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  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

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  • Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

    - by George
    I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • php OOP function declarations

    - by kris
    I'm a big fan of OOP in php, but i feel like defining class methods gets disorganized so fast. I have a pretty good background in OOP in C++, and i am pretty comfortable with how it is handled there, and am curious if there are ways to do it similarly in php. To be more specific, here is what i mean. I like how in C++ you can define a class header (myclass.h) and then define the actual details of the functions in the implementation file (myclass.cc). Ive found that this can easily be replicated using interfaces in php, but i havent found a good solution for the following: I like to organize my code in C++ in different files based on how they are accessed, so for example, public methods that can be called outside of the class would be in 1 place, and private methods would be organized somewhere else - this is personal preference. Ive tried to define class methods in php like: private function MyPHPClass::myFunction(){ } when the definition isnt directly inside the class block( { } ), but i havent had any success doing this. Ive been through all of the pages on php.net, but couldnt find anything like this. Im assuming that there is no support for something like this, but thought i would ask anyway. thanks

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  • Cannot call DLL import entry in C# from C++ project. EntryPointNotFoundException

    - by kriau
    I'm trying to call from C# a function in a custom DLL written in C++. However I'm getting the warning during code analysis and the error at runtime: Warning: CA1400 : Microsoft.Interoperability : Correct the declaration of 'SafeNativeMethods.SetHook()' so that it correctly points to an existing entry point in 'wi.dll'. The unmanaged entry point name currently linked to is SetHook. Error: System.EntryPointNotFoundException was unhandled. Unable to find an entry point named 'SetHook' in DLL 'wi.dll'. Both projects wi.dll and C# exe has been compiled in to the same DEBUG folder, both files reside here. There is only one file with the name wi.dll in the whole file system. C++ function definition looks like: #define WI_API __declspec(dllexport) bool WI_API SetHook(); I can see exported function using Dependency Walker: as decorated: bool SetHook(void) as undecorated: ?SetHook@@YA_NXZ C# DLL import looks like (I've defined these lines using CLRInsideOut from MSDN magazine): [DllImport("wi.dll", EntryPoint = "SetHook", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] [return: MarshalAsAttribute(UnmanagedType.I1)] internal static extern bool SetHook(); I've tried without EntryPoint and CallingConvention definitions as well. Both projects are 32-bits, I'm using W7 64 bits, VS 2010 RC. I believe that I simply have overlooked something.... Thanks in advance.

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  • How to solve generic algebra using solver/library programmatically? Matlab, Mathematica, Wolfram etc?

    - by DevDevDev
    I'm trying to build an algebra trainer for students. I want to construct a representative problem, define constraints and relationships on the parameters, and then generate a bunch of Latex formatted problems from the representation. As an example: A specific question might be: If y < 0 and (x+3)(y-5) = 0, what is x? Answer (x = -3) I would like to encode this as a Latex formatted problem like. If $y<0$ and $(x+constant_1)(y+constant_2)=0$ what is the value of x? Answer = -constant_1 And plug into my problem solver constant_1 > 0, constant_1 < 60, constant_1 = INTEGER constant_2 < 0, constant_2 > -60, constant_2 = INTEGER Then it will randomly construct me pairs of (constant_1, constant_2) that I can feed into my Latex generator. Obviously this is an extremely simple example with no real "solving" but hopefully it gets the point across. Things I'm looking for ideally in priority order * Solve algebra problems * Definition of relationships relatively straight forward * Rich support for latex formatting (not just writing encoded strings) Thanks!

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  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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  • Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

    - by mmoris
    Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

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  • Register new memer for vBulletin via Mobile API

    - by Nikolay Stariradeff
    I'm trying to use the vBulletin REST Mobile API to simply register. The sourced are installed on my local machine and according the documentation https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/393-User-Registration-Process-Mobile-API This procedure should not be so hard, especially without humanity and COPPA authentication. However I've stacked! The method definition describes "addnewmember" clear, so I've generated a test link, which should do the job. https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/365-User-Related-Methods The link is: .../forum/api.php?&api_m=register_addmember&api_c=1&api_s=76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392&api_sig=8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80&api_v=6&agree=1&username=testuser&email=XXXXXX%40gmail.com&emailconfirm=XXXXX%40gmail.com&password=12345678&passwordconfirm=12345678 As a response I get: register_not_agreed The Docs: register_not_agreed The agree parameter should be set to 1. Which is also clear - agree parameter was not there. Here comes the funny part - In the API-Log I can see that the 'agree' parameter is correctly passed *1 test_client Gast 13:23, 18.06.2012 register_addmember Array ( [api_m] = register_addmember [api_c] = 1 [api_s] = 76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392 [api_sig] = 8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80 [api_v] = 6 [agree] = 1 [username] = testuser [email] = ....* Is there anybody with experience with the Mobile API that could help?

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  • How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

    - by Sebastian
    I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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  • MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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  • Type classe, generic memoization

    - by nicolas
    Something quite odd is happening with y types and I quite dont understand if this is justified or not. I would tend to think not. This code works fine : type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, obj>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res And this ones complains type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, _>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res The difference is only the underscore in the dictionary definition. The infered types are the same, but the dynamic cast from r to type 'b exhibits an error. 'this runtime coercition ... runtime type tests are not allowed on some types, etc..' Am I missing something or is it a rough edge ?

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  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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  • SQL Server Long Query

    - by thormj
    Ok... I don't understand why this query is taking so long (MSSQL Server 2005): [Typical output 3K rows, 5.5 minute execution time] SELECT dbo.Point.PointDriverID, dbo.Point.AssetID, dbo.Point.PointID, dbo.Point.PointTypeID, dbo.Point.PointName, dbo.Point.ForeignID, dbo.Pointtype.TrendInterval, coalesce(dbo.Point.trendpts,5) AS TrendPts, LastTimeStamp = PointDTTM, LastValue=PointValue, Timezone FROM dbo.Point LEFT JOIN dbo.PointType ON dbo.PointType.PointTypeID = dbo.Point.PointTypeID LEFT JOIN dbo.PointData ON dbo.Point.PointID = dbo.PointData.PointID AND PointDTTM = (SELECT Max(PointDTTM) FROM dbo.PointData WHERE PointData.PointID = Point.PointID) LEFT JOIN dbo.SiteAsset ON dbo.SiteAsset.AssetID = dbo.Point.AssetID LEFT JOIN dbo.Site ON dbo.Site.SiteID = dbo.SiteAsset.SiteID WHERE onlinetrended =1 and WantTrend=1 PointData is the biggun, but I thought its definition should allow me to pick up what I want easily enough: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PointData]( [PointID] [int] NOT NULL, [PointDTTM] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PointValue] [real] NULL, [DataQuality] [tinyint] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PointData_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] ASC ) WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [IX_PointDataDesc] ON [dbo].[PointData] ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] DESC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, SORT_IN_TEMPDB = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, DROP_EXISTING = OFF, ONLINE = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO PointData is 550M rows, and Point (source of PointID) is only 28K rows. I tried making an Indexed View, but I can't figure out how to get the Last Timestamp/Value out of it in a compatible way (no Max, no subquery, no CTE). This runs twice an hour, and after it runs I put more data into those 3K PointID's that I selected. I thought about creating LastTime/LastValue tables directly into Point, but that seems like the wrong approach. Am I missing something, or should I rebuild something? (I'm also the DBA, but I know very little about A'ing a DB!)

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  • alternative to #include within namespace { } block

    - by Jeff
    Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

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  • Where do I put javaassist code?

    - by DutrowLLC
    I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

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  • charsets in MySQL replication

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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  • How do I declare "Member Fields" in Java?

    - by Bub
    This question probably reveals my total lack of knowledge in Java. But let me first show you what I thought was the correct way to declare a "member field": public class NoteEdit extends Activity { private Object mTitleText; private Object mBodyText; I'm following a google's notepad tutorial for android (here) and they simply said: "Note that mTitleText and mBodyText are member fields (you need to declare them at the top of the class definition)." I thought I got it and then realized that this little snippet of code wasn't working. if (title != null) { mTitleText.setText(title); } if (body != null) { mBodyText.setText(body); } So either I didn't set the "member fields" correctly which I thought all that was needed was to declare them private Objects at the top of the NoteEdit class or I'm missing something else. Thanks in advance for any help.UPDATE I was asked to show where these fields were being intialized here is another code snippet hope that it's helpful... @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.note_edit); Long mRowId; mTitleText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.title); mBodyText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.body);

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  • CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

    - by rybz
    Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • Is this a hole in dynamic binding in C# 4?

    - by Galilyou
    I've seen a very interesting post on Fabio Maulo's blog. Here's the code and the bug if you don't want to jump to the url. I defined a new generic class like so: public class TableStorageInitializer<TTableEntity> where TTableEntity : class, new() { public void Initialize() { InitializeInstance(new TTableEntity()); } public void InitializeInstance(dynamic entity) { entity.PartitionKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); entity.RowKey = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); } } Note that InitializeInstance accepts one parameter, which is of type dynamic. Now to test this class, I defined another class that is nested inside my main Program class like so: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TableStorageInitializer<MyClass> x = new TableStorageInitializer<MyClass>(); x.Initialize(); } private class MyClass { public string PartitionKey { get; set; } public string RowKey { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } } } Note: the inner class "MyClass" is declared private. Now if i run this code I get a "Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException" on the line "entity.PartitionKey = Guide.NewGuid().ToString()". The interesting part, though is that the message of the exception says "Object doesn't contain a definition for PartitionKey". Also note that if you changed the modifier of the nested class to public, the code will execute with no problems. So what do you guys think is really happening under the hood? Please refer to any documentation -of course if this is documented anywhere- that you may find?

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  • file upload in JSF using myfaces component

    - by prt
    Hi, all i am creating a JSF application where file uploading functionality is required.I have added all the required jar files in my /WEB-INF/lib folder. jsf-api.jar jsf-impl.jar jstl.jar standard.jar myfaces-extensions.jar commons-collections.jar commons-digester.jar commons-beanutils.jar commons-logging.jar commons-fileupload-1.0.jar but still when trying to deploy the application on apache 6.0.29 i am getting the following error. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext addApplicationListener INFO: The listener "com.sun.faces.config.ConfigureListener" is already configured for this context. The duplicate definition has been ignored. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Error listenerStart PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Context [/jsfApplication] startup failed due to previous errors org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesJdbc The web application [/jsfApplication] registered the JBDC driver [com.mysql.jdbc.Driver] but failed to unregister it when the web application was stopped. To prevent a memory leak, the JDBC Driver has been forcibly unregistered. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [Timer-0] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [MySQL Statement Cancellation Timer] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. log4j:ERROR LogMananger.repositorySelector was null likely due to error in class reloading, using NOPLoggerRepository. i am using also using hibernate and spring framework for this application. please help. thanks,

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