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  • XML parsing using jQuery

    - by lmkk
    I have the following xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Area xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Scenes> <Scene Index="1" Name="Scene1" /> <Scene Index="2" Name="Scene2" /> </Scenes> </Area> Which i am trying to parse with jquery: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "list.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('scenes').each(function(){ $(this).find('scene').each(function(){ var name = $(this).attr('name'); $('<div class="items" ></div>').html('<p>'+name+'</p>').appendTo('#page-wrap'); }); }); } }); }); </script> Why is this not working? Help!! first attempt at javascript/jquery This is based on a example I found, but have so far been unable to adapt it to my usage. / Lars

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  • How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

    - by mackenir
    When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

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  • img onload doesn't work well in IE7

    - by rmeador
    I have an img tag in my webapp that uses the onload handler to resize the image: <img onLoad="SizeImage(this);" src="foo" > This works fine in Firefox 3, but fails in IE7 because the image object being passed to the SizeImage() function has a width and height of 0 for some reason -- maybe IE calls the function before it finishes loading?. In researching this, I have discovered that other people have had this same problem with IE. I have also discovered that this isn't valid HTML 4. This is our doctype, so I don't know if it's valid or not: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Is there a reasonable solution for resizing an image as it is loaded, preferably one that is standards-compliant? The image is being used for the user to upload a photo of themselves, which can be nearly any size, and we want to display it at a maximum of 150x150. If your solution is to resize the image server-side on upload, I know that is the correct solution, but I am forbidden from implementing it :( It must be done client side, and it must be done on display. Thanks. Edit: Due to the structure of our app, it is impractical (bordering on impossible) to run this script in the document's onload. I can only reasonably edit the image tag and the code near it (for instance I could add a <script> right below it). Also, we already have Prototype and EXT JS libraries... management would prefer to not have to add another (some answers have suggested jQuery). If this can be solved using those frameworks, that would be great. Edit 2: Unfortunately, we must support Firefox 3, IE 6 and IE 7. It is desirable to support all Webkit-based browsers as well, but as our site doesn't currently support them, we can tolerate solutions that only work in the Big 3.

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  • Accessing type members outside the class in Scala

    - by Pekka Mattila
    Hi, I am trying to understand type members in Scala. I wrote a simple example that tries to explain my question. First, I created two classes for types: class BaseclassForTypes class OwnType extends BaseclassForTypes Then, I defined an abstract type member in trait and then defined the type member in a concerete class: trait ScalaTypesTest { type T <: BaseclassForTypes def returnType: T } class ScalaTypesTestImpl extends ScalaTypesTest { type T = OwnType override def returnType: T = { new T } } Then, I want to access the type member (yes, the type is not needed here, but this explains my question). Both examples work. Solution 1. Declaring the type, but the problem here is that it does not use the type member and the type information is duplicated (caller and callee). val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:OwnType = typeTest.returnType // declare the type second time here true must beTrue Solution 2. Initializing the class and using the type through the object. I don't like this, since the class needs to be initialized val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:typeTest.T = typeTest.returnType // through an instance true must beTrue So, is there a better way of doing this or are type members meant to be used only with the internal implementation of a class?

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  • How do I process multipart http responses in Ruby Net:HTTP?

    - by seal-7
    There is so much information out there on how to generate multipart responses or do multipart file uploads. I can't seem to find any information on how to process a multipart http response. Here is some IRB output from a multipart http response I am working with. >> response.http.content_type => "multipart/related" >> response.http.body[0..2048] => "\r\n------=_Part_3_806633756.1271797659309\r\nContent-Type: text/xml; charset=UTF-8\r\nContent-Transfer-Encoding: binary\r\nContent-Id: <A0FCC4333C6D0FCA346B97FAB6B61818>\r\n\r\n<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"><soapenv:Body><ns1:runReportResponse soapenv:encodingStyle="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-encoding" xmlns:ns1="http://192.168.1.200:8080/jasperserver/services/repository"><ns2:result xmlns:ns2="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-rpc">runReportReturn</ns2:result><runReportReturn xsi:type="xsd:string">&lt;?xml version=&quot;1.0&quot; encoding=&quot;UTF-8&quot;?&gt;\n&lt;operationResult version=&quot;2.0.1&quot;&gt;\n\t&lt;returnCode&gt;&lt;![CDATA[0]]&gt;&lt;/returnCode&gt;\n&lt;/operationResult&gt;\n</runReportReturn></ns1:runReportResponse></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>\r\n------=_Part_3_806633756.1271797659309\r\nContent-Type: application/pdf\r\nContent-Transfer-Encoding: binary\r\nContent-Id: <report>\r\n\r\n%PDF-1.4\n%\342\343\317\323\n3 0 obj

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • Moving to .net 4 results in System.Transactions Critical: 0

    - by john
    Hi I have fully working project in .net 3.5SP1, with EF 1 ORM. I tried to upgrade to .net 4. No issue while upgrading... Then i ran the project and got a NullExecptionError, with no stack trace... and no way to debug. Looking at the output windows i can read this: System.Transactions Critical: 0 : <TraceRecord xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/10/E2ETraceEvent/TraceRecord" Severity="Critical"><TraceIdentifier>http://msdn.microsoft.com/TraceCodes/System/ActivityTracing/2004/07/Reliability/Exception/Unhandled</TraceIdentifier><Description>Unhandled exception</Description><AppDomain>OTCSouscriptions.vshost.exe</AppDomain><Exception><ExceptionType>System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089</ExceptionType><Message>Object reference not set to an instance of an object.</Message><StackTrace> at System.Windows.StyleHelper.GetInstanceValue(UncommonField`1 dataField, DependencyObject container, FrameworkElement feChild, FrameworkContentElement fceChild, Int32 childIndex, DependencyProperty dp, Int32 i, EffectiveValueEntry&amp;amp; entry) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.ReceivePropertySet(Object targetObject, XamlMember member, Object value, DependencyObject templatedParent) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.&amp;lt;&amp;gt;c__DisplayClass6.&amp;lt;LoadOptimizedTemplateContent&amp;gt;b__4(Object sender, XamlSetValueEventArgs setArgs) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.OnSetValue(Object eventSender, XamlMember member, Object value) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_ApplyPropertyValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx, XamlMember prop, Object value, Boolean onParent) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_DoAssignmentToParentProperty(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_AssignProvidedValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.WriteEndObject() at System.Xaml.XamlWriter.WriteNode(XamlReader reader) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.LoadTemplateXaml(XamlReader templateReader, XamlObjectWriter currentWriter) Any help appreciated... Thanks John

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  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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  • NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

    - by Alejandro A.
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

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  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

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  • Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

    - by paulland
    I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

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  • Understanding an interesting array update/replace function

    - by dave
    I'm a PHP amateur. This array function is an adaption of a function I noticed while reading this article. I thought this was an interesting type of array function, but I have a question about the way it works. my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [sky] => blue [grass] => green ) } but..................... my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = array( 'clock'=>'time' ) ; $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [clock] => time [grass] => green [sky] => dark ) } Why does [sky] not equal 'blue' in the second instance? Thanks.

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  • Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

    - by Roman
    Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

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  • Updating multiple divs w/ RJS/AJAX

    - by bgadoci
    I am successfully using RJS to implement AJAX on a page.replace.html create.js.rjs. I am attempting to update two locations instead of one and after watching Ryan Bates Railscast I am very close (I think) but have a problem in the syntax of my /views/likes/create.js.rjs file. Here is the situation: located at /views/likes/create.js.rjs is the following code: page.replace_html "votes_#{ @site.id }", :partial => @like page.replace_html "counter", 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) page[@like].visual_effect :highlight My problem lies in the second line. The div "counter" displays the following code in the /views/question/show.html.erb page: <div id="counter"> You have <%= 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) %> votes remaining for this question </div> From watching the screen cast I believe that my error has to do w/ the syntax of the second line. Specifically he mentions that you cannot use a local instance variable but not sure how to make the change. Thoughts?

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  • Has anyone used Ant4Eclipse with Project Lombok?

    - by gmcnaughton
    Has anyone successfully used Ant4Eclipse (http://www.ant4eclipse.org/) in combination with Project Lombok (http://projectlombok.org/)? Lombok provides annotations for removing boilerplate code; however, it doesn't appear to play nicely with Ant4Eclipse (headless compilation of Eclipse projects). For instance, the following Lombok sample compiles fine in Eclipse and javac: import lombok.Getter; public class LombokTest { private @Getter String foo; public LombokTest() { String s = this.getFoo(); } } But compiling with Ant4Eclipse's <buildJdtProject> yields the following: [javac] Compiling 1 source file [javac] ---------- [javac] 1. WARNING in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 4) [javac] private @Getter String foo; [javac] ^^^ [javac] The field LombokTest.foo is never read locally [javac] ---------- [javac] 2. ERROR in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 8) [javac] String s = this.getFoo(); [javac] ^^^^^^ [javac] The method getFoo() is undefined for the type LombokTest [javac] ---------- Has anyone successfully used these libraries together? Thanks! Edit: sample project demonstrating the issue

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  • How can I add the column data type after adding the column headers to my datatable?

    - by Kevin
    Using the code below (from a console app I've cobbled together), I add seven columns to my datatable. Once this is done, how can I set the data type for each column? For instance, column 1 of the datatable will have the header "ItemNum" and I want to set it to be an Int. I've looked at some examples on thet 'net, but most all of them show creating the column header and column data type at once, like this: loadDT.Columns.Add("ItemNum", typeof(Int)); At this point in my program, the column already has a name. I just want to do something like this (not actual code): loadDT.Column[1].ChangeType(typeof(int)); Here's my code so far (that gives the columns their name): // get column headings for datatable by reading first line of csv file. StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"c:\load_forecast.csv"); headers = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); foreach (string header in headers) { loadDT.Columns.Add(header); } Obviously, I'm pretty new at this, but trying very hard to learn. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks!

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  • XML Catalog in Eclipse is not working

    - by svaret
    Where I work we do not have any internet connection. We still want to have validation and code completion when editing xml files. I have tried the instructions here http://www.helmers.nu/?p=276 However, I try the instructions, restarts eclipse, do reload dependencies. I still cannot get any code completion nor validation. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I have tried both with Eclipse Galileo and Helios. My catalog.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <catalog xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:entity:xmlns:xml:catalog"> <uri name="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" uri="file:///C:/dev/XMLSchemaDefinition/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"/> </catalog> My xml-file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <databaseChangeLog xmlns="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9 http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"> </databaseChangeLog>

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  • UITableView madness

    - by kesrut
    Hello, I'm new to iPhone application development. I'm trying to understand how to use UITableView. I'm wrote simple code: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 1 ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = @"Hello"; return cell; } UITable shows content, but if i'm drag table contents my application terminates. You can see video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TucTVJVhSD0 I tried to everything with array: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1 ; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [hello count] ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [hello objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; NSLog(@"Selected") ; } - (void) awakeFromNib { hello = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"hello", @"world", @"end", nil]; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } Content is shown and if I'm selecting item i'm getting: [Session started at 2010-03-16 19:21:48 +0200.] 2010-03-16 19:21:52.295 ViewTest[1775:207] * -[ViewTestViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3911ec0 I'm total new to iPhone programming. And as i see everything i do - i'm just getting application terminated ..

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  • Why use bin2hex when inserting binary data from PHP into MySQL?

    - by Atli
    I heard a rumor that when inserting binary data (files and such) into MySQL, you should use the bin2hex() function and send it as a HEX-coded value, rather than just use mysql_real_escape_string on the binary string and use that. // That you should do $hex = bin2hex($raw_bin); $sql = "INSERT INTO `table`(`file`) VALUES (X'{$hex}')"; // Rather than $bin = mysql_real_escape_string($raw_bin); $sql = "INSERT INTO `table`(`file`) VALUES ('{$bin}')"; It is supposedly for performance reasons. Something to do with how MySQL handles large strings vs. how it handles HEX-coded values However, I am having a hard time confirming this. All my tests indicate the exact oposite; that the bin2hex method is ~85% slower and uses ~24% more memory. (I am testing this on PHP 5.3, MySQL 5.1, Win7 x64 - Using a farily simple insert loop.) For instance, this graph shows the private memory usage of the mysqld process while the test code was running: Does anybody have any explainations or reasources that would clarify this? Thanks.

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  • Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

    - by David Easley
    Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

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  • Most efficient way to combine two objects in C#

    - by Dested
    I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

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  • MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

    - by BlueRaja
    Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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  • What is the header of an array in .NET

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I have a little bit seen the representation of an array in memory with Windbg and SOS plugin. Here it is the c# : class myobj{ public int[] arr; } class Program{ static void Main(string[] args){ myobj o = new myobj(); o.arr = new int[7]; o.arr[0] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[1] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[2] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[3] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[4] = 0xFFFFFF; } } I break at final of Main, and I observ : 0:000> !clrstack -l OS Thread Id: 0xc3c (0) ESP EIP 0015f0cc 0043d1cf test.Program.Main(System.String[]) LOCALS: 0x0015f0d8 = 0x018a2f58 0:000 !do 0x018a2f58 Name: test.myobj MethodTable: 0026309c EEClass: 00261380 Size: 12(0xc) bytes (C:\Users\admin\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\test\test\bin\Debug\test.exe) Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 01324530 4000001 4 System.Int32[] 0 instance 018a2f64 tab 0:000 dd 018a2f64 018a2f64 01324530 00000007 00ffffff 00ffffff 018a2f74 00ffffff 00ffffff 00ffffff 00000000 018a2f84 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2f94 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fa4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fb4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fc4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fd4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 I can see that the header contains the size of the array (00000007) but my question is : what is the value 01324530 ? Thanks !

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  • jcarousel not getting drawn inside a hidden div

    - by zoom_pat277
    I am struggling since hrs on this one now. I am using a div to populate a ul/li list and then draw a jcarousel out of it. So this works fine $('#mycarousel').jcarousel(); everything works fine as expected... but here is the scenario. the div inside which I have ul/li items could be hidden by the click of another button. When the div is hidden, and I resize the browser window...the jcaraousel also attempts to redraw itself... but since it is hidden, it is not able to draw it properly. and everyting is jumbled up in the list (if I click the button again to make it visible)... but again if I resize the window now (the jumbled up jcarousel is NOT hidden now)... it redraws itself correctly... I was wondering to get hold of the jcarousel instance and reload itself as soon as the button is clicked to make the div visible (the way it resizes itself when it is visible and window is resized) to get hold of the jcarousel.. I am using JQuery('#mycarousel').data('jcarousel') and it is returned as null. Anybody has any idea on this one?

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