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  • insert multiple rows into database from arrays

    - by Mark
    Hi, i need some help with inserting multiple rows from different arrays into my database. I am making the database for a seating plan, for each seating block there is 5 rows (A-E) with each row having 15 seats. my DB rows are seat_id, seat_block, seat_row, seat_number, therefore i need to add 15 seat_numbers for each seat_row and 5 seat_rows for each seat_block. I mocked it up with some foreach loops but need some help turning it into an (hopefully single) SQL statement. $blocks = array("A","B","C","D"); $seat_rows = array("A","B","C","D","E"); $seat_nums = array("1","2","3","4","5","6","7","8","9","10","11","12","13","14","15"); foreach($blocks as $block){ echo "<br><br>"; echo "Block: " . $block . " - "; foreach($seat_rows as $rows){ echo "Row: " . $rows . ", "; foreach($seat_nums as $seats){ echo "seat:" . $seats . " "; } } } Maybe there's a better way of doing it instead of using arrays? i just want to avoid writing an SQL statement that is over 100 lines long ;) (im using codeigniter too if anyone knows of a CI specific way of doing it but im not too bothered about that)

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  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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  • Why would using a Temp table be faster than a nested query?

    - by Mongus Pong
    We are trying to optimise some of our queries. One query is doing the following: SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, INTO [#Gadget] FROM task t SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) as Client FROM [#Gadget] order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC DROP TABLE [#Gadget] (I have removed the complex subquery, cos I dont think its relevant other than to explain why this query has been done as a two stage process.) Now I would have thought it would be far more efficient to merge this down into a single query using subqueries as : SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) FROM ( SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, FROM task t ) as sub order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC This would give the optimiser better information to work out what was going on and avoid any temporary tables. It should be faster. But it turns out it is a lot slower. 8 seconds vs under 5 seconds. I cant work out why this would be the case as all my knowledge of databases imply that subqueries would always be faster than using temporary tables. Can anyone explain what could be going on!?!?

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  • Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

    - by Shaun
    Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • RewriteRule to store thousands of files in subdirectories

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that will have millions of pages in a directory. I'd like to store those files on-disk in a bunch of subdirectories based on the first characters of the page name. For example http://mysite.com/hugedir/somefile.html would be stored in /var/www/html/hugedir/s/o/m/e/f/ile.html That is fairly trivial to do with a RewriteRule like so: RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}/$6.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}.html However, the file name may contain hyphens or other non-standard characters and I'd really like to avoid having a directory named with a strange character. Ideally, I'd like to have a list of 'approved' characters and either eliminate or transform the unapproved characters to an underscore. Can anybody think of a way to do that? Or something else equivalent? Part of the requirement is that these be physical files on disk and it not be parsed with a scripting language.

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  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

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  • AsyncTask never finishes when other tasks are running

    - by rebeccamaher
    In my app, I show a menu screen immediately to the user and then use an AsyncTask to load some data from disk. Loading takes about 3 seconds if that's all the app had to do. When the user hits a menu option and the data hasn't loaded yet, a "Please wait, loading" screen appears. I have two problems: I recently added ads to my app and have found this is making my app hang sometimes because the AsyncTask never finishes loading. What seems to be happening is that the ad banner (I'm using admob and this happens when adsense ads are shown which admob do occasionally) is using resources by playing a simple animation and the AsyncTask never gets a chance to finish. I want to play a simple looping animation (e.g. making a view rotate) on my menu screen and this makes the AsyncTask take about 5 times longer to finish which renders the background loading pointless. How can I avoid situations where my background data never finishes loading or has such a low priority it takes a long time? I can't seem to find a way to increase the priority of an AsyncTask.

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  • PendingIntent in Widget + TaskKiller

    - by YaW
    Hi, I've developed an Application (called Instant Buttons) and the app has a widget feature. This widget uses PendingIntent for the onClick of the widget. My PendingIntent code is something like this: Intent active = new Intent(context, InstantWidget.class); active.setAction(String.valueOf(appWidgetId)); active.putExtra("blabla", blabla); //Some data PendingIntent actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); actionPendingIntent.cancel(); actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button, actionPendingIntent); The onReceive gets the intent and do some stuff with the MediaPlayer class to reproduce a sound. I have reports from some users that the widgets stop working after a while and with some research i've discovered is because the Task Killers. It seems that when you kill the app in the TaskKiller, the PendingIntent is erased from memory, so when you click the widget, it doesn't know what to do. Is there any solution for this? Is my code wrong or something or it's the default behavior of the PendingIntent? Is there something I can use to avoid the TaskKiller to stop my widgets from working?? Greetings.

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  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • Resources for setting up a Visual Studio/C++ development environment

    - by Tom H.
    I haven't done much "front-end" development in about 15 years since moving to database development. I'm planning to start work on a personal project using C++ and since I already have MSDN I'll probably end up doing it in Visual Studio 2010. I'm thinking about using Subversion as a version control system eventually. Of course, I'd like to get up and running as quickly as I can, but I'd also like to avoid any pitfalls from a poorly organized project environment. So, my question is, are there any good resources with common best practices for setting up a development environment? I'm thinking along the lines of where to break down a solution into multiple projects if necessary, how to set up a unit testing process, organizing resources, directories, etc. Are there any great add-ons that I should make sure I have set up from the start? Most tutorials just have one simple project, type in your code and click on build to see that your new application says, "Hello World!". This will be a Windows application with several DLLs as well (no web development), so there doesn't need to be a deploy to a web server kind of process. Mostly I just want to make sure that I don't miss anything big and then have to extensively refactor because of it. Thanks!

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  • Creating android app Database with big amount of data

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, The database of my application need to be filled with a lot of data, so during onCreate(), it's not only some create table sql instructions, there is a lot of inserts. The solution I chose is to store all this instructions in a sql file located in res/raw and which is loaded with Resources.openRawResource(id). It works well but I face to encoding issue, I have some accentuated caharacters in the sql file which appears bad in my application. This my code to do this : public String getFileContent(Resources resources, int rawId) throws IOException { InputStream is = resources.openRawResource(rawId); int size = is.available(); // Read the entire asset into a local byte buffer. byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; is.read(buffer); is.close(); // Convert the buffer into a string. return new String(buffer); } public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { try { // get file content String sqlCode = getFileContent(mCtx.getResources(), R.raw.db_create); // execute code for (String sqlStatements : sqlCode.split(";")) { db.execSQL(sqlStatements); } Log.v("Creating database done."); } catch (IOException e) { // Should never happen! Log.e("Error reading sql file " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } catch (SQLException e) { Log.e("Error executing sql code " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } The solution I found to avoid this is to load the sql instructions from a huge static final string instead of a file, and all accentutated characters appears well. But Isn't there a more elegant way to load sql instructions than a big static final String attribute with all sql instructions ? Thanks in advance Thomas

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  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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  • How can I spot subtle Lisp syntax mistakes?

    - by Marius Andersen
    I'm a newbie playing around with Lisp (actually, Emacs Lisp). It's a lot of fun, except when I seem to run into the same syntax mistakes again and again. For instance, here's something I've encountered several times. I have some cond form, like (cond ((foo bar) (qux quux)) ((or corge (grault warg)) (fred) (t xyzzy))) and the default clause, which returns xyzzy, is never carried out, because it's actually nested inside the previous clause: (cond ((foo bar) (qux quux)) ((or corge (grault warg)) (fred)) (t xyzzy)) It's difficult for me to see such errors when the difference in indentation is only one space. Does this get easier with time? I also have problems when there's a large distance between the (mal-)indented line and the line it should be indented against. let forms with a lot of complex bindings, for example, or an unless form with a long conditional: (defun test () (unless (foo bar (qux quux) (or corge (grault warg) (fred)))) xyzzy) It turns out xyzzy was never inside the unless form at all: (defun test () (unless (foo bar (qux quux) (or corge (grault warg) (fred))) xyzzy)) I auto-indent habitually and use parenthesis highlighting to avoid counting parentheses. For the most part it works like a breeze, but occasionally, I discover my syntax mistakes only by debugging. What can I do?

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  • Using custom Qt subclasses in Python

    - by kwatford
    First off: I'm new to both Qt and SWIG. Currently reading documentation for both of these, but this is a time consuming task, so I'm looking for some spoilers. It's good to know up-front whether something just won't work. I'm attempting to formulate a modular architecture for some in-house software. The core components are in C++ and exposed via SWIG to Python for experimentation and rapid prototyping of new components. Qt seems like it has some classes I could use to avoid re-inventing the wheel too much here, but I'm concerned about how some of the bits will fit together. Specifically, if I create some C++ classes, I'll need to expose them via SWIG. Some of these classes likely subclass Qt classes or otherwise have Qt stuff exposed in their public interfaces. This seems like it could raise some complications. There are already two interfaces for Qt in Python, PyQt and PySide. Will probably use PySide for licensing reasons. About how painful should I expect it to be to get a SWIG-wrapped custom subclass of a Qt class to play nice with either of these? What complications should I know about upfront?

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  • Division of text follow the cursor via Javascript/Jquery

    - by webzide
    Dear experts, I wanted have a dynamic division of content follow you with the cursor in the web browser space. I am not a pro at JS so I spent 2 hours to finally debugged a very stupid way to accomplish this. $(document).ready(function () { function func(evt) { var evt = (evt) ? evt : event; var div = document.createElement('div'); div.style.position = "absolute"; div.style.left = evt.clientX + "px"; div.style.top = evt.clientY + "px"; $(div).attr("id", "current") div.innerHTML = "CURSOR FOLLOW TEXT"; $(this).append($(div)); $(this).unbind() $(this).bind('mousemove', function () { $('div').remove("#current"); }); $(this).bind('mousemove', func); } $("body").bind('mousemove', func) }); As you can see this is pretty much Brute force and it slows down the browser quite a bit. I often experience a lag on the browser as a drag my mouse from one place to another. Is there a way to accomplish this easier and faster and more intuitive. I know you can use the cursor image technique but thats something I'm looking to avoid. Thanks in advance.

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  • Generating different randoms valid for a day on different independent devices?

    - by Pentium10
    Let me describe the system. There are several mobile devices, each independent from each other, and they are generating content for the same record id. I want to avoid generating the same content for the same record on different devices, for this I though I would use a random and make it so too cluster the content pool based on these randoms. Suppose you have choices from 1 to 100. Day 1 Device#1 will choose for the record#33 between 1-10 Device#2 will choose for the record#33 between 40-50 Device#3 will choose for the record#33 between 50-60 Device#1 will choose for the record#55 between 40-50 Device#2 will choose for the record#55 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#55 between 10-20 Device#1 will choose for the record#11 between 1-10 Device#2 will choose for the record#22 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#99 between 1-10 Day 2 Device#1 will choose for the record#33 between 90-100 Device#2 will choose for the record#33 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#33 between 50-60 They don't have access to a central server. Data available for each of them: IMEI (unique per mobile) Date of today (same on all devices) Record id (same on all devices) What do you think, how is it possible? ps. tags can be edited

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  • Reading HTML header info of files via JS

    - by Morten Repsdorph Husfeldt
    I have a product list that is generated in ASP. I have product descriptions for each product in an HTML file. Each HTML file is named: <product.id>.html. Each HTML file size is only 1-3 kb. Within the HTML file is <title> and <meta name="description" content="..." />. I want to access these in an efficient way so that I can output this as e.g.: document.write(<product.id>.html.title);<br/> document.write(<product.id>.html.description); I have a working solution for the individual products, where I use the description file - but I hope to find a more efficient / simple approach. Preferably, I want to avoid having 30+ hidden iframes - Google might think that I am trying to tamper with search result and blacklist my page. Current code: <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('produkt').onload = function(){ var d = window.frames[frame].document; document.getElementById('pfoto').title = d.title : ' '; document.getElementById('pfoto').alt = d.getElementsByName('description')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; var keywords = d.getElementsByName('keywords')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; }; </script>

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  • Refreshing a MKMapView when the user location is updated or using default values

    - by koichirose
    I'm trying to refresh my map view and load new data from the server when the device acquires the user location. Here's what I'm doing: - (void)viewDidLoad { CGRect bounds = self.view.bounds; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:bounds]; mapView.showsUserLocation=YES; mapView.delegate=self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; [self refreshMap]; } - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)theMapView didUpdateUserLocation:(MKUserLocation *)userLocation { //this is to avoid frequent updates, I just need one position and don't need to continuously track the user's location if (userLocation.location.horizontalAccuracy > self.myUserLocation.location.horizontalAccuracy) { self.myUserLocation = userLocation; CLLocationCoordinate2D centerCoord = { userLocation.location.coordinate.latitude, userLocation.location.coordinate.longitude }; [theMapView setCenterCoordinate:centerCoord zoomLevel:10 animated:YES]; [self refreshMap]; } } - (void)refreshMap { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:YES]; [self.mapView removeAnnotations:self.mapView.annotations]; //default position NSString *lat = @"45.464161"; NSString *lon = @"9.190336"; if (self.myUserLocation != nil) { lat = [[NSNumber numberWithDouble:myUserLocation.coordinate.latitude] stringValue]; lon = [[NSNumber numberWithDouble:myUserLocation.coordinate.longitude] stringValue]; } NSString *url = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://myserver/geo_search.json?lat=%@&lon=%@", lat, lon]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60.0]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; [url release]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:NO]; } I also have a - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data, to create and add the annotations. Here's what happens: sometimes I get the location after a while, so I already loaded data close to the default location. Then I get the location and it should remove the old annotations and add the new ones, instead I keep seeing the old annotations and the new ones are added anyway (let's say I receive 10 annotations each time, so it means that I have 20 on my map when I should have 10). What am I doing wrong?

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  • Void* array casting to float, int32, int16, etc.

    - by Griffin
    Hey guys, I've got an array of PCM data, it could be 16 bit, 24 bit packed, 32 bit, etc.. It could be signed, or unsigned, and it could be 32 or 64 bit floating point. It is currently stored as a "void**" matrix, indexed by channel, then by frame. The goal is to allow my library to take in any PCM format and buffer it, without requiring manipulation of the data to fit a designated structure. If the A/D converter spits out 24 bit packed arrays of interleaved PCM, I need to accept it gracefully. I also need to support 16 bit non interleaved, as well as any permutation of the above formats. I know the bit depth and other information at runtime, and I'm trying to code efficiently while not duplicating code. What I need is an effective way to cast the matrix, put PCM data into the matrix, and then pull it out later. I can cast the matrix to int32_t, or int16_t for the 32 and 16 bit signed PCM respectively, I'll probably have to store the 24 bit PCM in an int32_t for 32 bit, 8 bit byte systems as well. Can anyone recommend a good way to put data into this array, and pull it out later? I'd like to avoid large sections of code which look like: switch( mFormat ) { case 1: // unsigned 8 bit for( int i = 0; i < mChannels; i++ ) framesArray = (uint8_t*)pcm[i]; break; case 2: // signed 8 bit for( int i = 0; i < mChannels; i++ ) framesArray = (int8_t*)pcm[i]; break; case 3: // unsigned 16 bit ... Limitations: I'm working in C/C++, no templates, no RTTI, no STL. Think embedded. Things get trickier when I have to port this to a DSP with 16 bit bytes. Does anybody have any useful macros they might be willing to share? Thanks, -Griff

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  • jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

    - by Bee
    I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

    - by MaseBase
    I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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