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  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • Find and replace certain part of value (jquery)

    - by Hakan
    This might be a little complicated. See code below. When image is clicked I want to change "MY-ID-NUMBER" in "value" and "src" of object. But I want the other information to remain. When link is clicked I want to restore "value" and "src" so I can use the same function for next image that is clicked. Is it possible? Please help! My HTML: <img height="186" width="134" alt="4988" src="i123.jpg"> <img height="186" width="134" alt="4567" src="i124.jpg"> <a class="restore-to-default" href="#">DVD</a> <div class="tdt"> <object width="960" height="540"><param name="movie" value="http://www.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /><param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /><embed id="player" name="player" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="http://www.player.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/&display_title=over&menu=true&enable_link=true&default_quality=xxlarge&controlbar=over&autostart=true&backcolor=000000&frontcolor=ffffff&share=0&repeat=always&displayclick=play&volume=80&linktarget=_blank" width="960" height="540"allowFullScreen="true" allowScriptAccess="always"></embed></object> My jquery: $('img').click(function(){ var alt = $(this).attr("alt"); $('.tdt object').val("alt", alt); // Some how change "MY-ID-NUMBER" into the "alt-value" of image }); $('a').click(function(){ //restore to "MY-ID-NUMBER" }); Thanks!

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  • structDelete doesn't affect the shallow copy?

    - by Travis
    I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

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  • How to encapsulate a third party complex object structure?

    - by tangens
    Motivation Currently I'm using the java parser japa to create an abstract syntax tree (AST) of a java file. With this AST I'm doing some code generation (e.g.: if there's an annotation on a method, create some other source files, ...) Problem When my code generation becomes more complex, I've to dive deeper into the structure of the AST (e.g. I have to use visitors to extract some type information of method parameters). But I'm not sure if I want to stay with japa or if I will change the parser library later. Because my code generator uses freemarker (which isn't good at automatic refactoring) I want the interface that it uses to access the AST information to be stable, even if I decide to change the java parser. Question What's the best way to encapsulate complex datastructures of third party libraries? I could create my own datatypes and copy the parts of the AST that I need into these. I could create lots of specialized access methods that work with the AST and create exactly the infos I need (e.g. the fully qualified return type of a method as one string, or the first template parameter of a class). I could create wrapper classes for the japa datastructures I currently need and embed the japa types inside, so that I can delegate requests to the japa types and transform the resulting japa types to my wrapper classes again. Which solution should I take? Are there other (better) solutions to this problem?

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  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

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  • How to add jsf components in javascript?

    - by Guru
    Is it possible to add JSF Components using javascript? In my case , on change of a select option , i need to display a different combination of input controls (like text box(s)). I thought i could use a element and innerHTML property to display the dynamic controls.But it seems to not work!!! <h:selectOneMenu id="browseType" class="TextBlackNormal" value="#{adminBean.browseType}" onchange="showDynamicBox(this);" valueChangeListener="#{adminBean.theValueChanged}"> <f:selectItems value="#{adminBean.browseTypeList}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> &#160;&#160;&#160;</td> <td> <div id="dynamicBox" style="display:block"><h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" /></div> </td> javascript code : ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ function showDynamicBox(selectObjj) { //alert('showDynamicBox ' +showDynamicBox); if(selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='IBD/Office/IP' || selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='APA#' ) { alert('just about to change'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val1" id="val1" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val2" id="val2" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val3" id="val3" /> '; alert(' --> ' +document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML); }else{ alert('back to pavillion'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" />'; } }

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

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  • jquery function

    - by kevin
    Hello id like to get the current element firing this event inside the event, Ideally I need the id, selected value and class, Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").live("change", function () { var id = $("#category_id").val(); //var id = this.val(); alert(id); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); // $("positions select").live("change", function () { //}); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

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  • Semantically correct XHTML markup

    - by Dori
    Hello all. Just trying to get the hang of using the semantically correct XHTML markup. Just writing the code for a small navigation item. Where each button has effectivly a title and a descrption. I thought a definition list would therefore be great so i wrote the following <dl> <dt>Import images</dt> <dd>Read in new image names to database</dd> <dt>Exhibition Management</dt> <dd>Create / Delete an exhibition </dd> <dt>Image Management</dt> <dd>Edit name, medium and exhibition data </dd> </dl> But...I want the above to be 3 buttons, each button containing the dt and dd text. How can i do this with the correct code? Normally i would make each button a div and use that for the visual button behaviour (onHover and current page selection stuff). Any advice please Thanks

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  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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  • Is it safe to silently catch ClassCastException when searching for a specific value?

    - by finnw
    Suppose I am implementing a sorted collection (simple example - a Set based on a sorted array.) Consider this (incomplete) implementation: import java.util.*; public class SortedArraySet<E> extends AbstractSet<E> { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public SortedArraySet(Collection<E> source, Comparator<E> comparator) { this.comparator = (Comparator<Object>) comparator; this.array = source.toArray(); Collections.sort(Arrays.asList(array), this.comparator); } @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } private final Object[] array; private final Comparator<Object> comparator; } Now let's create a set of integers Set<Integer> s = new SortedArraySet<Integer>(Arrays.asList(1, 2, 3), null); And test whether it contains some specific values: System.out.println(s.contains(2)); System.out.println(s.contains(42)); System.out.println(s.contains("42")); The third line above will throw a ClassCastException. Not what I want. I would prefer it to return false (as HashSet does.) I can get this behaviour by catching the exception and returning false: @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { try { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } catch (ClassCastException e) { return false; } } Assuming the source collection is correctly typed, what could go wrong if I do this?

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  • Should onSaveInstanceState save the "enabledness" of the views?

    - by neutrino
    Hi there, I have a preferences activity where I can change the language and the theme of my application. From there I return to the previous activity via the Back key, and I want to recreate the activity. I've managed to do that by reinitializing the layout in onResume and also calling onRestoreInstanceState from there. All the views are restored properly, with checkboxes checked if needed, edittexts filled with texts I left there previously. But I also have a button which is initially disabled, and becomes enabled only when a radiobutton is checked. The problem with it is the following: I check the radiobutton, the button becomes enabled. Then I go to settings, change the theme there, and return to the first activity. When I arrive there, the radiobutton is still checked, but the button is disabled. So it seems that the enabled/disabled state isn't being saved into the bundle, which seems counterintuitive. And I haven't found any code in the Android source that does this, too. Am I missing something, or do I have to write my own code for that?

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • Streaming content to JSF UI

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Partial template specialization for more than one typename

    - by Matt Joiner
    In the following code, I want to consider functions (Ops) that have void return to instead be considered to return true. The type Retval, and the return value of Op are always matching. I'm not able to discriminate using the type traits shown here, and attempts to create a partial template specialization based on Retval have failed due the presence of the other template variables, Op and Args. How do I specialize only some variables in a template specialization without getting errors? Is there any other way to alter behaviour based on the return type of Op? template <typename Retval, typename Op, typename... Args> Retval single_op_wrapper( Retval const failval, char const *const opname, Op const op, Cpfs &cpfs, Args... args) { try { CallContext callctx(cpfs, opname); Retval retval; if (std::is_same<bool, Retval>::value) { (callctx.*op)(args...); retval = true; } else { retval = (callctx.*op)(args...); } assert(retval != failval); callctx.commit(cpfs); return retval; } catch (CpfsError const &exc) { cpfs_errno_set(exc.fserrno); LOGF(Info, "Failed with %s", cpfs_errno_str(exc.fserrno)); } return failval; }

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  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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  • My ifelse statement's result depends on the actions for true/false?

    - by Antal
    Currently I am building a route for a truck to drive inside my netlogo-land. When the truck is next to the shop-patch where it should deliver, the truck needs to change its actions. However my if or ifelse statement does not seem to respond well and the answer depends on the output. With some tests: turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "12"] "12" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" Please note that during this time I do not move my truck, I use the command center to ask these questions (from turtle truck perspective). I am very confused about this. As the only thing I change is the action (what to write). This should not impact the true/false statement itself. Does anybody have any clue what is going on here and why the ifelse responds strange?

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • NSTableView with columns bound to different NSArrayControllers

    - by Vyacheslav Karpukhin
    i have NSTableView and two columns in it: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; as you can see, columns bound to different NSArrayControllers. first column shows correct values, but second just shows "(" symbol. but if i swap columns like this: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; then i see values of first column (which was second in the first example) and again "(" in the second column. i don't understand that behaviour. how can i bound two array controllers to one table?

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  • How to reduce the need for IISRESET for developing ASP.NET web app in IIS 5.1

    - by John Galt
    I have a web application project on my dev PC running WinXP and hence IIS 5.1. The changes I'm making to this site seem to "take effect" only after I do IISRESET. That is, I make a source change, Rebuild the project and then Start without Debugging (or with debugging). The newly changed code is not "visible" or in effect unless I intervene with an IISRESET. BTW, the "web" tab on the Properties display for the web app project is configured to use the Local IIS web server at project Url: http://localhost/myVirtualDirectory ... but I've noticed the same issue when using the VStudio Dev Server (i.e. I have to stop it by visiting the taskbar tray area in order to see my source changes take effect). Is this something I can change? EDIT UPDATE: Just wanting to clear this up if possible. Two answers diverge below; not sure how to move forward. One states this is to be expected (weakness of IIS 5.1 which in turn is the best WinXP can provide). Another states this is not expected behavior (and I tend to agree since this is the first I've encounted this on the same old WinXP dev platform I've had a long time). I suspect it may be something "deep inside" the Visual Studio 2008 web app which was upgraded to this new IDE from VStudio 2002 (ASP.NET 1.1). I've tried to add comment/questions down each answer path. Thanks.

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