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• How to import a class from default package

  - by mykhaylo

  Hi, I am using Eclipse 3.5 and I have created a project with some package structure along with the default package. I have one class in default package - Calculations.java and I want to make the use of that class in any of the package (for instance in com.company.calc). When I try to make the use of the class which is default package, its giving me compile error. Its not able to recognise the class in default package. Where is a problem? Calculations.java - source code public class Calculations{ native public int Calculate(int contextId); native public double GetProgress(int contextId); static { System.loadLibrary("Calc"); } } I can put my class in any other package. This class has some native method which is implemented in Delphi . If I put that class in any of the folder,I will have to make the change that DLL which I want to avoid(really - I can not). Thats why I put my class in the default package.

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• Sql Server Backup and move backup file: How to cope with file permissions?

  - by Stefan Steinegger

  With our product we have a simple backup tool for the sql server database. This tool should just make a full backup and restore to and from any folder. Of course, the user (usually an administrator) needs permission to write to the target folder. To avoid the problem of not being able to perform a backup to a network drive, I write the backup to a temp file in the Sql Server backup directory. Then I move it to the target folder. This requires permission to delete the temporary file from the sql servers backup folder. Restore is the same in the other direction. This seemed to work fine until someone tested it on vista, where the user does not have write access to the backup folder by default. So there are many solutions to solve this, but none of them seemed to be really nice. One solution would be to find another folder for the temporary file. Both the sql server user as well as the administrator performing the backup need read and write permissions. Is there such a directory? Any other ideas? Thanks a lot.

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• jquery timeout function not working properly

  - by 3gwebtrain

  HI, i ma using the settimeout function to display block and append to 'li', once the mouseover. and i just want to remove the block and make it none. in my funcation works fine. but problem is even just my mouse cross the li, it self the block getting visibile. how to avoid this? my code is: var thisLi; var storedTimeoutID; $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseover", function(){ thisLi = $(this); var needShow = thisLi.children('a.copier-link'); if($(needShow).is(':hidden')){ storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){ $(thisLi).children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show(); },3000); } else { storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){ $(thisLi).siblings().children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show(); },3000); } }); $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseleave", function(){ clearTimeout(storedTimeoutID); //$('ul.redwood-user li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); $('ul.user-list li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); });

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• php: replacing double <br /> with </p><p>

  - by andufo

  i use nicEdit to write RTF data in my CMS. The problem is that it generates strings like this: hello first line<br><br />this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line since this is for a news site, i much prefer the final html to be like this: <p>hello first line</p><p>this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line</p> so my current solution is this: i need to trim the $data for <br /> at the start/end of the string replace <br /><br /> with </p><p> (one single <br /> is allowed). finally, add <p> at the start and </p> at the end i only have the 3rd step so far. can someone give me a hand with steps 1 and 2? function replace_br($data) { # step 3 $data = '<p>'.$data.'</p>'; return $data; } thanks! ps: it would be even better to avoid specific situations. example: "hello<br /><br /><br /><br /><br />too much space" -- those 5 breaklines should also be converted to just one "</p><p>"

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• How should I handle this Optimistic Concurrency error in this Entity Framework code, I have?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I have the following pseduo code in some Repository Pattern project that uses EF4. public void Delete(int someId) { // 1. Load the entity for that Id. If there is none, then null. // 2. If entity != null, then DeleteObject(..); } Pretty simple but I'm getting a run-time error:- ConcurrencyException: Store, Update, Insert or Delete statement affected an unexpected number of rows (0). Now, this is what is happening :- Two instances of EF4 are running inthe app at the same time. Instance A calls delete. Instance B calls delete a nano second later. Instance A loads the entity. Instance B also loads the entity. Instance A now deletes that entity - cool bananas. Instance B tries to delete the entity, but it's already gone. As such, the no-count or what not is 0, when it expected 1 .. or something like that. Basically, it figured out that the item it is suppose to delete, didn't delete (because it happened a split sec ago). I'm not sure if this is like a race-condition or something. Anyways, is there any tricks I can do here so the 2nd call doesn't crash? I could make it into a stored procedure.. but I'm hoping to avoid that right now. Any ideas? I'm wondering If it's possible to lock that row (and that row only) when the select is called ... forcing Instance B to wait until the row lock has been relased. By that time, the row is deleted, so when Instance B does it's select, the data is not there .. so it will never delete.

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• Set fields with instrospection - Problem with String.valueOf(String)

  - by fabb

  Hey there! I'm setting public fields of the Object 'this' via reflection. Both the field name and the value are given as String. I use several various field types: Boolean, Integer, Float, Double, an own enum, and a String. It works with all of them except with a String. The exception that gets thrown is that no method with the Signature String.valueOf(String) exists... Now I use a dirty instanceof workaround to detect if each field is a String and in that case just copy the value to the field. private void setField(String field, String value) throws Exception { Field wField = this.getClass().getField(field); if(wField.get(this) instanceof String){ //TODO dirrrrty hack //stupid workaround as java.lang.String.valueOf(java.lang.String) fails... wField.set(this, value); }else{ Method parseMethod = wField.getType().getMethod("valueOf", new Class[]{String.class}); wField.set(this, parseMethod.invoke(wField, value)); } } Any ideas how to avoid that workaround? Do you think java.lang.String should support the method valueOf(String)? thanks, fabb

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• sql query - how to apply limit within group by

  - by Raj

  hey guys assuming i have a table named t1 with following fields: ROWID, CID, PID, Score, SortKey it has the following data: 1, C1, P1, 10, 1 2, C1, P2, 20, 2 3, C1, P3, 30, 3 4, C2, P4, 20, 3 5, C2, P5, 30, 2 6, C3, P6, 10, 1 7, C3, P7, 20, 2 what query do i write so that it applies group by on CID, but instead of returning me 1 single result per group, it returns me a max of 2 results per group. also where condition is score = 20 and i want the results ordered by CID and SortKey. If I had to run my query on above data, i would expect the following result: RESULTS FOR C1 - note: ROWID 1 is not considered as its score < 20 C1, P2, 20, 2 C1, P3, 30, 3 RESULTS FOR C2 - note: ROWID 5 appears before ROWID 4 as ROWID 5 has lesser value SortKey C2, P5, 30, 2 C2, P4, 20, 3 RESULTS FOR C3 - note: ROWID 6 does not appear as its score is less than 20 so only 1 record returned here C3, P7, 20, 2 IN SHORT, I WANT A LIMIT WITHIN A GROUP BY. I want the simplest solution and want to avoid temp tables. sub queries are fine. also note i am using sqlite for this

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• Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

  - by R27

  I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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• magento payment process.. how it works in general

  - by spirytus

  hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

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• How to set up single array or dictionary for use in multiple datasources?

  - by Roman

  I have multiple TableViewDatasources that need to display list of objects form same pool depending of certain property. E.g. object.flag1 is set- it will show up in TableView1 object.flag2 is set- it will show up in TableView2 The obvious way would be to have separate arrays for each TableView, But same object may appear in different arrays. Also I need to update objects very often or access all objects through same array. How do I setup a single dictionary or array to have all objects in one structure? To put it in another way: When table view or selection changes, application need to redraw TableViews with the new data. Application have to access the pool of objects and search through them using iterator and accessing each object and its properties. I think that this is an expensive operation and want to avoid that. Perhaps maybe by making a global pool of objects a dictionary and exposing objects properties as dictionary fields. So instead of iterating global pool of objects I could access global pool Dicitonary in a manner of database by selecting objects that has fields that match particular criteria. Anyone know any example of doing that?

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• protecting COM interfaces from exceptions

  - by rmeador

  I have several dozen objects exposed through COM interfaces, each of which with many methods, totaling a few hundred methods. These interfaces expose business objects from my app to a scripting engine. I have been given the task of protecting every single one of these methods from exceptions being thrown (to catch them and return an error using COM's Error() function, which incidentally I can find no documentation on because it's impossible to google). To my understanding, this requires that I add a try/catch around the guts of each one of these methods. The catch blocks are going to be similar or identical for each and every one of these hundreds of methods, which strongly smells of a problem (massively violates the DRY principle), but I can't think of any way to avoid changing every method. As far as I can tell, these methods are invoked directly by COM, with no intervening code that I can hook into to catch the exceptions. My current best idea is to make a macro for the catch block, but that has it's own sort of code-smell. Can anyone come up with a better approach? BTW, my app's exceptions do not derive from std::exception, so if there is some way of COM automatically handling standard exceptions, it won't help. And I sadly cannot change the existing exceptions to derive from std::exception.

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• Unit testing opaque structure based C API

  - by Nicolas Goy

  I have a library I wrote with API based on opaque structures. Using opaque structures has a lot of benefits and I am very happy with it. Now that my API are stable in term of specifications, I'd like to write a complete battery of unit test to ensure a solid base before releasing it. My concern is simple, how do you unit test API based on opaque structures where the main goal is to hide the internal logic? For example, let's take a very simple object, an array with a very simple test: WSArray a = WSArrayCreate(); int foo = 5; WSArrayAppendValue(a, &foo); int *bar = WSArrayGetValueAtIndex(a, 0); if(&foo != bar) printf("Eroneous value returned\n"); else printf("Good value returned\n"); WSRelease(a); Of course, this tests some facts, like the array actually acts as wanted with 1 value, but when I write unit tests, at least in C, I usualy compare the memory footprint of my datastructures with a known state. In my example, I don't know if some internal state of the array is broken. How would you handle that? I'd really like to avoid adding codes in the implementation files only for unit testings, I really emphasis loose coupling of modules, and injecting unit tests into the implementation would seem rather invasive to me. My first thought was to include the implementation file into my unit test, linking my unit test statically to my library. For example: #include <WS/WS.h> #include <WS/Collection/Array.c> static void TestArray(void) { WSArray a = WSArrayCreate(); /* Structure members are available because we included Array.c */ printf("%d\n", a->count); } Is that a good idea? Of course, the unit tests won't benefit from encapsulation, but they are here to ensure it's actually working.

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• Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

  - by Andrew M

  Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

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• Exiting from the Middle of an Expression Without Using Exceptions

  - by Jon Purdy

  Is there a way to emulate the use of flow-control constructs in the middle of an expression? Is it possible, in a comma-delimited expression x, y, for y to cause a return? Edit: I'm working on a compiler for something rather similar to a functional language, and the target language is C++. Everything is an expression in the source language, and the sanest, simplest translation to the destination language leaves as many things expressions as possible. Basically, semicolons in the target language become C++ commas. In-language flow-control constructs have presented no problems thus far; it's only return. I just need a way to prematurely exit a comma-delimited expression, and I'd prefer not to use exceptions unless someone can show me that they don't have excessive overhead in this situation. The problem of course is that most flow-control constructs are not legal expressions in C++. The only solution I've found so far is something like this: try { return x(), // x(); (1 ? throw Return(0) : 0); // return 0; } catch (Return& ret) { return ref.value; } The return statement is always there (in the event that a Return construct is not reached), and as such the throw has to be wrapped in ?: to get the compiler to shut up about its void result being used in an expression. I would really like to avoid using exceptions for flow control, unless in this case it can be shown that no particular overhead is incurred; does throwing an exception cause unwinding or anything here? This code needs to run with reasonable efficiency. I just need a function-level equivalent of exit().

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• how do call a polymorphic function from an agnostic function?

  - by sds

  I have a method foo void foo (String x) { ... } void foo (Integer x) { ... } and I want to call it from a method which does not care about the argument: void bar (Iterable i) { ... for (Object x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } the code above complains that that foo(Object) is not defined and when I add void foo (Object x) { throw new Exception; } then bar(Iterable<String>) calls that instead of foo(String) and throws the exception. How do I avoid having two textually identical definitions of bar(Iterable<String>) and bar(Iterable<Integer>)? I thought I would be able to get away with something like <T> void bar (Iterable<T> i) { ... for (T x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } but then I get cannot find foo(T) error.

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• How to mult-thread this?

  - by WilliamKF

  I wish to have two threads. The first thread1 occasionally calls the following pseudo function: void waitForThread2() { if (thread2 is not idle) { return; } notifyThread2IamReady(); while (thread2IsExclusive) { } } The second thread2 is forever in the following pseudo loop: for (;;) { Notify thread1 I am idle. while (!thread1IsReady()) { } Notify thread1 I am exclusive. Do some work while thread1 is blocked. Notify thread1 I am busy. Do some work in parallel with thread1. } What is the best way to write this such that both thread1 and thread2 are kept as busy as possible on a machine with multiple cores. I would like to avoid long delays between notification in one thread and detection by the other. I tried using pthread condition variables but found the delay between thread2 doing 'notify thread1 I am busy' and the loop in waitForThread2() on thear2IsExclusive() can be up to almost one second delay. I then tried using a volatile sig_atomic_t shared variable to control the same, but something is going wrong, so I must not be doing it correctly.

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• Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

  - by vladimir

  I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

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• How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

  - by OG Dude

  Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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• EF Forced Concurrency Checks

  - by Imran

  Hi, I have an issue with EF 4.0 that I hope someone can help with. I currently have an entity that I want to update in a last in wins fashion (i.e. ignore concurrency checks and just overwrite whats in the db with what is submitted). It seems Entity Framework not only includes the primary key of the entity in the where clause of the generated sql, but also any foreign key fields. This is annoying as it means that I don't get true last in wins semantics and need to know what value the fk field had before the update or I get a concurrency exception. I am aware that this can be short circuited by including a foreign key field as well as the navigation property on the entity. I would like to avoid this if possible as it's not a very clean solution. I was just wondering if there was any other way to override this behaviour? It seems like more of a bug than a feature. I have no problem with ef doing concurrency checks if I instruct it to do so but not being able to bypass concurrency completely is a bit of a hindrance as there are many valid scenarios where this is not needed

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• Cross-reference js-object variables when creating object

  - by Ivar Bonsaksen

  Summary: I want to know if it is possible to do something like this: {a: 'A',b: this.a} ...by using some other pointer like {a: 'A',b: self.a} or {a: 'A',b: own.a} or anything else... Full question: I'm trying to extend MyBaseModule using Ext.extend, and need to cross-reference values in the extension object passed to Ext.extend(). Since I'm not yet in context of MyModule, I'm not able to use this to reference the object (See example below line 12). Is there any other way to reference values like this without creating the object first? 1 MyModule = Ext.extend(MyBaseModule, { 2 dataStores: { 3 myDataStore: new Ext.data.Store({...}) 4 }, 5 6 myGridDefinition: { 7 id: 'myGridDefinitionPanel', 8 bodyBorder: false, 9 items: [{ 10 xtype: 'grid', 11 id: 'myGridDefinitionGrid', 12 store: this.dataStores.myDataStore 13 }] 14 } 15 }); Or is the following the only solution? I would like to avoid this if possible, as I find it less readable for large extension definitions. 1 var extensionObject = { 2 dataStores: { 3 myDataStore: new Ext.data.Store({...}) 4 }, 5 6 myGridDefinition: { 7 id: 'myGridDefinitionPanel', 8 bodyBorder: false, 9 items: [{ 10 xtype: 'grid', 11 id: 'myGridDefinitionGrid' 12 }] 13 } 14 }; 15 16 extensionObject.locationsGrid.items[0].store = extensionObject.dataStores.locations; 17 18 MyModule = Ext.extend(MyBaseModule, extensionObject);

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• Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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• Reasonable expectation to support new Operating Systems?

  - by Neil N

  My company has a desktop app originally developed for Windows XP. The original programmer has since been fired (fired with extreme prejudice I might add). I have fixed the app various times but overall try to avoid it, it is a mess and the only real way to fix it is to completely rewrite it, which could take a year. We have been trying to "forget" about this app, and instead steer clients towards our web version, which is more up to date, easier to maintain, easier to extend, and WAY easier to support. Most clients agree, the web version is just better all around. However we have one client that insists on using the desktop app. The app required a little duct tape to get working on Vista, but now completely breaks on Windows 7. I'm not even sure WHAT all the fixes are to get it working on Win7 (the current time estimate stands at "miracle") but after both installing the RELEASE build, and running the DEBUG build from Visual Studio, the app has errors on nearly every user action, and from what I can see from a high level test run, none of them are related. Since Windows 7 did not exist when this app was developed, is my company really expected to make all the required changes to make it function as "smoothly" as it did on XP?

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• vector::erase with pointer member

  - by matt

  I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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• Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

  - by davy

  I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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• C++ Returning Multiple Items

  - by Travis Parks

  I am designing a class in C++ that extracts URLs from an HTML page. I am using Boost's Regex library to do the heavy lifting for me. I started designing a class and realized that I didn't want to tie down how the URLs are stored. One option would be to accept a std::vector<Url> by reference and just call push_back on it. I'd like to avoid forcing consumers of my class to use std::vector. So, I created a member template that took a destination iterator. It looks like this: template <typename TForwardIterator, typename TOutputIterator> TOutputIterator UrlExtractor::get_urls( TForwardIterator begin, TForwardIterator end, TOutputIterator dest); I feel like I am overcomplicating things. I like to write fairly generic code in C++, and I struggle to lock down my interfaces. But then I get into these predicaments where I am trying to templatize everything. At this point, someone reading the code doesn't realize that TForwardIterator is iterating over a std::string. In my particular situation, I am wondering if being this generic is a good thing. At what point do you start making code more explicit? Is there a standard approach to getting values out of a function generically?

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