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  • How can I execute an ANTLR parser action for each item in a rule that can match more than one item?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to write an ANTLR parser rule that matches a list of things, and I want to write a parser action that can deal with each item in the list independently. Some example input for these rules is: $(A1 A2 A3) I'd like this to result in an evaluator that contains a list of three MyIdentEvaluator objects -- one for each of A1, A2, and A3. Here's a snippet of my grammar: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN op=my_ident+ { /* want to do something here for each 'my_ident'. */ /* the following seems to see only the 'A3' my_ident */ $e.Add($op.e); } RPAREN ; my_ident returns [IEvaluator e] : IDENT { $e = new MyIdentEvaluator($IDENT.text); } ; I think my_ident is defined correctly, because I can see the three MyIdentEvaluators getting created as expected for my input string, but only the last my_ident ever gets added to the list (A3 in my example input). How can I best treat each of these elements independently, either through a grammar change or a parser action change? It also occurred to me that my vocabulary for these concepts is not what it should be, so if it looks like I'm misusing a term, I probably am. EDIT in response to Wayne's comment: I tried to use op+=my_ident+. In that case, the $op in my action becomes an IList (in C#) that contains Antlr.Runtime.Tree.CommonTree instances. It does give me one entry per matched token in $op, so I see my three matches, but I don't have the MyIdentEvaluator instances that I really want. I was hoping I could then find a rule attribute in the ANTLR docs that might help with this, but nothing seemed to help me get rid of this IList. Result... Based on chollida's answer, I ended up with this which works well: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN (op=my_ident { $e.Add($op.e); } )+ RPAREN ; The Add method gets called for each match of my_ident.

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  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

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  • Should onSaveInstanceState save the "enabledness" of the views?

    - by neutrino
    Hi there, I have a preferences activity where I can change the language and the theme of my application. From there I return to the previous activity via the Back key, and I want to recreate the activity. I've managed to do that by reinitializing the layout in onResume and also calling onRestoreInstanceState from there. All the views are restored properly, with checkboxes checked if needed, edittexts filled with texts I left there previously. But I also have a button which is initially disabled, and becomes enabled only when a radiobutton is checked. The problem with it is the following: I check the radiobutton, the button becomes enabled. Then I go to settings, change the theme there, and return to the first activity. When I arrive there, the radiobutton is still checked, but the button is disabled. So it seems that the enabled/disabled state isn't being saved into the bundle, which seems counterintuitive. And I haven't found any code in the Android source that does this, too. Am I missing something, or do I have to write my own code for that?

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  • java : how to handle the design when template methods throw exception when overrided method not throw

    - by jiafu
    when coding. try to solve the puzzle: how to design the class/methods when InputStreamDigestComputor throw IOException? It seems we can't use this degisn structure due to the template method throw exception but overrided method not throw it. but if change the overrided method to throw it, will cause other subclass both throw it. So can any good suggestion for this case? abstract class DigestComputor{ String compute(DigestAlgorithm algorithm){ MessageDigest instance; try { instance = MessageDigest.getInstance(algorithm.toString()); updateMessageDigest(instance); return hex(instance.digest()); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { LOG.error(e.getMessage(), e); throw new UnsupportedOperationException(e.getMessage(), e); } } abstract void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance); } class ByteBufferDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ private final ByteBuffer byteBuffer; public ByteBufferDigestComputor(ByteBuffer byteBuffer) { super(); this.byteBuffer = byteBuffer; } @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { instance.update(byteBuffer); } } class InputStreamDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ // this place has error. due to exception. if I change the overrided method to throw it. evey caller will handle the exception. but @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { throw new IOException(); } }

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • NSTableView with columns bound to different NSArrayControllers

    - by Vyacheslav Karpukhin
    i have NSTableView and two columns in it: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; as you can see, columns bound to different NSArrayControllers. first column shows correct values, but second just shows "(" symbol. but if i swap columns like this: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; then i see values of first column (which was second in the first example) and again "(" in the second column. i don't understand that behaviour. how can i bound two array controllers to one table?

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  • pure/const functions in C++

    - by Albert
    Hi, I'm thinking of using pure/const functions more heavily in my C++ code. (pure/const attribute in GCC) However, I am curious how strict I should be about it and what could possibly break. The most obvious case are debug outputs (in whatever form, could be on cout, in some file or in some custom debug class). I probably will have a lot of functions, which don't have any side effects despite this sort of debug output. No matter if the debug output is made or not, this will absolutely have no effect on the rest of my application. Or another case I'm thinking of is the use of my own SmartPointer class. In debug mode, my SmartPointer class has some global register where it does some extra checks. If I use such an object in a pure/const function, it does have some slight side effects (in the sense that some memory probably will be different) which should not have any real side effects though (in the sense that the behaviour is in any way different). Similar also for mutexes and other stuff. I can think of many complex cases where it has some side effects (in the sense of that some memory will be different, maybe even some threads are created, some filesystem manipulation is made, etc) but has no computational difference (all those side effects could very well be left out and I would even prefer that). How does it work out in practice? If I mark such functions as pure/const, could it break anything (considering that the code is all correct)?

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • Record the timestamps of slide changes during a live Powerpoint presentation?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I am planning to implement a lecture capture solution. One of the requirements is to record both the presenter and the slideshow. The presenter is recorded with a videocamera obviously, and the slideshow will probably be captured using a tool like Camtasia. Now during playback three components are visible: the presenter, the slides and a table of contents. Clicking a chapter title in the TOC causes the video to navigate to the corresponding section. This means that a mapping must be made between chapter titles and their timestamps in the video. Usually a change of topic is accompanied with a slide change in the Powerpoint presentation. So the timestamps could be deduced from the slidechanges. However, this requires me to detect slide changes during the live presentation. And I don't know how to do that. Anyone here knows how to do detect slide changes? Is there a Powerpoint API where I can connect event handlers or something like that? I'd greatly appreciate your help! Edit This issue is no longer relevant for my current work so this question will not be updated by me. However, you are still free to help others by posting your answers/insights here.

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  • Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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  • Copying a foreign Subversion repository to keep under dependencies

    - by Jonathan Sternberg
    I want to keep dependencies for my project in our own repository, that way we have consistent libraries for the entire team to work with. For example, I want our project to use the Boost libraries. I've seen this done in the past with putting dependencies under a "vendor" or "dependencies" folder. But I still want to be able to update these dependencies. If a new feature appears in a library and we need it, I want to just be able to update that repository within our own repository. I don't want to have to recopy it and put it under version control again. I'd also like for us to have the ability to change dependencies if a small change is needed without stopping us from ever updating the library. I want the ability to do something like 'svn cp', then be able to 'svn merge' in the future. I just tried this with the boost trunk, but I'm not able to get any history using 'svn log' on the copy I made. How do I do this? What is usually done for large projects with dependencies?

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  • Manhattan Heuristic function for A-star (A*)

    - by Shawn Mclean
    I found this algorithm here. I have a problem, I cant seem to understand how to set up and pass my heuristic function. static public Path<TNode> AStar<TNode>(TNode start, TNode destination, Func<TNode, TNode, double> distance, Func<TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> { var closed = new HashSet<TNode>(); var queue = new PriorityQueue<double, Path<TNode>>(); queue.Enqueue(0, new Path<TNode>(start)); while (!queue.IsEmpty) { var path = queue.Dequeue(); if (closed.Contains(path.LastStep)) continue; if (path.LastStep.Equals(destination)) return path; closed.Add(path.LastStep); foreach (TNode n in path.LastStep.Neighbours) { double d = distance(path.LastStep, n); var newPath = path.AddStep(n, d); queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n), newPath); } } return null; } As you can see, it accepts 2 functions, a distance and a estimate function. Using the Manhattan Heuristic Distance function, I need to take 2 parameters. Do I need to modify his source and change it to accepting 2 parameters of TNode so I can pass a Manhattan estimate to it? This means the 4th param will look like this: Func<TNode, TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> and change the estimate function to: queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n, path.LastStep), newPath); My Manhattan function is: private float manhattanHeuristic(Vector3 newNode, Vector3 end) { return (Math.Abs(newNode.X - end.X) + Math.Abs(newNode.Y - end.Y)); }

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  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • Django url rewrites and passing a parameter from Javascript

    - by William T Wild
    As a bit of a followup question to my previous , I need to pass a parameter to a view. This parameter is not known until the JS executes. In my URLConf: url(r'^person/device/program/oneday/(?P<meter_id>\d+)/(?P<day_of_the_week>\w+)/$', therm_control.Get_One_Day_Of_Current_Thermostat_Schedule.as_view(), name="one-day-url"), I can pass it this URL and it works great! ( thanks to you guys). http://127.0.0.1:8000/personview/person/device/program/oneday/149778/Monday/ In My template I have this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id day_of_the_week='Monday' %}"; In my javascript: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url , dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); When this triggers it works fine except I dont necessarily want Monday all the time. If I change the javascript to this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id %}"; and then $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url + '/Monday/', dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); I get the Caught NoReverseMatch while rendering error. I assume because the URLconf still wants to rewrite to include the ?P\w+) . I seems like if I change the URL conf that breaks the abailty to find the view , and if I do what I do above it gives me the NoREverseMatch error. Any guidance would be appreciated.

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  • Attribute Address getting displayed instead of Attribute Value

    - by Manish
    I am try to create the following. I want to have one drop down menu. Depending on the option selected in the first drop down menu, options in second drop down menu will be displayed. The options in 2nd drop down menu is supposed by dynamic, i.e., options change with the change of values in first menu. Here, instead of getting the drop down menus, I am getting the following Choose your Option1: Choose your Option2: Note: I strictly don't want to use javascript. home_form.py class HomeForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): var_filter_con = kwargs.pop('filter_con', None) super(HomeForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) if var_filter_con == '***': var_empty_label = None else: var_empty_label = ' ' self.option2 = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset = db_option2.objects.filter(option1_id = var_filter_con).order_by("name"), empty_label = var_empty_label, widget = forms.Select(attrs={"onChange":'this.form.submit();'}) ) self.option1 = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset = db_option1.objects.all().order_by("name"), empty_label=None, widget=forms.Select(attrs={"onChange":'this.form.submit();'}) ) view.py def option_view(request): if request.method == 'POST': form = HomeForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data if cd.has_key('option1'): f = HomeForm(filter_con = cd.get('option1')) return render_to_response('homepage.html', {'home_form':f,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) return render_to_response('invalid_data.html', {'form':form,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: f = HomeForm(filter_con = '***') return render_to_response('homepage.html', {'home_form':f,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) homepage.html <!DOCTYPE HTML> <head> <title>Nivaaran</title> </head> <body> <form method="post" name = 'choose_opt' action=""> {% csrf_token %} Choose your Option1: {{ home_form.option1 }} <br/> Choose your Option2: {{ home_form.option2 }} </form> </body>

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • Java Swing custom shapes (2D Graphics)

    - by juFo
    I need to draw custom shapes. Now when a user clicks on several points on the panel I create a shape using a polygon. public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) { polygon.addPoint(e.getX(), e.getY()); repaint(); } But I don't know if this is the best way to draw custom shapes. It should be possible to edit a drawn shape: resize change its fill color change the stroke color copy/paste it move a single point of the polygon ... I have seen people creating an own class implementing the Shape class and using a GeneralPath. But again I have no idea if this is a good way. Now I can create my own shape with a polygon (or with a GeneralPath) but I have no clue how to attach all the edit functions to my own shape (the edit functions I mean the resize, move, etc from above). I hope somebody could show me a way to do this or maybe write a little bit of code to demonstrate this. Thanks in advance!!

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  • Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

    - by Chris Lomont
    I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • Magento 1.4 - how to show html on product view?

    - by Sam
    Hi All The new version of Magento, 1.4, has it's own WYSIWYG editor, which can be enabled for any product attribute. However, if it is enabled, say for the additional info attribute, if you view the product page the html will be escaped, so you see all the tags (< p , < ul etc). If you change the following in template/catalog/product/view.phtml, you can get the "Quick Overview" and "Additional Information" sections to correctly show the html: <?php echo nl2br($this->htmlEscape($_product->getShortDescription())) ?> to <?php echo $_product->getShortDescription() ?> However, the additional info section is added via template/catalog/product/view/attributes.phtml using the following line, and I can't figure out how to get it to show the html correctly: <?php echo $_helper->productAttribute($_product, $_data['value'], $_data['code']) ?> This references Mage_Catalog_Block_Product_View_Attributes, and if I go to that file and change the following, it works: $value = $this->htmlEscape($value); to $value = value; But is there anyway to do this without overiding this core file with a local version?

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