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• SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

  - by Adam Kane

  In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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• alternative to #include within namespace { } block

  - by Jeff

  Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

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• divert asp.net child controls

  - by Eric

  Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

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• MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

  - by Marty Trenouth

  I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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• Liquid Layout: 100% max-width img not applied - why?

  - by MEM

  I'm totally new to this liquid layout stuff. I've notice, as most of us, that while most of my layout components "liquify", images, unfortunately, don't. So I'm trying to use the max-width: 100% on images as suggested on several places. However, and despite the definition of max-width and min-height of the img container, the img don't scale. Sample code: CSS img { max-width: 100%; } article { float: left; margin: 30px 1%; max-width: 31%; min-height: 350px; } HTML <article> <header> <h2>some header</h2> </header> <img src="/images/thumb1.jpg" alt="thumb"> <p>Vestibulum ante ipsum primis in faucibus orci luctus et ultrices posuere cubilia Curae; Proin vel ante a orci tempus eleifend.</p> </article> Please have a look on the following link: http://tinyurl.com/d849f8x If you see it on a wide resolution, you will notice that the "kid image", for example, don't scale. Any clue about what could the issue be, why does that image not scale? Test case: Browsers: Firefox 15.0 / Chrome 21.0 IOS: MAC OS X Lion - 10.7.3 Resolution: 1920x1200 What I get: I get an image that doesn't scale until the end of it's container. The img width won't fit the article element that contains it. What I do expect: I expect the image to enlarge, until it reaches the end it's container. Visually, I'm expecting the image to be as wide as the paragraph immediately below, in a way that, the right side of the image stays vertically aligned with the right side of the paragraph below.

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• Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

  - by MarceloRamires

  I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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• Register new memer for vBulletin via Mobile API

  - by Nikolay Stariradeff

  I'm trying to use the vBulletin REST Mobile API to simply register. The sourced are installed on my local machine and according the documentation https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/393-User-Registration-Process-Mobile-API This procedure should not be so hard, especially without humanity and COPPA authentication. However I've stacked! The method definition describes "addnewmember" clear, so I've generated a test link, which should do the job. https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/365-User-Related-Methods The link is: .../forum/api.php?&api_m=register_addmember&api_c=1&api_s=76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392&api_sig=8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80&api_v=6&agree=1&username=testuser&email=XXXXXX%40gmail.com&emailconfirm=XXXXX%40gmail.com&password=12345678&passwordconfirm=12345678 As a response I get: register_not_agreed The Docs: register_not_agreed The agree parameter should be set to 1. Which is also clear - agree parameter was not there. Here comes the funny part - In the API-Log I can see that the 'agree' parameter is correctly passed *1 test_client Gast 13:23, 18.06.2012 register_addmember Array ( [api_m] = register_addmember [api_c] = 1 [api_s] = 76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392 [api_sig] = 8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80 [api_v] = 6 [agree] = 1 [username] = testuser [email] = ....* Is there anybody with experience with the Mobile API that could help?

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• What are Code Smells? What is the best way to correct them?

  - by Rob Cooper

  OK, so I know what a code smell is, and the Wikipedia Article is pretty clear in its definition: In computer programming, code smell is any symptom in the source code of a computer program that indicates something may be wrong. It generally indicates that the code should be refactored or the overall design should be reexamined. The term appears to have been coined by Kent Beck on WardsWiki. Usage of the term increased after it was featured in Refactoring. Improving the Design of Existing Code. I know it also provides a list of common code smells. But I thought it would be great if we could get clear list of not only what code smells there are, but also how to correct them. Some Rules Now, this is going to be a little subjective in that there are differences to languages, programming style etc. So lets lay down some ground rules: ** ONE SMELL PER ANSWER PLEASE! & ADVISE ON HOW TO CORRECT! ** See this answer for a good display of what this thread should be! DO NOT downmod if a smell doesn't apply to your language or development methodology We are all different. DO NOT just quickly smash in as many as you can think of Think about the smells you want to list and get a good idea down on how to work around. DO downmod answers that just look rushed For example "dupe code - remove dupe code". Let's makes it useful (e.g. Duplicate Code - Refactor into separate methods or even classes, use these links for help on these common.. etc. etc.). DO upmod answers that you would add yourself If you wish to expand, then answer with your thoughts linking to the original answer (if it's detailed) or comment if its a minor point. DO format your answers! Help others to be able to read it, use code snippets, headings and markup to make key points stand out!

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• php OOP function declarations

  - by kris

  I'm a big fan of OOP in php, but i feel like defining class methods gets disorganized so fast. I have a pretty good background in OOP in C++, and i am pretty comfortable with how it is handled there, and am curious if there are ways to do it similarly in php. To be more specific, here is what i mean. I like how in C++ you can define a class header (myclass.h) and then define the actual details of the functions in the implementation file (myclass.cc). Ive found that this can easily be replicated using interfaces in php, but i havent found a good solution for the following: I like to organize my code in C++ in different files based on how they are accessed, so for example, public methods that can be called outside of the class would be in 1 place, and private methods would be organized somewhere else - this is personal preference. Ive tried to define class methods in php like: private function MyPHPClass::myFunction(){ } when the definition isnt directly inside the class block( { } ), but i havent had any success doing this. Ive been through all of the pages on php.net, but couldnt find anything like this. Im assuming that there is no support for something like this, but thought i would ask anyway. thanks

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• Rails: creating a custom data type, to use with generator classes and a bunch of questions related t

  - by Shyam

  Hi, After being productive with Rails for some weeks, I learned some tricks and got some experience with the framework. About 10 days ago, I figured out it is possible to build a custom data type for migrations by adding some code in the Table definition. Also, after learning a bit about floating points (and how evil they are) vs integers, the money gem and other possible solutions, I decided I didn't WANT to use the money gem, but instead try to learn more about programming and finding a solution myself. Some suggestions said that I should be using integers, one for the whole numbers and one for the cents. When playing in script/console, I discovered how easy it is to work with calculations and arrays. But, I am talking to much (and the reason I am, is to give some sufficient background). Right now, while playing with the scaffold generator (yes, I use it, because I like they way I can quickly set up a prototype while I am still researching my objectives), I like to use a DRY method. In my opinion, I should build a custom "object", that can hold two variables (Fixnum), one for the whole, one for the cents. In my big dream, I would be able to do the following: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost:mycustom Where mycustom should create two integer columns (one for wholes, one for cents). Right now I could do this by doing: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost_w:integer cost_c:integer I had also had an idea that would be creating a "cost model", which would hold two columns of integers and create a cost_id column to my scaffold. But wouldn't that be an extra table that would cause some kind of performance penalty? And wouldn't that be defy the purpose of the Cake model in the first place, because the costs are an attribute of individual Cake entries? The reason why I would want to have such a functionality because I am thinking of having multiple "costs" inside my rails application. Thank you for your feedback, comments and answers! I hope my message got through as understandable, my apologies for incorrect grammar or weird sentences as English is not my native language.

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• How to increase PermGen memory for eclipselink StaticWeaveAntTask

  - by rayd09

  We are using Eclipselink and need to weave the code in order for lazy fetching to work property. During the weave process I'm getting the following error: weave: BUILD FAILED java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: PermGen space I have the following tasks within my ant build file: <target name="define_weave_task" description="task definition for EclipseLink static weaving"> <taskdef name="eclipse_weave" classname="org.eclipse.persistence.tools.weaving.jpa.StaticWeaveAntTask"/> </target> <target name="weave" depends="compile,define_weave_task" description="weave eclipselink code into compiled classes"> <eclipse_weave source="${path.classes}" target="${path.classes}"> <classpath refid="compile.classpath"/> </eclipse_weave> </target> It has been working great for a long time. Now that the amount of code to be woven has increased I'm getting the PermGen error. I would like to be able to up the amount of perm space. If I was doing a compile I would be able to up the perm space via a compiler argument such as <compilerarg value="-XX:MaxPermSize=256M"/> but this does not appear to be a valid argument for eclipselink weaving. How can I up the perm space for the weave?

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• How to use the `itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int)` signal in qtHaskell

  - by nano

  I want to use the itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int) signal in a Haskell program I'm writing where I am using qtHaskell for the GUI. To connect a function I have at other places done the following: dummyWidget <- myQWidget connectSlot object signal dummyWidget "customSlot()" $ f Where object is some QWidget and signal is a string giving the signal, e.g. "triggered()", and f is the function I want to be called when the signaled is send. The definition of connectSlot in the API is: class Qcs x where connectSlot :: QObject a -> String -> QObject b -> String -> x -> IO () where the instances ofQcs are: Qcs () Qcs (QObject c -> String -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Object d -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Bool -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Int -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> OpenGLVersionFlag -> IO ()) The first Arguments passed is supposed to be the QObject of which I'm using a signal. As you can see, there is no instance where f, the function to connect to the signal, can have two further arguments to recieve the QWidget and the integer send by the signal. Is there a way to nevertheless connect that signal to a custom function?

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• Enum "copy" problem

  - by f0b0s

  Hi all! I have a class, let's call it A. It has a enum (E) and a method Foo(E e), with gets E in the arguments. I want to write a wrapper (decorator) W for A. So it'll have its own method Foo(A::E). But I want to have some kind of encapsulation, so this method should defined as Foo(F f), where F is another enum defined in W, that can be converted to A::E. For example: class A { public: enum E { ONE, TWO, THREE }; void Foo(E e); }; class B { //enum F; // ??? void Foo(F f) { a_.Foo(f); } private: A a_; }; How F should be defined? I don't want to copy value like this: enum F { ONE = A::ONE, TWO = A::TWO, THREE = A::THREE }; because its a potential error in the near feature. Is the typedef definition: typedef A::E F; is the best decision? Is it legal?

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• Duplicate Symbol Linker Error (C++ help)

  - by Vash265

  Hi. I'm learning some CSP (constraint satisfaction) theory stuff right now, and am using this library to parse XML files. I'm using Xcode as an IDE. My program compiles fine, but when it goes to link the files, I get a duplicate symbol error with the XMLParser_libxml2.hh file. My files are separated as such: A class header file that includes the XMLParser file above A class implementation file that include the class header file A main file that includes the class header file The duplicate symbol is occurring in main.o and classfile.o, but as far as I can tell, I'm not actually adding that .hh file twice. Full error: ld: duplicate symbol bool CSPXMLParser::UTF8String::to<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&) constin /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/dStructFill.o and /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/main.o Copying the implementation of the class into the main file and taking the class implementation file out of the compilation target alleviates the error, but it's a disorganized mess this way, and I'll be adding more classes very soon (and it would be nice to have them in separate files). As I've come to understand it, this is caused by the file (XMLParser_libxml2.hh) having both the class and function definition and implementation in one file (and it seems as though this might have been necessary due to the use of templates in that 'header' file). Any ideas on how to get around sticking all my class files in my main.cpp? (I've tried ifdefs, they don't work).

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• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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• Inheritance inside a template - public members become invisible?

  - by Juliano

  I'm trying to use inheritance among classes defined inside a class template (inner classes). However, the compiler (GCC) is refusing to give me access to public members in the base class. Example code: template <int D> struct Space { struct Plane { Plane(Space& b); virtual int& at(int y, int z) = 0; Space& space; /* <= this member is public */ }; struct PlaneX: public Plane { /* using Plane::space; */ PlaneX(Space& b, int x); int& at(int y, int z); const int cx; }; int& at(int x, int y, int z); }; template <int D> int& Space<D>::PlaneX::at(int y, int z) { return space.at(cx, y, z); /* <= but it fails here */ }; Space<4> sp4; The compiler says: file.cpp: In member function ‘int& Space::PlaneX::at(int, int)’: file.cpp:21: error: ‘space’ was not declared in this scope If using Plane::space; is added to the definition of class PlaneX, or if the base class member is accessed through the this pointer, or if class Space is changed to a non-template class, then the compiler is fine with it. I don't know if this is either some obscure restriction of C++, or a bug in GCC (GCC versions 4.4.1 and 4.4.3 tested). Does anyone have an idea?

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• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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• Java Generics Class Parameter Type Inference

  - by Pindatjuh

  Given the interface: public interface BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> { public T getOther(); public void staticStatisfied(final U list); } The BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> looks very ugly in my use-cases. It is because the T type parameter is already defined in the BasedList<T> part, so the "uglyness" comes from that T needs to be typed twice. Problem: is it possible to let the Java compiler infer the generic T type from BasedList<T> in a generic class/interface definition? Ultimately, I'd like to use the interface like: class X implements BasedOnOther<BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } } // Does not compile, due to invalid parameter count. Instead: class X implements BasedOnOther<SomeType, BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } }

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• string maniupulations, oops, how do I replace parts of a string

  - by Joe Gibson

  I am very new to python. Could someone explain how I can manipulate a string like this? This function receives three inputs: complete_fmla: has a string with digits and symbols but has no hyphens ('-') nor spaces. partial_fmla: has a combination of hyphens and possibly some digits or symbols, where the digits and symbols that are in it (other than hyphens) are in the same position as in the complete_formula. symbol: one character The output that should be returned is: If the symbol is not in the complete formula, or if the symbol is already in the partial formula, the function should return the same formula as the input partial_formula. If the symbol is in the complete_formula and not in the partial formula, the function should return the partial_formula with the symbol substituting the hyphens in the positions where the symbol is, in all the occurrences of symbol in the complete_formula. For example: generate_next_fmla (‘abcdeeaa’, ‘- - - - - - - - ’, ‘d’) should return ‘- - - d - - - -’ generate_next_fmla (‘abcdeeaa’, ‘- - - d - - - - ’, ‘e’) should return ‘- - - d e e - -’ generate_next_fmla (‘abcdeeaa’, ‘- - - d e e - - ’, ‘a’) should return ‘a - - d e e a a’ Basically, I'm working with the definition: def generate_next_fmla (complete_fmla, partial_fmla, symbol): Do I turn them into lists? and then append? Also, should I find out the index number for the symbol in the complete_fmla so that I know where to append it in the string with hyphens??

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• SOLR not searching on certain fields

  - by andy

  hey guys, just installed solr, edited the schema.xml, and am now trying to index it and search on it with some test data. In the XML file I'm sending to SOLR, one of my fields look like this: <field name="PageContent"><![CDATA[<p>some text in a paragrah tag</p>]]></field> There's HTML there, so I've wrapped it in CDATA. In my SOLR schema.xml, the definition for that field looks like this: <field name="PageContent" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> When I ran the POSTing tool, everything went ok, but when I search for content which I know is inside the PageContent field, I get no results. However, when I set the node to PageContent, it works. But if I set it to any other field, it doesn't search in PageContent. Am I doing something wrong? what's the issue? thanks very much for any help cheers! UPDATE Just to clarify on the error. I've uploaded a "doc" with the following data: <field name="PageID">928</field> <field name="PageName">some name</field> <field name="PageContent"><![CDATA[<p>html content</p>]]></field> In my schema I've defined the fields as such: <field name="PageID" type="integer" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true"/> <field name="PageName" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> <field name="PageContent" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> And: <uniqueKey>PageID</uniqueKey> <defaultSearchField>PageName</defaultSearchField> Now, when I use the Solr admin tool and search for "some name" I get a result. But, if I search for "html content", or "html", or "content", or "928", I get no results why? cool, thanks!

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• How do I declare "Member Fields" in Java?

  - by Bub

  This question probably reveals my total lack of knowledge in Java. But let me first show you what I thought was the correct way to declare a "member field": public class NoteEdit extends Activity { private Object mTitleText; private Object mBodyText; I'm following a google's notepad tutorial for android (here) and they simply said: "Note that mTitleText and mBodyText are member fields (you need to declare them at the top of the class definition)." I thought I got it and then realized that this little snippet of code wasn't working. if (title != null) { mTitleText.setText(title); } if (body != null) { mBodyText.setText(body); } So either I didn't set the "member fields" correctly which I thought all that was needed was to declare them private Objects at the top of the NoteEdit class or I'm missing something else. Thanks in advance for any help.UPDATE I was asked to show where these fields were being intialized here is another code snippet hope that it's helpful... @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.note_edit); Long mRowId; mTitleText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.title); mBodyText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.body);

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• Unable to get data from a WCF client

  - by Scott

  I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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• Semantically correct XHTML markup

  - by Dori

  Hello all. Just trying to get the hang of using the semantically correct XHTML markup. Just writing the code for a small navigation item. Where each button has effectivly a title and a descrption. I thought a definition list would therefore be great so i wrote the following <dl> <dt>Import images</dt> <dd>Read in new image names to database</dd> <dt>Exhibition Management</dt> <dd>Create / Delete an exhibition </dd> <dt>Image Management</dt> <dd>Edit name, medium and exhibition data </dd> </dl> But...I want the above to be 3 buttons, each button containing the dt and dd text. How can i do this with the correct code? Normally i would make each button a div and use that for the visual button behaviour (onHover and current page selection stuff). Any advice please Thanks

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• How to patch an S4 method in an R package?

  - by Richie Cotton

  If you find a bug in a package, it's usually possible to patch the problem with fixInNamespace, e.g. fixInNamespace("mean.default", "base"). For S4 methods, I'm not sure how to do it though. The method I'm looking at is in the gWidgetstcltk package. You can see the source code with getMethod(".svalue", c("gTabletcltk", "guiWidgetsToolkittcltk")) I can't find the methods with fixInNamespace. fixInNamespace(".svalue", "gWidgetstcltk") Error in get(subx, envir = ns, inherits = FALSE) : object '.svalue' not found I thought setMethod might do the trick, but setMethod(".svalue", c("gTabletcltk", "guiWidgetsToolkittcltk"), definition = function (obj, toolkit, index = NULL, drop = NULL, ...) { widget = getWidget(obj) sel <- unlist(strsplit(tclvalue(tcl(widget, "selection")), " ")) if (length(sel) == 0) { return(NA) } theChildren <- .allChildren(widget) indices <- sapply(sel, function(i) match(i, theChildren)) inds <- which(visible(obj))[indices] if (!is.null(index) && index == TRUE) { return(inds) } if (missing(drop) || is.null(drop)) drop = TRUE chosencol <- tag(obj, "chosencol") if (drop) return(obj[inds, chosencol, drop = drop]) else return(obj[inds, ]) }, where = "package:gWidgetstcltk" ) Error in setMethod(".svalue", c("gTabletcltk", "guiWidgetsToolkittcltk"), : the environment "gWidgetstcltk" is locked; cannot assign methods for function ".svalue" Any ideas?

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