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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • Console Application Structure

    - by Paul Fox
    I've written several .Net Console Applications over the past 6 months and we have many more throughout different projects in our organization. I generally stick to the same standard format/structure for my Console Applications. Unfortunately, many of our console applications do not. I have been looking into ways of standardizing the structure of these Console Applications. I would also like to provide a framework for the basic structure of a Console Application and provide easy access to standard ways of handling things such as argument passing, logging, etc. Can anyone suggest Best Practices for addressing these concerns? I have been reading this MSDN article on Console Applications in .Net which suggests a Design Pattern for Console Apps. The example uses a Template Method pattern to handle some of the concerns I listed earlier. Two negatives of using this approach are listed in the article. Ending up with twice as many classes Having many simple, similar classes Can anyone suggest better, or more standard, ways of handling this? What about listing additional negatives with this approach?

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  • Getting a type for a template instantiation?

    - by ebo
    I have the following situation: I have a object of type MyClass, which has a method to cast itself to it's base class. The class includes a typedef for it's base class and a method to do the downcast. template <class T, class B> class BaseClass; template <class T> class NoAccess; template <class T> class MyClass : public BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > { private: typedef BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > base; public: base &to_base(); }; I need to pass the result of a base call to a functor Operator: template <class Y> class Operator { Operator(Y &x); }; Operator<???> op(myobject.to_base()); Is there a easy way to fill the ??? provided that I do not want to use NoAccess?

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  • Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

    - by Brian Kennedy
    So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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  • Searching the head of CVS

    - by bobtheowl2
    I'm looking for a 'relatively' easy way to search through cvs to look for a particular string in the HEAD revisions. I realize the way CVS stores versions makes this difficult. But I'm trying to come up with some script to allow this search (performance is not expected here). Currently this command will output the contents of the head files cvs co -r HEAD -p stdout = file contents (to be grepped for the search string) stderr = the file name/header info (to be grepped for the line that signifies file name). Ideally, I want to grep the contents and display the header + a few lines before and after the searched item (the output of this likely directed to some file). I found a way to grep the stdout and stderr using different values. And the resulting stdout/stderr displayed is in the right order. But any attempt to redirect it to a file messes up the order? { { cvs co -r HEAD -p myModule 4>&- | grep 'myString' 2>&4 4>&- } 4>&2 2>&1 >&3 3>&- | grep 'Check' >&2 3>&- } 3>&1 Question 1. Is there an easier way to do this all together? Question 2. If not, how do I get the output of the code above to append to a file in the same order as displayed on the console?

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  • What's a good way to write batch scripts in C#?

    - by Scott Bilas
    I would like to write simple scripts in C#. Stuff I would normally use .bat or 4NT .btm files for. Copying files, parsing text, asking user input, and so on. Fairly simple but doing this stuff right in a batch file is really hard (no exceptions for example). I'm familiar with command line "scripting" wrappers like AxScript so that gets me part of the way there. What I'm missing is the easy file-manipulation framework. I want to be able to do cd(".."), copy(srcFile, destFile) type functionality. Tools I have tried: NANT, which we use in our build process. Not a good scripting tool. Insanely verbose XML syntax and to add a simple function you must write an extension assembly. Can't do it inline. PowerShell. Looks great, but I just haven't been able to switch over to this as my primary shell. Too many differences from 4NT. Whatever I do needs to run from an ordinary command prompt and not require a special shell to run it through. Can PowerShell be used as a script executor? Perl/Python/Ruby. Really hate learning an entirely new language and framework just to do batch file operations. Haven't been able to dedicate the time I need to do this. Plus, we're a 99% .NET shop for our toolchain and I really want to leverage our existing experience and codebase. Are there frameworks out there that are trying to solve this problem of "make a batch file in C#" that you have used? I want the power of C#/.NET with the immediate-mode type functionality of a typical cmd.exe shell language. Am I alone in wanting something like this?

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  • Methods to see result fo a code change faster

    - by Can't Tell
    This question came to me when developing using Eclipse. I use JBoss Application Server and use hot code replacement. But this option requires that the 'build automatically' option to be enabled. This makes Eclipse build the workspace automatically (periodically or when a file is saved?) and for a large code base this takes too much time and processing which makes the machine freeze for a while. Also sometimes an error message is shown saying that hot code replacement failed. The question that I have is: is there a better way to see the result of a code change? Currently I have the following two suggestions: Have unit tests - this will allow to run a single test and see the result of a code change. ( But for a JavaEE application that uses EJBs is it easy to setup unit tests?) Use OSGi - which allows to add jars to the running system without bringing down the JVM. Any ideas on above suggestions or any other suggestion or a framework that allows to do this is welcome.

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  • plot 4 different plots inside 1 pdf

    - by ifreak
    I have 2 data frames which i want to generate 3 plots from them and place them inside 1 pdf file as a single column. i want all the plots to have the same x-axis limits(basically the same x-axis) even thought they differ in the name and how they were obtained. the dataframes looks something like that: d1 X Y Z 0.04939317 -0.4622222 13651 0.03202451 -0.4261000 13401 0.09950793 -0.3233025 13151 0.11548556 -0.4637981 12486 0.09817597 -0.4751886 12236 0.15770701 -0.5819355 11986 and d2 V0 V1 V2 V3 sign 1 1 0.379 0.612 pos 2 1 0.378 0.620 pos 3 1 0.578 0.571 neg 4 1 0.978 0.561 pos 5 1 0.758 0.261 neg 6 1 0.378 0.126 neg P.S : both data frames are bigger than this, this is only a part of them V0, V1 and Z range from 1 to 20000 the plots that i created are : From d2 d2plot=ggplot(d1, aes(V0,V1, fill=sign)) + geom_tile()+ scale_fill_manual(values = c("neg" = "yellow", "pos"="red")) +geom_vline(xintercept =10000 ) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=0, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) From d1 d1plot = ggplot(d2) + geom_errorbarh(aes(x=z,xmin=z-50,xmax=z+50, y=Y, height = 0.02),color="red")+ opts(legend.position = "none") +geom_vline(xintercept = 10000) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=-0.3, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) i've tried grid.arrange(d1plot,d2plot,ncol=1) but the x-axis is different for each plot, i tried changing the aspect ratio, but this will change the y-axis ..i've also tried to use facet_wrap but the problem that my x-axis values have different values, i just want the limits and breaks to be the same and the plots all be aligned in 1 column based on 1 x-axis to comapre the value of the statistical methods in an easy way.

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  • Send string from java (or other platform) to application

    - by MrSnowflake
    I want to send a barcode, read with my cellphone, to my computer. My computer has a simple server running, which listens to barcodes. When a barcode arrives, the server app should be able to input the value of the received barcode into the active application (I don't really care which application is going to get the input, the user should be able to select gedit, a terminal window or the browser if they choose to). My language at the moment is Java on GNU/Linux (Ubuntu), so I know about the Robot class. But the Robot class emulates a keyboard, which means: when you send VK_1 on a US keyboard layout, the output is '1' indeed, but when you send VK_1 on another layout (like belgian, which I use), which requires shift for the '1' key, the output is '&' (this is the character on the '1' key, when you don't hold shift). I also found xsendkeys, but this application too requires you to specify whether you need to hold shift. So it will be able to send an 'a' but for an 'A' (thus capital) you need to specify you want to hold shift with your 'a'. Isn't there an easy way to do this, for GNU/Linux and Windows, just using strings. I want to be able to send "12a68dd" to the active application. And I also would like to be able to send UTF-8 characters to the active application. I have been looking for a solution, but most require the breakdown in multiple keystrokes, which are often dependent on the keyboard layout.

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  • Releasing from development into production in maven

    - by Bruce
    Hi all, I'm confused about the use of maven in development and production environments - I'm sure it's something simple that I'm missing. Grateful for any help.. I set up maven inside eclipse on my local machine and wrote some software. I really like how it's made things like including dependent jars very easy. So that's my development environment. But now I want to release the project to production on a remote server. I've searched the documentation, but I can't figure out how it's supposed to work or what the maven best practice is.. Are you supposed to: a) Also be running maven on your production environment, and upload all your files to your production environment and rebuild your project there? (Something in me baulks at the idea of rebuilding 'released' code on the production server, so I'm fairly sure this isn't right..) b) use mvn:package to create your jar file and then copy that up to production? (But then what of all those nice dependencies? Isn't there a danger that your tested code is now going to be running against different versions of the dependent jars in the production environment, possibly breaking your code? Or missing a jar..?) c) Something else that I'm not figuring out.. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • OpenSceneGraph C++ Access Violation reading location 0x00421000

    - by Kobojunkie
    Working with OpenSceneGraph, and I keep running into this violation issue that I would appreciate some help with. The problem is with the particular line below which happens to be the first in my main function. osg::ref_ptr<osg::Node> bench = osgDB::readNodeFile("Models/test.IVE"); I have my models folder right in my directory. The error is as below. Unhandled exception at 0x68630A6C (msvcr100.dll) in OSG3D.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00421000. And this is where the problem seems to be coming up. /** Read an osg::Node from file. * Return valid osg::Node on success, * return NULL on failure. * The osgDB::Registry is used to load the appropriate ReaderWriter plugin * for the filename extension, and this plugin then handles the request * to read the specified file.*/ inline osg::Node* readNodeFile(const std::string& filename) { return readNodeFile(filename,Registry::instance()->getOptions()); } I would appreciate details on how best to tackle this kind of exception message in the future. Are there tools that make this easy to debug or are there ways to capture the exact issues and fix them? I would appreciate any help with this. My ultimate goal is to learn how to better debug C++ related issues please. With this, it means reading through the compiler error list http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/850cstw1(v=vs.71).aspx is not enough

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  • Append to the end of a Char array in C++

    - by Taylor Huston
    Is there a command that can append one array of char onto another? Something that would theoretically work like this: //array1 has already been set to "The dog jumps " //array2 has already been set to "over the log" append(array2,array1); cout << array1; //would output "The dog jumps over the log"; This is a pretty easy function to make I would think, I am just surprised there isn't a built in command for it. *Edit I should have been more clear, I didn't mean changing the size of the array. If array1 was set to 50 characters, but was only using 10 of them, you would still have 40 characters to work with. I was thinking an automatic command that would essentially do: //assuming array1 has 10 characters but was declared with 25 and array2 has 5 characters int i=10; int z=0; do{ array1[i] = array2[z]; ++i; ++z; }while(array[z] != '\0'); I am pretty sure that syntax would work, or something similar.

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  • Which way is preferred when doing asynchronous WCF calls?

    - by Mikael Svenson
    When invoking a WCF service asynchronous there seems to be two ways it can be done. 1. public void One() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.BegindoSearch("input", ResultOne, null); } private void ResultOne(IAsyncResult ar) { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); string data = client.EnddoSearch(ar); } 2. public void Two() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.doSearchCompleted += TwoCompleted; client.doSearchAsync("input"); } void TwoCompleted(object sender, doSearchCompletedEventArgs e) { string data = e.Result; } And with the new Task<T> class we have an easy third way by wrapping the synchronous operation in a task. 3. public void Three() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); var task = Task<string>.Factory.StartNew(() => client.doSearch("input")); string data = task.Result; } They all give you the ability to execute other code while you wait for the result, but I think Task<T> gives better control on what you execute before or after the result is retrieved. Are there any advantages or disadvantages to using one over the other? Or scenarios where one way of doing it is more preferable?

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  • Grails - Where to store properties related to domains

    - by GalmWing
    This is something I have been struggling about for some time now. The thing is: I have many (20 or so) static arrays of values. I say static because that is how I'm actually storing them, as static arrays inside some domains. For example, if I have a list of known websites, I do: class Website { ... static websites = ["web1", "web2" ...] } But I do this just while developing, because I can easily change the arrays if needed, but what I'm going to do when the application is ready for deployment? In my project it is very probable that, at some point, these arrays of values change. I've been researching on that matter, one can store application properties inside an external .properties file, but it will be impossible to store an array, even futile, because if some array gets an additional value, the application can't recognize it until the name of the new property is added where needed. Another approach is to store this information in the database, but for some reason it seems like a waste to add 20 or more tables that will have just two rows, an id and a name. And the last option, as far as I know, would be an XML, but I'm not very experienced with those. It seems groovy has a way of creating and reading XML files relatively easy, but I don't know how difficult would be to modify an XML whose layout is predefined in the application. Needless to say that storing them in the config.groovy is not an option since any change will require to recompile. I haven't come across some "standard" (maybe a best practice?) way of dealing with these. So the questions is: Where to store these arrays?

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  • JSON onFailure issue

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but I get the alert in JSON onFailure event even though data gets added to MySQL. I tried removing the alert from onFailure event but then it doesn't add the data. The drop down still continues work work fine, no alerts. (I should note that removing the alert also broke my drop down box) 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1)" onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Status was not okay'); }, onFailure : function () { alert("onFailure") } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values get added to MySQL but I get the Alert in the JSON onFailure event if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • Counting a cell up per Objects

    - by Auro
    hey i got a problem once again :D a little info first: im trying to copy data from one table to an other table(structure is the same). now one cell needs to be incremented, beginns per group at 1 (just like a histroy). i have this table: create table My_Test/My_Test2 ( my_Id Number(8,0), my_Num Number(6,0), my_Data Varchar2(100)); (my_Id, my_Num is a nested PK) if i want to insert a new row, i need to check if the value in my_id already exists. if this is true then i need to use the next my_Num for this Id. i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 1 'test1' 1 2 'test2' 2 1 'test3' if i add now a row for my_Id 1, the row would look like this: i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 3 'test4' this sounds pretty easy ,now i need to make it in a SQL and on SQL Server i had the same problem and i used this: Insert Into My_Test (My_Id,My_Num,My_Data) SELECT my_Id, ( SELECT CASE ( CASE MAX(a.my_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num WHEN NULL THEN 1 ELSE ( CASE MAX(a.My_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num END From My_Test A where my_id = 1 ) ,My_Data From My_Test2 B where my_id = 1; this Select gives null back if no Rows are found in the subselect is there a way so i could use max in the case? and if it give null back it should use 0 or 1? greets Auro

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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  • Running an application from an USB device...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

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  • Packaging Java apps for the Windows/Linux desktop.

    - by alexmcchessers
    I am writing an application in Java for the desktop using the Eclipse SWT library for GUI rendering. I think SWT helps Java get over the biggest hurdle for acceptance on the desktop: namely providing a Java application with a consistent, responsive interface that looks like that belonging to any other app on your desktop. However, I feel that packaging an application is still an issue. OS X natively provides an easy mechanism for wrapping Java apps in native application bundles, but producing an app for Windows/Linux that doesn't require the user to run an ugly batch file or click on a .jar is still a hassle. Possibly that's not such an issue on Linux, where the user is likely to be a little more tech-savvy, but on Windows I'd like to have a regular .exe for him/her to run. Has anyone had any experience with any of the .exe generation tools for Java that are out there? I've tried JSmooth but had various issues with it. Is there a better solution before I crack out Visual Studio and roll my own? Edit: I should perhaps mention that I am unable to spend a lot of money on a commercial solution.

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  • Is it theoretically possible to emulate a human brain on a computer?

    - by JoelK
    Our brain consists of billions of neurons which basically work with all the incoming data from our senses, handle our consciousness, emotions and creativity as well as our hormone system, etc. So I'm completely new to this topic but doesn't each neuron have a fixed function? E.g.: If a signal of strength x enters, if the last signal was x ms ago, redirect it. From what I've learned in biology about our nerves system which includes our brain because both consist of simple neurons, it seems to me as our brain is one big, complicated computer. Maybe so complicated that things such as intelligence and cognition become possible? As the most complicated things about a neuron pretty much are the chemical aspects on generating an electric singal, keeping itself alive, and eventually segmenting itself, it should be pretty easy emulating some on a computer, or? You won't have to worry about keeping your virtual neuron alive, or? If you can emulate a single neuron on a computer, which shouldn't be too hard, could you theoretically emulate more than 1000 billions of them, recreating intelligence, cognition and maybe even creativity? In my question I'm leaving out the following aspects: Speed of our current (super) computers Actually writing a program for emulating neurons I don't know much about this topic, please tell me if I got anything wrong :) (My secret goal: Make a copy of my brain and store it on some 10 million TB HDD and make someone start it up in the future)

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  • Job queueing and execute Mechanism

    - by Calm Storm
    In my webservice all method calls submits jobs to a queue. Basically these operations take long time to execute, so all these operations submit a Job to a queue and return a status saying "Submitted". Then the client keeps polling using another service method to check for the status of the job. Presently, what I do is create my own Queue, Job classes that are Serializable and persist these jobs (i.e, their serialized byte stream format) into the database. So an UpdateLogistics operation just queues up a "UpdateLogisticsJob" to the queue and returns. I have written my own JobExecutor which wakes up every N seconds, scans the database table for any existing jobs, and executes them. Note the jobs have to persisted because these jobs have to survive app-server crashes. This was done a long time ago, and I used bespoke classes for my Queues, Jobs, Executors etc. But now, I would like to know has someone done something similar before? In particular, Are there frameworks available for this ? Something in Spring/Apache etc Any framework that is easy to adapt/debug and plays well along with libraries like Spring will be great.

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  • Replacing characters in a non well-formed XML body

    - by ryanprayogo
    In a (Java) code that I'm working on, I sometimes deal with a non well-formed XML (represented as a Java String), such as: <root> <foo> bar & baz < quux </foo> </root> Since this XML will eventually need to be unmarshalled (using JAXB), obviously this XML as is will throw exception upon unmarshalling. What's the best way to replace the & and the < to its character entities? For &, it's as easy as: xml.replaceAll("&", "&amp;") However, for the < symbol, it's a bit tricky since obviously I don't want to replace the < that's used for the XML tag opening 'bracket'. Other than scanning the string and manually replacing < in the XML body with &lt;, what other option can you suggest?

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  • How do i prevent my code from being stolen?

    - by Calmarius
    What happens exactly when I launch a .NET exe? I know that C# is compiled to IL code and I think the generated exe file just a launcher that starts the runtime and passes the IL code to it. But how? And how complex process is it? IL code is embedded in the exe. I think it can be executed from the memory without writing it to the disk while ordinary exe's are not (ok, yes but it is very complicated). My final aim is extracting the IL code and write my own encrypted launcher to prevent scriptkiddies to open my code in Reflector and just steal all my classes easily. Well I can't prevent reverse engineering completely. If they are able to inspect the memory and catch the moment when I'm passing the pure IL to the runtime then it won't matter if it is a .net exe or not, is it? I know there are several obfuscator tools but I don't want to mess up the IL code itself. EDIT: so it seems it isn't worth trying what I wanted. They will crack it anyway... So I will look for an obfuscation tool. And yes my friends said too that it is enough to rename all symbols to a meaningless name. And reverse engineering won't be so easy after all.

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