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  • Type errors when using same name

    - by lykimq
    I have 3 files: 1) cpf0.ml type string = char list type url = string type var = string type name = string type symbol = | Symbol_name of name 2) problem.ml: type symbol = | Ident of string 3) test.ml open Problem;; open Cpf0;; let symbol b = function | Symbol_name n -> Ident n When I combine test.ml: ocamlc -c test.ml. I received an error: This expression has type Cpf0.name = char list but an expression was expected of type string Could you please help me to correct it? Thank you very much EDIT: Thank you for your answer. I want to explain more about these 3 files: Because I am working with extraction in Coq to Ocaml type: cpf0.ml is generated from cpf.v : Require Import String. Definition string := string. Definition name := string. Inductive symbol := | Symbol_name : name -> symbol. The code extraction.v: Set Extraction Optimize. Extraction Language Ocaml. Require ExtrOcamlBasic ExtrOcamlString. Extraction Blacklist cpf list. where ExtrOcamlString I opened: open Cpf0;; in problem.ml, and I got a new problem because in problem.ml they have another definition for type string This expression has type Cpf0.string = char list but an expression was expected of type Util.StrSet.elt = string Here is a definition in util.ml defined type string: module Str = struct type t = string end;; module StrOrd = Ord.Make (Str);; module StrSet = Set.Make (StrOrd);; module StrMap = Map.Make (StrOrd);; let set_add_chk x s = if StrSet.mem x s then failwith (x ^ " already declared") else StrSet.add x s;; I was trying to change t = string to t = char list, but if I do that I have to change a lot of function it depend on (for example: set_add_chk above). Could you please give me a good idea? how I would do in this case.

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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • Omit return type in C++0x

    - by Clinton
    I've recently found myself using the following macro with gcc 4.5 in C++0x mode: #define RETURN(x) -> decltype(x) { return x; } And writing functions like this: template <class T> auto f(T&& x) RETURN (( g(h(std::forward<T>(x))) )) I've been doing this to avoid the inconvenience having to effectively write the function body twice, and having keep changes in the body and the return type in sync (which in my opinion is a disaster waiting to happen). The problem is that this technique only works on one line functions. So when I have something like this (convoluted example): template <class T> auto f(T&& x) -> ... { auto y1 = f(x); auto y2 = h(y1, g1(x)); auto y3 = h(y1, g2(x)); if (y1) { ++y3; } return h2(y2, y3); } Then I have to put something horrible in the return type. Furthermore, whenever I update the function, I'll need to change the return type, and if I don't change it correctly, I'll get a compile error if I'm lucky, or a runtime bug in the worse case. Having to copy and paste changes to two locations and keep them in sync I feel is not good practice. And I can't think of a situation where I'd want an implicit cast on return instead of an explicit cast. Surely there is a way to ask the compiler to deduce this information. What is the point of the compiler keeping it a secret? I thought C++0x was designed so such duplication would not be required.

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • What features are heavily used in C# 2.0, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how to workaround?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I don't want a war between VBNET and C# developpers, neither is my goal to open a C# VS VBNET confrontation. I would like you all to list a feature that is heavily used in C#, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how would you work around to achieve a similar behaviour or purpose? For example: C# Accepts void (return) lambda expressions. Here's an example with FNH mapping: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); This is impossible to do before VBNET 4.0 (supposed to be doable in VBNET 4.0) VBNET Must write a helping method (Sub), and provide the AddressOf this method in order to workaround. Private Sub Helper(ByVal m As MType) m.Map(Function(x) x.Number) m.Map(Function(x) x.Street) m.Map(Function(x) x.PostCode) End Sub ... Component(Function(x) x.Address, AddressOf Helper) Now I know, it is not VBNET 2.0, but this is an example. VBNET 3.0 and 3.5 can used too. Please just mention what version of VBNET this refers to.

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • Is DOM not being loaded ?

    - by Daniel
    I went through episode 88 (Dynamic menus) of the railscasts and when I try to load my *js.erb file in the browser shows me that my fetched data from the controller is getting there Controller def dynamic_departments @departments = Department.all end localhost:3000/javascripts/dynamic_departments.js var departments = new Array(); departments.push(new Array(1,'????',1)); departments.push(new Array(2,'???-???',2)); function facultySelected(){ faculty_id = $('falculty_id').getValue(); options = $('department_id').options; options.length = 1; departments.each(function(department){ if(department[0] == faculty_id){ options[options.length] = new Option(department[1],department[2]) } }); if(options.length == 1){ $('department_field').hide(); } else { $('department_field').show(); } } document.observe('dom:loaded', function(){ alert("DOM loaded"); //$('department_field').hide(); //$('faculty_id').observe('change',facultySelected); }); My routes.rb has the match ':controller/:action.:format' Still...after the page's loaded and I change the value of my collection_select or select nothing happens.What am I missing? *I called the 'alert' and commented the rest to test it....still nothing.

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  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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  • WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

    - by Peter
    I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

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  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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  • How can I stop the browser viewport moving to the top of the page when the user clicks on a jQueryUI radio button?

    - by ben
    I have got some radio buttons setup like this: <div id="typeRadios"> <input id="note_notetype_note1" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note1" /><label for="note_notetype_note1">note1</label> <input id="note_notetype_note2" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note2" /><label for="note_notetype_note2">note2</label> </div> That I turn into jQueryUI buttons like this: $("#typeRadios").buttonset(); This is the resulting HTML: <input type="radio" value="note1" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note1" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note1" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note1</span></label> <input type="radio" value="note2" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note2" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note2" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note2</span></label> The buttons work, but whenever I click one, the browser view-port gets returned to the top of the page, the same way it happens when you click on a <a href="#">link</a> link. I am using jQuery 1.4.2 and jQueryUI 1.8.7. How can I prevent this behaviour? Thanks for reading. EDIT: The <a href="#">link</a> part was missing.

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  • Strange issue with fixed form border styles in Vista

    - by Nazgulled
    My previous post about this issue didn't got too many answers and it was kinda specific and hard to understand. I think I've managed to understand the problem better and I now believe it to be a Vista issue... The problem lies on all types of fixed border styles like FixedDialog, Fixed3D, FixedSingle and FixedToolWindow. It does not happen on the sizable ones. This problem, like I said, it also happens only on Vista. Let's say you have a form with any of the fixed border styles and set the starting location to 0,0. What you want here is for the form to be snapped to the top left corner of the screen. This works just fine if the form border style is one of the sizable options, if it's fixed, well, the form will be a little bit outside of the screen working area both to the left and top. What's more strange about this is that the form location does not change, it sill is 0,0, but a few pixels of the form are still drawn outside of the working screen area. I tested this on XP and it didn't happen, the problem is Vista specific. On XP, the only difference was the border size that change a bit between any of the styles. But the form was always perfectly snapped to position 0,0. If possible, without finding how many pixels are being drawn outside of the working area and then add that to the form location, is there a possible way to fix or workaround this?

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  • java : how to handle the design when template methods throw exception when overrided method not throw

    - by jiafu
    when coding. try to solve the puzzle: how to design the class/methods when InputStreamDigestComputor throw IOException? It seems we can't use this degisn structure due to the template method throw exception but overrided method not throw it. but if change the overrided method to throw it, will cause other subclass both throw it. So can any good suggestion for this case? abstract class DigestComputor{ String compute(DigestAlgorithm algorithm){ MessageDigest instance; try { instance = MessageDigest.getInstance(algorithm.toString()); updateMessageDigest(instance); return hex(instance.digest()); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { LOG.error(e.getMessage(), e); throw new UnsupportedOperationException(e.getMessage(), e); } } abstract void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance); } class ByteBufferDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ private final ByteBuffer byteBuffer; public ByteBufferDigestComputor(ByteBuffer byteBuffer) { super(); this.byteBuffer = byteBuffer; } @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { instance.update(byteBuffer); } } class InputStreamDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ // this place has error. due to exception. if I change the overrided method to throw it. evey caller will handle the exception. but @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { throw new IOException(); } }

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  • Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

    - by naacal
    I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

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  • Dependent Dropdowns (Linked Selects) with single class (no other selectors)

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

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  • Eclipse sync workspaces/perspectives/preferences across computers

    - by Naren
    I have a project I need to be working on from two different computers, at work and at home. I need to be able to work on the code from both computers, so the issue is two fold; Sharing the code Sharing the workspace. 1 is simple enough with svn; but I feel icky committing broken code to svn just so I can access that again from home. I can live with this but is there a better option? To elaborate more on 2. I have a highly customized eclipse setup on one of the computers where I spent hours adding plugins and tweaking every tiny config options I could access to get it to the point where it is just right. It'll be a pain redoing every single change on the other computer, is there some way to automatically sync that? I know I can export preferences from Eclipse and import them, but I don't want to have to manually do that each time I change something. [Also, I don't think exporting preferences also exports perspectives?] Both computers run windows.

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  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

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  • Creating transparent gridlines

    - by Rob Penridge
    I'm trying to get the chart's gridlines to be transparent but it doesn't seem to be supported: http://support.sas.com/documentation/cdl/en/grstatug/63302/HTML/default/viewer.htm#n1f71f6e9v037an1jy274v66z4r1.htm I'm doing to try and blend the gridlines with the chart background color (which in my code can change between colors) which would make the gridlines subtle rather than jarring when background colors change. Here is my code: ** ** TAKE THE DEFAULT STYLE BEING USED. MODIFY IT SO THAT ** GRAPH GRIDLINES WILL BE GREEN AND MOSTLY TRANSPARENT *; proc template; define style my_style; parent = styles.default; style GraphGridLines from GraphGridLines / contrastcolor=green transparency=.05; end; run; ** ** LAYOUT TEMPLATE FOR A SIMPLE SERIES CHART *; proc template; define statgraph mychart; begingraph; layout overlay / wallcolor=black xaxisopts=(display=(line) griddisplay=on) yaxisopts=(display=(line)) ; seriesplot x=name y=height / lineattrs=(color=white); endlayout; endgraph; end; run; ** ** PLOT SAMPLE DATA USING CUSTOM STYLE AND CHART LAYOUT WE JUST DEFINED *; ods graphics / width=640 height=640 ; ods html style=my_style; proc sgrender data=sashelp.class template=mychart; run; ods html close; Is there another way to achieve this effect by blending the green color with the background color?

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  • Does Microsoft Access use the PK fields for anything?

    - by chrismay
    Ok this is going to sound strange, but I have inherited an app that is an Access front end with a SQL Server backend. I am in the process of writing a new front end for it, but... we need to continue using the access front end for a while even after we deploy my new front end for reasons I won't go into. So both the existing Access app and my new app will need to be able to access and work with the data. The problem is the database design is a nightmare. For example some simple parent-child table relationships have like 4 and 5 part composite primary keys. I would REALLY like to remove these PKs and replace them with unique constraints or whatever, and add a new column to each of these tables called ID that is just an identity. If I change the PK and FKs on these tables to more managable fields, will the Access app have problems? What I mean is, does access use the meta data from the tables (PK and FK info) in such a way that it would break the app to change these?

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  • This is a great job opportunity!!! [closed]

    - by Stuart Gordon
    ASP.NET MVC Web Developer / London / £450pd / £25-£50,000pa / Interested contact [email protected] ! As a web developer within the engineering department, you will work with a team of enthusiastic developers building a new ASP.NET MVC platform for online products utilising exciting cutting edge technologies and methodologies (elements of Agile, Scrum, Lean, Kanban and XP) as well as developing new stand-alone web products that conform to W3C standards. Key Responsibilities and Objectives: Develop ASP.NET MVC websites utilising Frameworks and enterprise search technology. Develop and expand content management and delivery solutions. Help maintain and extend existing products. Formulate ideas and visions for new products and services. Be a proactive part of the development team and provide support and assistance to others when required. Qualification/Experience Required: The ideal candidate will have a web development background and be educated to degree level in a Computer Science/IT related course plus ASP.NET MVC experience. The successful candidate needs to be able to demonstrate commercial experience in all or most of the following skills: Essential: ASP.NET MVC with C# (Visual Studio), Castle, nHibernate, XHTML and JavaScript. Experience of Test Driven Development (TDD) using tools such as NUnit. Preferable: Experience of Continuous Integration (TeamCity and MSBuild), SQL Server (T-SQL), experience of source control such as Subversion (plus TortioseSVN), JQuery. Learn: Fluent NHibernate, S#arp Architecture, Spark (View engine), Behaviour Driven Design (BDD) using MSpec. Furthermore, you will possess good working knowledge of W3C web standards, web usability, web accessibility and understand the basics of search engine optimisation (SEO). You will also be a quick learner, have good communication skills and be a self-motivated and organised individual.

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  • How to filter node list based on the contents of another node list

    - by ~otakuj462
    Hi, I'd like to use XSLT to filter a node list based on the contents of another node list. Specifically, I'd like to filter a node list such that elements with identical id attributes are eliminated from the resulting node list. Priority should be given to one of the two node lists. The way I originally imagined implementing this was to do something like this: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1" select="$list1[not($list2[@id_from_list1 = @id_from_list2])]"/> The problem is that the context node changes in the predicate for $list2, so I don't have access to attribute @id_from_list1. Due to these scoping constraints, it's not clear to me how I would be able to refer to an attribute from the outer node list using nested predicates in this fashion. To get around the issue of the context node, I've tried to create a solution involving a for-each loop, like the following: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1"> <xsl:for-each select="$list1"> <xsl:variable name="id_from_list1" select="@id_from_list1"/> <xsl:if test="not($list2[@id_from_list2 = $id_from_list1])"> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:variable> But this doesn't work correctly. It's also not clear to me how it fails... Using the above technique, filteredList1 has a length of 1, but appears to be empty. It's strange behaviour, and anyhow, I feel there must be a more elegant approach. I'd appreciate any guidance anyone can offer. Thanks.

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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  • Lock-Free Data Structures in C++ Compare and Swap Routine

    - by slf
    In this paper: Lock-Free Data Structures (pdf) the following "Compare and Swap" fundamental is shown: template <class T> bool CAS(T* addr, T exp, T val) { if (*addr == exp) { *addr = val; return true; } return false; } And then says The entire procedure is atomic But how is that so? Is it not possible that some other actor could change the value of addr between the if and the assignment? In which case, assuming all code is using this CAS fundamental, it would be found the next time something "expected" it to be a certain way, and it wasn't. However, that doesn't change the fact that it could happen, in which case, is it still atomic? What about the other actor returning true, even when it's changes were overwritten by this actor? If that can't possibly happen, then why? I want to believe the author, so what am I missing here? I am thinking it must be obvious. My apologies in advance if this seems trivial.

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  • Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

    - by Jacob Kofoed
    Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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  • Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

    - by Aidos
    Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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