get the average. I tried using the AVG function but I think it only works directly on column values (rather than the result of another aggregate function). This is what I have: SELECT TIME_TO_SEC(TIMEDIFF(end,start)) AS timediff FROM Sessions GROUP BY DATE(start) Is there a way to get the average of timediff for each start date group? I'm new to aggregate functions so maybe I'm misunderstanding something. If you know of an alternate solution please share. I could always do it ad hoc and compute the average manually in PHP but I'm wondering if there's a way to do it in MySQL so I can avoid running a bunch of loops. Thanks.

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• ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

  - by Mose

  Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

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