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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • Thread sleep and thread join.

    - by Dhruv Gairola
    hi guys, if i put a thread to sleep in a loop, netbeans gives me a caution saying Invoking Thread.sleep in loop can cause performance problems. However, if i were to replace the sleep with join, no such caution is given. Both versions compile and work fine tho. My code is below (check the last few lines for "Thread.sleep() vs t.join()"). public class Test{ //Display a message, preceded by the name of the current thread static void threadMessage(String message) { String threadName = Thread.currentThread().getName(); System.out.format("%s: %s%n", threadName, message); } private static class MessageLoop implements Runnable { public void run() { String importantInfo[] = { "Mares eat oats", "Does eat oats", "Little lambs eat ivy", "A kid will eat ivy too" }; try { for (int i = 0; i < importantInfo.length; i++) { //Pause for 4 seconds Thread.sleep(4000); //Print a message threadMessage(importantInfo[i]); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { threadMessage("I wasn't done!"); } } } public static void main(String args[]) throws InterruptedException { //Delay, in milliseconds before we interrupt MessageLoop //thread (default one hour). long patience = 1000 * 60 * 60; //If command line argument present, gives patience in seconds. if (args.length > 0) { try { patience = Long.parseLong(args[0]) * 1000; } catch (NumberFormatException e) { System.err.println("Argument must be an integer."); System.exit(1); } } threadMessage("Starting MessageLoop thread"); long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); Thread t = new Thread(new MessageLoop()); t.start(); threadMessage("Waiting for MessageLoop thread to finish"); //loop until MessageLoop thread exits while (t.isAlive()) { threadMessage("Still waiting..."); //Wait maximum of 1 second for MessageLoop thread to //finish. /*******LOOK HERE**********************/ Thread.sleep(1000);//issues caution unlike t.join(1000) /**************************************/ if (((System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime) > patience) && t.isAlive()) { threadMessage("Tired of waiting!"); t.interrupt(); //Shouldn't be long now -- wait indefinitely t.join(); } } threadMessage("Finally!"); } } As i understand it, join waits for the other thread to complete, but in this case, arent both sleep and join doing the same thing? Then why does netbeans throw the caution?

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  • ASP.NET Repeater Control Not Working in FireFox

    - by Robert Hyland
    everyone: I have an ASP.NET Application that uses a Repeater control to display a thumbnail gallery. When the user mouses over one of the thumbnails, the main image will present that thumbnail. It uses a Repeater control in a UserControl like this: <asp:Image ID="pictureImage" runat="server" Visible="true" Width="200px" /> <asp:Repeater ID="rpProductImages" runat="server" Visible="false"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <div style="float: left" id="smallImage" runat="server"> <div class="smallAltImage" onmouseover="showImage();" style="border: 1px solid #999999; margin: 5px 5px 5px 4px; width: 45px; height: 45px; background-position: center; background-repeat: no-repeat; background-image: url('<%#ResolveClientUrl(productImagesPath)%><%# String.Format("{0}", DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "ImageName")) %>');"> </div> <asp:Label ID="lblImageName" runat="server" Visible="false"><%# Eval("ImageName")%></asp:Label> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then, in a javascript file, this: function showImage(){ // Get thumbnail path. var img = (this.style.backgroundImage).substring(4, (this.style.backgroundImage).length - 1); $('#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_ProductDetails1_pictureImage').attr('src', img); } It works fine in IE9, displaying the fully-qualified path for the image. In FireFox8, however, the img src looks like this: ""ProductImages/K42JY_500.jpg"" ... with two-sets of quotes! I think that the Repeater control is the central cause of the problem but I Googled and Googled again and could not find anyone that has experienced this similar situation! In fact, I'll PayPal anyone who can help me solve this with $50.00 (can't you tell I'm in the XMAS spirit, here?!) Any help is appreciated and "Thank You" in advance!

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • How does System.TraceListener prepend message with process name?

    - by btlog
    I have been looking at using System.Diagnostics.Trace for doing logging is a very basic app. Generally it does all I need it to do. The downside is that if I call Trace.TraceInformation("Some info"); The output is "SomeApp.Exe Information: 0: Some info". Initally this entertained me but no longer. I would like to just output "Some info" to console. So I thought writing a cusom TraceListener, rather than using the inbuilt ConsoleTraceListener, would solve the problem. I can see a specific format that I want all the text after the second colon. Here is my attempt to see if this would work. class LogTraceListener : TraceListener { public override void Write(string message) { int firstColon = message.IndexOf(":"); int secondColon = message.IndexOf(":", firstColon + 1); Console.Write(message); } public override void WriteLine(string message) { int firstColon = message.IndexOf(":"); int secondColon = message.IndexOf(":", firstColon + 1); Console.WriteLine(message); } } If I output the value of firstColon it is always -1. If I put a break point the message is always just "Some info". Where does all the other information come from? So I had a look at the call stack at the point just before Console.WriteLine was called. The method that called my WriteLine method is: System.dll!System.Diagnostics.TraceListener.TraceEvent(System.Diagnostics.TraceEventCache eventCache, string source, System.Diagnostics.TraceEventType eventType, int id, string message) + 0x33 bytes When I use Reflector to look at this message it all seems pretty straight forward. I can't see any code that changes the value of the string after I have sent it to Console.WriteLine. The only method that could posibly change the underlying string value is a call to UnsafeNativeMethods.EventWriteString which has a parameter that is a pointer to the message. Does anyone understand what is going on here and whether I can change the output to be just my message with out the additional fluff. It seems like evil magic that I can pass a string "Some info" to Console.WriteLine (or any other method for that matter) and the string that output is different.

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  • StreamWriter appends random data

    - by void
    Hi I'm seeing odd behaviour using the StreamWriter class writing extra data to a file using this code: public void WriteToCSV(string filename) { StreamWriter streamWriter = null; try { streamWriter = new StreamWriter(filename); Log.Info("Writing CSV report header information ... "); streamWriter.WriteLine("\"{0}\",\"{1}\",\"{2}\",\"{3}\"", ((int)CSVRecordType.Header).ToString("D2", CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), m_InputFilename, m_LoadStartDate, m_LoadEndDate); int recordCount = 0; if (SummarySection) { Log.Info("Writing CSV report summary section ... "); foreach (KeyValuePair<KeyValuePair<LoadStatus, string>, CategoryResult> categoryResult in m_DataLoadResult.DataLoadResults) { streamWriter.WriteLine("\"{0}\",\"{1}\",\"{2}\",\"{3}\"", ((int)CSVRecordType.Summary).ToString("D2", CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), categoryResult.Value.StatusString, categoryResult.Value.Count.ToString(CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), categoryResult.Value.Category); recordCount++; } } Log.Info("Writing CSV report cases section ... "); foreach (KeyValuePair<KeyValuePair<LoadStatus, string>, CategoryResult> categoryResult in m_DataLoadResult.DataLoadResults) { foreach (CaseLoadResult result in categoryResult.Value.CaseLoadResults) { if ((LoadStatus.Success == result.Status && SuccessCases) || (LoadStatus.Warnings == result.Status && WarningCases) || (LoadStatus.Failure == result.Status && FailureCases) || (LoadStatus.NotProcessed == result.Status && NotProcessedCases)) { streamWriter.Write("\"{0}\",\"{1}\",\"{2}\",\"{3}\",\"{4}\"", ((int)CSVRecordType.Result).ToString("D2", CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), result.Status, result.UniqueId, result.Category, result.ClassicReference); if (RawResponse) { streamWriter.Write(",\"{0}\"", result.ResponseXml); } streamWriter.WriteLine(); recordCount++; } } } streamWriter.WriteLine("\"{0}\",\"{1}\"", ((int)CSVRecordType.Count).ToString("D2", CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), recordCount); Log.Info("CSV report written to '{0}'", fileName); } catch (IOException execption) { string errorMessage = string.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, "Unable to write XML report to '{0}'", fileName); Log.Error(errorMessage); Log.Error(exception.Message); throw new MyException(errorMessage, exception); } finally { if (null != streamWriter) { streamWriter.Close(); } } } The file produced contains a set of records on each line 0 to N, for example: [Record Zero] [Record One] ... [Record N] However the file produced either contains nulls or incomplete records from further up the file appended to the end. For example: [Record Zero] [Record One] ... [Record N] [Lots of nulls] or [Record Zero] [Record One] ... [Record N] [Half complete records] This also happens in separate pieces of code that also use the StreamWriter class. Furthermore, the files produced all have sizes that are multiples of 1024. I've been unable to reproduce this behaviour on any other machine and have tried recreating the environment. Previous versions of the application didn't exhibite this behaviour despite having the same code for the methods in question. EDIT: Added extra code.

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

    - by Jim Jones
    Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

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  • Recursively parse XmlDOcument

    - by user177883
    I have an XML document as follows: <directory> <file><monitored>0</monitored> <xferStatus>1</xferStatus> <name>test1.txt</name> <size>7</size> <created>03/31/10 11:30:02 AM</created> <modified>03/31/10 11:30:00 AM</modified> <tPathList><tPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/cds/testing/test1.txt</tPath> </tPathList> <tPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/cds/testing/test1.txt</tPath> <oPathList><oPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/w9m3i4q9/test1.txt</oPath> </oPathList> <oPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/w9m3i4q9/test1.txt</oPath> <aPath></aPath> </file> <file><monitored>0</monitored> <xferStatus>1</xferStatus> <name>GenericDAO.cs</name> <size>1843</size> <created>03/31/10 11:41:10 AM</created> <modified>03/31/10 11:41:10 AM</modified> <tPathList><tPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/cds/testing/GenericDAO.cs</tPath> </tPathList> <tPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/cds/testing/GenericDAO.cs</tPath> <oPathList><oPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/w9m3i4q9/GenericDAO.cs</oPath> </oPathList> <oPath>http://hwcdn.net/p2f4h2b5/w9m3i4q9/GenericDAO.cs</oPath> <aPath></aPath> </file> <nEntries>2</nEntries> </directory> Well there are two files in the document, how can i recursively or iteratively get the files, sizes, etc.. The response was in string format, and converted to XML as follows : XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.LoadXml(response);

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  • DLL configuration file in asp.net site

    - by Tominator
    Hi, I've made a .net 2.0 librabry project, that results in a dll. I've made an app.config file in my project, with settings used in the dll, with the intention that they can be changed later. I'm attempting to use the dll in an asp.net web application now, so I made the reference to my other project's output, and I see that the dll is copied over to the site's bin folder, and everything works. However, the configuration file is not copied. When I manually copy the app.config and rename it to myDll.config, it has no influence. The contents of the config file is approximately this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="applicationSettings" type="System.Configuration.ApplicationSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="myDLL.My.MySettings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings> <myDLL.My.MySettings> <setting name="myDLL_webservice_Service" serializeAs="String"> <value>https://myhost/Service.asmx</value> </setting> <setting name="ID" serializeAs="String"> <value>6</value> </setting> </myDLL.My.MySettings> </applicationSettings> </configuration> And I use its settings in the dll with this (vb.net code): Private _id As Long = My.Settings.ID How can I put my config information somewhere so it can be used? In the web.config of the site application? That has only the appSettings section, and it uses the syntax. It doesn't appear to work though. In a custom file format that I create and use? Not that pretty..

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  • C# Windows Service Multiple Config Files

    - by Goober
    Quick Question Is it possible to have more than 1 config file in a windows service? Or is there some way I can merge them at run time? Scenario Currently I have two config files containing the below contents. After I build and install my Windows Service, I can't get my custom XML Parser class to read the content because it keeps pointing to the wrong config file, even though I am using a few lines of code to ensure it gets the right name of the config file I need to access. ALSO When I navigate to the folder in which the service is installed, there is only sign of the normal APP.Config file, and no sign of the custom config file. (I have even set the normal ones properties to "Do Not Copy" and the custom ones properties to "Copy Always"). Config File Determination Code string settingsFile = String.Format("{0}.exe.config", System.AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().Name); CUSTOM CONFIG File <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <servers> <SV066930> <add name="Name" value = "SV066930" /> <processes> <SimonTest1> <add name="ProcessName" value="notepad.exe" /> <add name="CommandLine" value="C:\\WINDOWS\\system32\\notepad.exe C:\\WINDOWS\\Profiles\\TA2TOF1\\Desktop\\SimonTest1.txt" /> </SimonTest1> </processes> </SV066930> </servers> </configuration> NORMAL APP.CONFIG File <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=xxxxxxxxxxx" /> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="DB" connectionString="Data Source=etc......" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration>

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  • What are the steps to convert this function to a model/controller in Zend Framework?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm learning Zend Framework MVC, and I have a website that is mainly static php pages. However one of the pages is using functions, etc, and I'm trying to figure out what the process is for converting this to an OOP setup. Within the <body> I have this function (and more, but this is the first function): function filterEventDetails($contentText) { $data = array(); foreach($contentText as $row) { if(strstr($row, 'When: ')) { ##cleaning "when" string to get date in the format "May 28, 2009"## $data['duration'] = str_replace('When: ','',$row); list($when, ) = explode(' to ',$data['duration']); $data['when'] = substr($when,4); if(strlen($data['when'])>13) $data['when'] = trim(str_replace(strrchr($data['when'], ' '),'',$data['when'])); $data['duration'] = substr($data['duration'], 0, strlen($data['duration'])-4); //trimming time zone identifier (UTC etc.) } if(strstr($row, 'Where: ')) { $data['where'] = str_replace('Where: ','',$row); //pr($row); //$where = strstr($row, 'Where: '); //pr($where); } if(strstr($row, 'Event Description: ')) { $event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$row); //$event_desc = strstr($row, 'Event Description: '); ## Filtering event description and extracting venue, ticket urls etc from it. //$event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$contentText[3]); $event_desc_array = explode('|',$event_desc); array_walk($event_desc_array,'get_desc_second_part'); //pr($event_desc_array); $data['venue_url'] = $event_desc_array[0]; $data['details'] = $event_desc_array[1]; $data['tickets_url'] = $event_desc_array[2]; $data['tickets_button'] = $event_desc_array[3]; $data['facebook_url'] = $event_desc_array[4]; $data['facebook_icon'] = $event_desc_array[5]; } } return $data; } ?> So right now I have this in my example.phtml view page. I understand this needs to be a model and acted on by the controller, but I'm really not sure where to start with this conversion? This is a function tht is taking info from a Google calendar and parsing it for the view. Thanks for any help!

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  • Difference between two datetime strings: setting timezone

    - by Frank Nwoko
    //Difference between 2 dates This function works well but display wrong time format. Pls how can I change the time of this function from GMT to GMT+1? Displays 15hrs 22mins instead of 16hrs 22mins. Thanks function get_date_diff($start, $end="NOW") { $sdate = strtotime($start); $edate = strtotime($end); $timeshift = ""; $time = $edate - $sdate; if($time>=0 && $time<=59) { // Seconds $timeshift = $time.' seconds '; } elseif($time>=60 && $time<=3599) { // Minutes + Seconds $pmin = ($edate - $sdate) / 60; $premin = explode('.', $pmin); $presec = $pmin-$premin[0]; $sec = $presec*60; $timeshift = $premin[0].' min '.round($sec,0).' sec '."<b>ago</b>"; } elseif($time>=3600 && $time<=86399) { // Hours + Minutes $phour = ($edate - $sdate) / 3600; $prehour = explode('.',$phour); $premin = $phour-$prehour[0]; $min = explode('.',$premin*60); $presec = '0.'.$min[1]; $sec = $presec*60; $timeshift = $prehour[0].' hrs '.$min[0].' min '.round($sec,0).' sec '."<b>ago</b>"; } elseif($time>=86400) { // Days + Hours + Minutes $pday = ($edate - $sdate) / 86400; $preday = explode('.',$pday); $phour = $pday-$preday[0]; $prehour = explode('.',$phour*24); $premin = ($phour*24)-$prehour[0]; $min = explode('.',$premin*60); $presec = '0.'.$min[1]; $sec = $presec*60; $timeshift = $preday[0].' days '.$prehour[0].' hrs '.$min[0].' min '.round($sec,0).' sec '."<b>ago</b>"; } return $timeshift; }

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  • Custom WM profile - issues with codec

    - by dominolog
    Hello I create my custom WM encoder profile. The reason I need a custom, non standard WM profile is that I need that the video resolution must be the same as input video stream. I created below profile but after I encode my video and audio with it, the WMP while loading says that the WMV1 codec is not found and prompts me for downloading WM encoder codecs. After installing them, the problem still exists. <profile version="589824" storageformat="1" name="mReplay Hi-End profile; WM Format 9; Audio &amp; Video" description="Streams: 1 audio 1 video"> <streamconfig majortype="{73647561-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="1" streamname="Audio Stream" inputname="Audio409" bitrate="320008" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="" rfc1766langid="en-us" > <wmmediatype subtype="{00000161-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="1" btemporalcompression="0" lsamplesize="14861"> <waveformatex wFormatTag="353" nChannels="2" nSamplesPerSec="44100" nAvgBytesPerSec="40001" nBlockAlign="14861" wBitsPerSample="16" codecdata="008800000F0035E80000"/> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamconfig majortype="{73646976-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="2" streamname="Video Stream" inputname="Video409" bitrate="100000" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="AU" rfc1766langid="en-us" vbrenabled="1" vbrquality="95" bitratemax="0" bufferwindowmax="0"> <videomediaprops maxkeyframespacing="80000000" quality="100"/> <wmmediatype subtype="{31564D57-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="0" btemporalcompression="1" lsamplesize="0"> <videoinfoheader dwbitrate="100000" dwbiterrorrate="0" avgtimeperframe="400000"> <rcsource left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <rctarget left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <bitmapinfoheader biwidth="0" biheight="0" biplanes="1" bibitcount="24" bicompression="WMV1" bisizeimage="0" bixpelspermeter="0" biypelspermeter="0" biclrused="0" biclrimportant="0"/> </videoinfoheader> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamprioritization> <stream number="1" mandatory="0"/> <stream number="2" mandatory="0"/> </streamprioritization> </profile>

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  • The 80 column limit, still useful?

    - by Tim Post
    Related: While coding, how many columns do you format for? Is there a valid reason for enforcing a maximum width of 80 characters in a code file, this day and age? I mostly use C, however this question is language agnostic. Its also subjective, so I'll tag it as such. Many individual projects set their own various coding standards, a guide to adjust your coding style. Many enforce an 80 column limit on code, i.e. don't force a dumb 80 x 25 terminal to wrap your lines in someone else's editor of choice if they are stuck with such a display, don't force them to turn off wrapping. Both private and open source projects usually have some style guidelines. My question is, in this day and age, is that requirement more of a pest than a helper? Does anyone still login via the local console with no framebuffer and actually edit code? If so, how often and why cant you use SSH? I help to manage a few open source projects, I was considering extending this limit to 110 columns, but I wanted to get feedback first. So, any feedback is appreciated. I can see the need to make certain OUTPUT of programs (i.e. a --help /h display) 80 columns or less, but I really don't see the need to force people to break up code under 110 columns long into 2 lines, when its easier to read on one line. I can also see the case for adhering to an 80 column limit if you're writing code that will be used on micro controllers that have to be serviced in the field with a god-knows-what terminal emulator. Beyond that, what are your thoughts? Edit: This is not an exact duplicate. I am asking very specific questions, such as how many people are actually still using such a display. I am also not asking "what is a good column limit", I'm proposing one and hoping to gather feedback. Beyond that, I'm also citing cases where the 80 column limit is still a good idea. I don't want a guide to my own "c-style", I'm hoping to adjust standards for several projects. If the duplicate in question had answered all of my questions, I would not have posted this one :) That will teach me to mention it next time. Edit 2 question |= COMMUNITY_WIKI

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  • Benchmark of Java Try/Catch Block

    - by hectorg87
    I know that going into a catch block has some significance cost when executing a program, however, I was wondering if entering a try{} block also had any impact so I started looking for an answer in google with many opinions, but no benchmarking at all. Some answers I found were: Java try/catch performance, is it recommended to keep what is inside the try clause to a minimum? Try Catch Performance Java Java try catch blocks However they didn't answer my question with facts, so I decided to try it for myself. Here's what I did. I have a csv file with this format: host;ip;number;date;status;email;uid;name;lastname;promo_code; where everything after status is optional and will not even have the corresponding ; , so when parsing a validation has to be done to see if the value is there, here's where the try/catch issue came to my mind. The current code that in inherited in my company does this: StringTokenizer st=new StringTokenizer(line,";"); String host = st.nextToken(); String ip = st.nextToken(); String number = st.nextToken(); String date = st.nextToken(); String status = st.nextToken(); String email = ""; try{ email = st.nextToken(); }catch(NoSuchElementException e){ email = ""; } and it repeats what it's done for email with uid, name, lastname and promo_code. and I changed everything to: if(st.hasMoreTokens()){ email = st.nextToken(); } and in fact it performs faster. When parsing a file that doesn't have the optional columns. Here are the average times: --- Trying:122 milliseconds --- Checking:33 milliseconds however, here's what confused me and the reason I'm asking: When running the example with values for the optional columns in all 8000 lines of the CSV, the if() version still performs better than the try/catch version, so my question is Does really the try block does not have any performance impact on my code? The average times for this example are: --- Trying:105 milliseconds --- Checking:43 milliseconds Can somebody explain what's going on here? Thanks a lot

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  • symfony2.4 ajax call update or set session issues

    - by user3797283
    i have an issue with symfony2 when i use ajax to set session, hope u pro guys can help me. here is my controller code: //show month event list public function indexAction() { if ($this->getRequest()->isXmlHttpRequest()) { $paging = $this->getRequest()->get("nom"); $session = $this->getRequest()->getSession(); if ($paging) { //if $paging is set, then that's a click pager ajax event //(not 1st time load) $year = $paging; $session->set('year', $year); } else { //$paging is null, it's the first time page load $year = (new \DateTime())->format("Y"); $session->set('year', $year); } $repository = $this ->getDoctrine() ->getManager() ->getRepository('HycAccountBundle:MonthEvent'); $annuallist = $repository->monthListByYear($year); $jsonlist = json_encode($annuallist); return new Response($jsonlist); } //this part is to return entity to twig for using after $em = $this->getDoctrine()->getManager(); $allimages = $em->getRepository('HycAccountBundle:TypeImage') ->findAll(); return $this->render('HycAccountBundle:Account:index.html.twig', array('allimages' => $allimages)); } here is my twig code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $(document).ready(function (){ jQuery.ajax({ type: 'GET', cache: false, url: "{{ path('hyc_account_homepage') }}", success: function(data, textStatus, jqXHR) { alert({{app.session.get('year')}}); //!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! //!!!!!!!!! here i can get year 2014 !!!!!!!!!!!!!! //!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! }, error:function (){ alert('error!'); } }); return false; }); }); </script> but when i click pager part, for example, i click year 2013, then ajax call will return a number (data: 'nom=' + num) to controller, but there i reset session value to num normally, but i cant get alert correct session (it's always 2014 as the 1st time) here is the code ajax, almost same as above: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //after paging, reload month $('#page-selection').bootpag({ total: 3000, page: 2014, maxVisible: 5 }).on('page', function(event, num){ jQuery.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: "{{ path('hyc_account_homepage') }}", data: 'nom=' + num, success: function(data, textStatus, jqXHR) { alert({{app.session.get('year')}}); //!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! //here is the problem, it's always 2014, not set again !!!!!!!! //!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! }, error:function (){ alert('error!'); } }); return false; }); }); </script> hope u guys help me, thanks in advance, i've tried for almost 1 day and looked for almost all in google but find nothing = =

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  • Delegates does not work properly

    - by Warrior
    I am new to iPhone development. I am converting the date to the desired format and set it to the delegate and get its value in the another view. The session restarts when I tried to get the value from delegate. If I set the original date and not the formatted date in the set delegate, then i able to get the value in the another view. If I also give any static string value, then also I am able to the static string value back. Only the formatted date which is string is set then the session restarts. If i print and check the value of the formatted date it prints the correct formatted date only.Please help me out.Here is my code for date conversion NSString *dateval=[[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"date"]; NSDateFormatter *inputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [inputFormatter setDateFormat:@"EEE, MMM dd, yyyy"]; NSDate *inputDate = [inputFormatter dateFromString:dateval]; NSDateFormatter *outputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [outputFormatter setDateFormat:@"MMMM dd"]; NSString *outputDate = [outputFormatter stringFromDate:inputDate]; AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; [delegate setCurrentDates:outputDate]; EDIT: This is displayed in console inside view did load [Session started at 2010-04-21 19:12:53 +0530.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 4216. (gdb) In another view - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"inside view did load"); AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; NSString *titleValue=[delegate getCurrentDates]; self.navigationItem.title =titleValue ; } The get does not work properly.It works fine if i give any static string or the "dateval". Thanks.

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  • JSON image viewer not working in firefox

    - by jarga
    I have tried to find out why JSON is not working in Firefox all over this forum and the internet. It works on tablets, ie, safari. It works on my desktop in firefox. It only does not work after uploading I've tried a few things (commented out), such as mimeType with no solution. I have tried using the $.ajax with no better luck. Firefox had no javascript errors. I'm using jQuery 1.7. Console.log is printing out the data. $(document).ready(function(){ jQuery.support.cors = true; //$.ajaxSetup({ mimeType: "application/json" }); /*$.ajaxSetup({ scriptCharset: "utf-8" , contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8"}); */ // loading pictures $.getJSON("intro.json?format=json", function(data){ var links = ''; var imageload = ''; var title = ''; console.log(data) $.each(data, function(key, item){ links += ' <a href=' + item.image + '>' + key + '</a>'; imageload += '<img src="' + item.image + ' " />'; title += item.alt; }); $('.introCon').html(imageload); $('.introCon img').hide(); $('.introCon img:last').fadeIn(500); $('.introCon img').fadeIn(1000); rotatePics(2); }); }); function rotatePics(currentPhoto) { var numberOfPhotos = $('.introCon img').length; currentPhoto = currentPhoto % numberOfPhotos; $('.introCon img').eq(currentPhoto).fadeOut( function() { // re-order the z-index $('.introCon img').each(function(i) { $(this).css( 'zIndex', ((numberOfPhotos - i) + currentPhoto) % numberOfPhotos ); }); $(this).show(); setTimeout(function() {rotatePics(++currentPhoto);}, 3000); }); } Here is the simple JSON from a separate file. { "1" : { "image" : "portfolio/chrpic.png", "alt" : "Blah.", "detail": "Quartz"}, "2" : { "image" : "portfolio/mysspic.png", "alt" : "Landing page.", "detail": "Container"}, "3" : { "image" : "portfolio/decode-pic3.png", "alt" : "Decode this.", "detail": "Landing page 2"}, "4" : { "image" : "portfolio/simple-think-pic.png", "alt" : "Simple Think", "detail": "simpilify your life"} }

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  • Casting between variant and bstr_t causing inconsisten crash in Windows 2008

    - by user58470
    We have a C# application, calling a simple C++ wrapper class, that then calls an existing C++ DLL. The C++ code is all VC++ 6.0. We are getting inconsistent behaviour, but the crash, when it happens, always happens within the C++ wrapper DLL, and always in the same spot (have confirmed using painful logging statements). It never happens on any environment except on Windows 2008, so we suspect some bad-but-not-fatal memory trashing is going on that somehow Windows 2008 is being more mindful of. Here's the relevant code, if anyone has any ideas on why this might be crashing it would be much appreciated. We've been tearing our hair out for a few days and project timelines are slipping all for the want of being able to return a simple string back to C#... I've been told we've tried setting the VARIANT vresult using VariantInit, and clearing it when we are done with VariantClear, but that didn't help. // JobMgrDll.cpp : Defines the entry point for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "JobMgrDll.h" #include "jobmgr.h" CString gcontext; CString guser; CString ghost; CString glog; JOBMGRDLL_API int nJobMgrDll=0; extern "C" JOBMGRDLL_API char* perform_billcalc(char* cmd, char* context, char* user,char* host,BSTR* log,int* loglen) { char* result = new char[1000]; memset(result,0,999); result[999] = '\0'; bstr_t bt_command = cmd; UUID uuid = __uuidof(BRLib::Rules); VARIANT vresult; char *p_rv; gcontext = context; guser = user; ghost = host; write_log("execute_job"); p_rv = execute_job(uuid, "none", bt_command, &vresult); write_log("DONE execute_job"); CString message; write_log ("Intializing bstr_t with variant"); // WE ALWAYS GET HERE bstr_t res(vresult); //message.Format("%s result = %s",p_rv,res); //write_log(message); write_log("copying Result"); // WE DON'T ALWAYS GET HERE, BUT SOMETIMES WE DO strcpy(result,(char*)res); write_log(CString(result)); *loglen = glog.GetLength(); *log = glog.AllocSysString(); return result; } Again, any ideas much, much appreciated.

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • Jquery Autocomplete after space press

    - by Limpep
    I am having an issue with my auto-complete feature such as when a user presses the space button the auto-complete doesn't show up again. Here is my code script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString) { if(inputString.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions').hide(); } else { $.post("autocomplete.php", { queryString: ""+inputString+"" }, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#tag').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions').hide();", 200); } here my php code <?php require_once('config.php'); $db = new mysqli(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD,DB_DATABASE); if(!$db) { // Show error if we cannot connect. echo 'ERROR: Could not connect to the database.'; } else { // Is there a posted query string? if(isset($_POST['queryString'])) { $queryString = $db->real_escape_string($_POST['queryString']); // Is the string length greater than 0? if(strlen($queryString) >0) { // Run the query: We use LIKE '$queryString%' // The percentage sign is a wild-card, in my example of countries it works like this... // $queryString = 'Uni'; // Returned data = 'United States, United Kindom'; $query = $db->query("SELECT name FROM tag WHERE name LIKE '$queryString%' ORDER BY name LIMIT 10"); if($query) { // While there are results loop through them - fetching an Object (i like PHP5 btw!). while ($result = $query ->fetch_object()) { // Format the results, im using <li> for the list, you can change it. // The onClick function fills the textbox with the result. echo '<li onClick="fill(\''.$result->name.'\');">'.$result->name.'</li>'; } } else { echo 'ERROR: There was a problem with the query.'; } } else { // Dont do anything. } // There is a queryString. } else { echo 'There should be no direct access to this script!'; } } ? Any help would be great, thanks.

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  • Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

    - by J M 4
    I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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