Search Results

Search found 32116 results on 1285 pages for 'object object mapping'.

Page 474/1285 | < Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >

  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

    Read the article

  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

    Read the article

  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

    Read the article

  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

    Read the article

  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an webapp with Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

    Read the article

  • Load image dynamically on Silverlight

    - by FelixMM
    I have a Silverlight app that has to load an image dynamically, depending on the image name. The approach that im taking right now is passing the image name by query string to the page and passing that as a param to the Silverlight objet tag This is the query string passed Response.Redirect("Build.aspx?img=" + this.PictureUploader.PostedFile.FileName; And I try to pass it to Silverlight like this: <object id="SilverlightObject" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="Silverlight/iMapsSL.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40624.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <param name="image" value="<%# Request.QueryString["img"] %>" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40624.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe> in the last param tag with name=image value= Requerst.QueryString I catch the image inside the Silverlight app like this private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { string pictureName = ""; if (e.InitParams != null && e.InitParams.Count > 0) { pictureName = e.InitParams["image"]; this.RootVisual = new MainPage(pictureName); } else { this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } } And when MainPage starts, I set the image source of the Image control like this this.Image.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(pictureName, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); But Silverlight loads without an image, any help someone?

    Read the article

  • Run an ActiveX through Web

    - by balexandre
    We have a webpage that works fine on the local computer as it uses a COM Object that is only available in the local computer. the program generates HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function ResizeControl(){Y = document.body.clientHeight;if (Y < 1) {Y = 1}X = document.body.clientWidth;if (X < 1) {X = 1}ActiveX.width = X;ActiveX.height = Y} --> </script> <style type="text/css">html, body { overflow:hidden; } </style> </head> <body OnResize="ResizeControl()" OnLoad="ResizeControl()" leftmargin="0" topmargin="0" rightmargin="0" bottommargin="0"> <object id="ActiveX" classid="CLSID:8EC68701-329D-4567-BCB5-9EE4BA43D358" width="14" height="14"> <PARAM NAME="tabName" VALUE="Complaints"> </object> </body> </html> and shows fine My question is, How can we port this into a web environment? As the Delphi developer has no idea and I'm not a Delphi fellow. I want to be able to use this "webpage" on a web address http://INTRANET/mysite/thispage.html Any idea, any though, any door to open is greatly appreciate :)

    Read the article

  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

    Read the article

  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

    Read the article

  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

    Read the article

  • Show PDF in HTML in web

    - by Anil
    Hi, I'm using the object tag to render PDF in HTML, but I'm doing it in MVC like this: <object data="/JDLCustomer/GetPDFData?projID=<%=ViewData["ProjectID"]%>&folder=<%=ViewData["Folder"] %>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900"> </object> and Controller/Action is public void GetPDFData(string projID, Project_Thin.Folders folder) { Highmark.BLL.Models.Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(folder, false); if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").ToList(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Highmark.BLL.PDF.JDLCustomerPDF pdfObj = new JDLCustomerPDF(ff, proj.SimpleDbID); byte[] bArr = pdfObj.GetPDF(Response.OutputStream); pdfObj = null; Response.ContentType = "application/" + System.IO.Path.GetExtension("TakeOffPlans").Replace(".", ""); Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=\"TakeOffPlans\""); Response.BinaryWrite(bArr); Response.Flush(); } } The problem is, as I'm downloading data first from server and then return the byte data, it is taking some time in downloading, so I want to show some kind of progress to show processing. Please help me on this.

    Read the article

  • faster way to change xml to array(grails to flex)

    - by Anthony Umpad
    I have a large xml passed from grails to flex. When flex receives the xml, it converts the xml into an associative array object. Given the large xml file, it takes too long to complete the loop, is there any way in flex to make conversion faster? Below is my sample code. <xml> <car> <model>Vios</model> <type>Sedan</type> <color>Blue</color> </car> <car> <model>Camry</model> <type>Luxury</type> <color>Black</color> </car> </xml> *converted to the flex associative array below.* [Vios].type = Sedan .color = Blue [Camry].type = Luxury .color = Black *Below is a code I used in flex to convert the xml to the associative array object* var tempXML=xml.children() var tempArray:Array= new Array() for(var i:int=0;i<tempXML.length();i++) { tempArray[tempXML[i].@model]= new Object(); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].color = tempXML[i][email protected](); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].type = tempXML[i][email protected](); }

    Read the article

  • Getting an "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

    Read the article

  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

    Read the article

  • Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

    - by Adam
    I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

    Read the article

  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

    Read the article

  • MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

    Read the article

  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

    Read the article

  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >