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  • How to add custom header to ASMX web service call using jquery?

    - by Mike
    I have a web service with the following contract: POST /Service/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: xxx.xxx.xxx Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/Method" <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header> <Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <transactiontype>string</transactiontype> <username>string</username> <password>string</password> </Request> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <Method xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <xml>xml</xml> </Method> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> And I am trying to call the service using jquery. This is my code: $.ajax({ url: serverUrl + 'Method', type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: { xml: "xml" }, beforeSend: function (req) { req.setRequestHeader('Header', '<Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/">' +'<transactiontype>4</transactiontype>' +'<agencyName>name</agencyName>' +'<username>user</username>' +'<password>pass</password>' +'</Request>'); }, success: function (data) { alert(data.text); }, error: function (request, status, errorThrown) { alert(status); } }); However, the header content is not passed to the web service? How would I go about passing the header credentials to my web service call?

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  • backbone marionette - displaying a view in a layout region which has already been rendered

    - by Justin Wyllie
    I have something like this: //render the layout Layout.layout = new Layout.Screen(); MyApp.SomeRegion.show(Layout.layout); //render a view into it var mView = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeRegion.show(mView); That all works fine. The layout has 3 regions. The above has rendered a view into one of them. Now, later, I want (in response to some user interaction) to render another view into one of the other regions. So I try: var mView2 = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeOtherRegion.show(mView); But 'SomeOtherRegion' no longer exists on Layout.layout. I looked at this in Firebug. In the first case Layout.layout has my three regions defined on it. In the second case, not. Though they are still there in the regions object. This is the same layout instance. It looks like once a layout has been rendered you cannot render into it again? There must be a way. Nb. I don't want to re-render the layout. I hope that makes sense --Justin Wyllie

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • SQL 2008: Using separate tables for each datatype to return single row

    - by Thomas C
    Hi all I thought I'd be flexible this time around and let the users decide what contact information the wish to store in their database. In theory it would look as a single row containing, for instance; name, adress, zipcode, Category X, Listitems A. Example FieldType table defining the datatypes available to a user: FieldTypeID, FieldTypeName, TableName 1,"Integer","tblContactInt" 2,"String50","tblContactStr50" ... A user the define his fields in the FieldDefinition table: FieldDefinitionID, FieldTypeID, FieldDefinitionName 11,2,"Name" 12,2,"Adress" 13,1,"Age" Finally we store the actual contact data in separate tables depending on its datatype. Master table, only contains the ContactID tblContact: ContactID 21 22 tblContactStr50: ContactStr50ID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactStr50Value 31,21,11,"Person A" 32,21,12,"Adress of person A" 33,22,11,"Person B" tblContactInt: ContactIntID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactIntValue 41,22,13,27 Question: Is it possible to return the content of these tables in two rows like this: ContactID,Name,Adress,Age 21,"Person A","Adress of person A",NULL 22,"Person B",NULL,27 I have looked into using the COALESCE and Temp tables, wondering if this is at all possible. Even if it is: maybe I'm only adding complexity whilst sacrificing performance for benefit in datastorage and user definition option. What do you think? Best Regards /Thomas C

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  • Behavior of retained property while holder is retained

    - by Aurélien Vallée
    Hello everyone, I am a beginner ObjectiveC programmer, coming from the C++ world. I find it very difficult to understand the memory management offered by NSObject :/ Say I have the following class: @interface User : NSObject { NSString* name; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString* name; - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName; - (void) release; @end @implementation User @synthesize name - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setName:theName]; } return self; } - (void) release { [name release]; [super release]; } @end No considering the following code, I can't understand the retain count results: NSString* name = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:/*C string from sqlite3*/]; // (1) name retainCount = 1 User* user = [[User alloc] initWithName:name]; // (2) name retainCount = 2 [whateverMutableArray addObject:user]; // (3) name retainCount = 2 [user release]; // (4) name retainCount = 1 [name release]; // (5) name retainCount = 0 At (4), the retain count of name decreased from 2 to 1. But that's not correct, there is still the instance of user inside the array that points to name ! The retain count of a variable should only decrease when the retain count of a referring variable is 0, that is, when it is dealloced, not released.

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  • Mocking Autofac's "Resolve" extension method with TypeMock

    - by Lockshopr
    I'm trying to mock an Autofac resolve, such as: using System; using Autofac; using TypeMock.ArrangeActAssert; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var inst = Isolate.Fake.Instance<IContainer>(); Isolate.Fake.StaticMethods(typeof(ResolutionExtensions), Members.ReturnNulls); Isolate.WhenCalled(() => inst.Resolve<IRubber>()).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); Console.Out.WriteLine(inst.Resolve<IRubber>()); } } public interface IRubber {} public class BubbleGum : IRubber {} Coming from Moq, the syntax and exceptions from TypeMock confuse me a great deal. Having initially run this in a TestMethod, I kept getting an exception resembling "WhenCalled cannot be run without a complementing behavior". I tried defining behaviors for everyone and their mothers, but to no avail. Then I debug stepped through the test run, and saw that an actual exception was fired from Autofac: IRubber has not been registered. So it's obvious that the static Resolve function isn't being faked, and I can't get it to be faked, no matter how I go about hooking it up. Isolate.WhenCalled(() => ResolutionExtensions.Resolve<IRubber>(null)).WillReturn(new BubbleGum()); ... throws an exception from Autofac complaining that the IComponentContext cannot be null. Feeding it the presumably faked IContainer (or faking an IComponentContext instead) gets me back to the "IRubber not registered" error.

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • Subclass of UIView with Xib file.

    - by rdesign
    Hey guys, Although I've searched the Board and used google, I didn't get any useful results. I've trying to make a subclass of UIView loading its view from a xib file. My approach is the following: 1. Creating a subclass (named mySubclass): @interface mySubclass : UIView { } @end Creating a view through: Add New File... User Interface View XIB Connecting the Xib and the subclass: In IB select the View and set the class to mySubclass. In my viewController I make an instance of my new subclass and add to my view. -(void)viewDidLoad { mySubclassIns = [[mySubclass alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460)]; [self.view addSubview:mySubclassIns]; [super viewDidLoad]; } Result: Noting shows up in my App :( If I don't set it up programmatically but rather with IB it doesn't work either. (Am I setting it up right when choosing a view in IB and set the class to myClass?) I would be really thankful for your help! Thanks in advance.

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  • How to route tree-structured URLs with ASP.NET Routing?

    - by Venemo
    Hello Everyone, I would like to achieve something very similar to this question, with some enhancements. There is an ASP.NET MVC web application. I have a tree of entities. For example, a Page class which has a property called Children, which is of type IList<Page>. (An instance of the Page class corresponds to a row in a database.) I would like to assign a unique URL to every Page in the database. I handle Page objects with a Controller called PageController. Example URLs: http://mysite.com/Page1/ http://mysite.com/Page1/SubPage/ http://mysite.com/Page/ChildPage/GrandChildPage/ You get the picture. So, I'd like every single Page object to have its own URL that is equal to its parent's URL plus its own name. In addition to that, I also would like the ability to map a single Page to the / (root) URL. I would like to apply these rules: If a URL can be handled with any other route, or a file exists in the filesystem in the specified URL, let the default URL mapping happen If a URL can be handled by the virtual path provider, let that handle it If there is no other, map the other URLs to the PageController class I also found this question, and also this one and this one, but they weren't of much help, since they don't provide an explanation about my first two points. I see the following possible soutions: Map a route for each page invidually. This requires me to go over the entire tree when the application starts, and adding an exact match route to the end of the route table. I could add a route with {*path} and write a custom IRouteHandler that handles it, but I can't see how could I deal with the first two rules then, since this handler would get to handle everything. So far, the first solution seems to be the right one, because it is also the simplest. I would really appreciate your thoughts on this. Thank you in advance!

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  • Use of unassigned local variable 'dictionary'

    - by codemonkie
    I got the error Use of unassigned local variable 'dictionary' despite I assigned the value in the following code: private static void UpdateJadProperties(Uri jadUri, Uri jarUri, Uri notifierUri) { Dictionary<String, String> dictionary; try { String[] jadFileContent; // Create an instance of StreamReader to read from a file. // The using statement also closes the StreamReader. using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(jadUri.AbsolutePath.ToString())) { Char[] delimiters = { '\r', '\n' }; jadFileContent = sr.ReadToEnd().Split(delimiters, System.StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); } // @@NOTE: Keys contain ": " suffix, values don't! dictionary = jadFileContent.ToDictionary(x => x.Substring(0, x.IndexOf(':') + 2), x => x.Substring(x.IndexOf(':') + 2)); } catch (Exception e) { // Let the user know what went wrong. Console.WriteLine("The file could not be read:"); Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } try { if (dictionary.ContainsKey("MIDlet-Jar-URL: ")) { // Change the value by Remove follow by Add } } catch (ArgumentNullException ane) { throw; } } The error is from the line: if (dictionary.ContainsKey("MIDlet-Jar-URL: ")) Can any one help me out here, pls? TIA

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  • wpf c# databinding on object

    - by Enriquev
    Hello, say I have this control: public partial class bloc999 : UserControl { bloc999Data mainBlock = new bloc999Data(); public bloc999() { InitializeComponent(); mainBlock.txtContents = "100"; base.DataContext = mainBlock; } } in the xaml: <TextBox Margin="74,116,106,0" Name="txtContents" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Margin="74,145,106,132" Name="txtContents2" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents2, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> Then I have this class: public class bloc999Data : INotifyPropertyChanged { string _txtContents; string _txtContents2; public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propName)); } public string txtContents2 { get { return this._txtContents2; } set { if (int.Parse(value) > int.Parse(this._txtContents)) { this._txtContents2 = "000"; } else this._txtContents2 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents2"); } } public string txtContents { get { return this._txtContents; } set { this._txtContents = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents"); } } } Ok now say I have A button on the form and I do this in the code: mainBlock.txtContents2 = "7777777"; It puts 000 in the textbox, but If i just type in manually, in the textbox (txtContents2, the setter code is called but for some reason the textboxes value does not change, the instance value does change. help?

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  • Create image from scratch with JMagick

    - by Michael IV
    I am using Java port of ImageMagick called JMagick .I need to be able to create a new image and write an arbitrary text chunk into it.The docs are very poor and what I managed to get so far is to write text into the image which comes from IO.Also , in all the examples I have found it seems like the very first operation ,before writing new image data , is always loading of an existing image into ImageInfo instance.How do I create an image from scratch with JMagick and then write a text into it? Here is what I do now : try { ImageInfo info = new ImageInfo(); info.setSize("512x512"); info.setUnits(ResolutionType.PixelsPerInchResolution); info.setColorspace(ColorspaceType.RGBColorspace); info.setBorderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("red")); info.setDepth(8); BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(512,512,BufferedImage.TYPE_4BYTE_ABGR); byte[] imageBytes = ((DataBufferByte) img.getData().getDataBuffer()).getData(); MagickImage mimage = new MagickImage(info,imageBytes); DrawInfo aInfo = new DrawInfo(info); aInfo.setFill(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("green")); aInfo.setUnderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("yellow")); aInfo.setOpacity(0); aInfo.setPointsize(36); aInfo.setFont("Arial"); aInfo.setTextAntialias(true); aInfo.setText("JMagick Tutorial"); aInfo.setGeometry("+40+40"); mimage.annotateImage(aInfo); mimage.setFileName("text.jpg"); mimage.writeImage(info); } catch (MagickException ex) { Logger.getLogger(LWJGL_IDOMOO_SIMPLE_TEST.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } It doesn't work , the JVM crashes with access violation as it probably expects for the input image from IO.

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  • Amazon API ItemSearch returns (400) Bad Request.

    - by BuzzBubba
    I'm using a simple example from Amazon documentation for ItemSearch and I get a strange error: "The remote server returned an unexpected response: (400) Bad Request." This is the code: public static void Main() { //Remember to create an instance of the amazon service, including you Access ID. AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient service = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress( "http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient client = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); // prepare an ItemSearch request ItemSearchRequest request = new ItemSearchRequest(); request.SearchIndex = "Books"; request.Title = "Harry+Potter"; request.ResponseGroup = new string[] { "Small" }; ItemSearch itemSearch = new ItemSearch(); itemSearch.Request = new ItemSearchRequest[] { request }; itemSearch.AWSAccessKeyId = accessKeyId; // issue the ItemSearch request try { ItemSearchResponse response = client.ItemSearch(itemSearch); // write out the results foreach (var item in response.Items[0].Item) { Console.WriteLine(item.ItemAttributes.Title); } } catch(Exception e) { Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.Red; Console.WriteLine(e.Message); Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.White; Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Clipboard.SetText(e.Message); } Console.ReadKey(); What is wrong?

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  • Does Team Foundation support cross-app workitem groups?

    - by drachenstern
    We're currently using Visual Source Safe and BugNet and looking to migrate up and away from VSS. I've been pushing for either SVN ( a) we're an ASP.NET shop, b) DCVS is not an option - no matter how much I like Hg ;-) or TFS. Well we finally got a new dev server, so I talked the boss into installing TFS on it (30 day trial). In the meantime, we had started experimenting with FogBugz. We really like FogBugz for about 80% of what we want to do, and the other 20% is probably stuff that we don't know what we want. I'm pushing for TFS because it allows for IDE integrated (mostly) everything. He's pushing for FogBugz because he can group tasks by customer and then project and manage everything from one dashboard. (which means I lose most of my IDE integration - no huge loss I agree) Does TFS support a single dashboard that would span all our solutions (in this case each solution is a full app that we sell to a vertical market client) and let us assign workitems to each solution-spanning-group? So for instance I think we envision something like this: PROJECT1 - Bugtracker and workitems PROJECT2 - Bugtracker and workitems PROJECT3 - Bugtracker and workitems CUSTOMER1 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT1, PROJECT2) CUSTOMER2 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT2, PROJECT3) CUSTOMER3 - Deployment schedules, required features, specific notes (Uses PROJECT1, PROJECT3) Hopefully that makes sense. naturally it's more complicated than this but I think I've given the details enough to paint a picture. I offered the option of creating dummy projects per customer but he doesn't like that and it doesn't really give us the single dashboard view that we're hoping to end up with (and that FogBugz as we've sorta implmented things does do now). Has anyone got a good suggestion on a management app that would accomplish what both of us want?

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  • How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

    - by Ron Klein
    Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

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  • Mocking attributes - C#

    - by bob
    I use custom Attributes in a project and I would like to integrate them in my unit-tests. Now I use Rhino Mocks to create my mocks but I don't see a way to add my attributes (and there parameters) to them. Did I miss something, or is it not possible? Other mocking framework? Or do I have to create dummy implementations with my attributes? example: I have an interface in a plugin-architecture (IPlugin) and there is an attribute to add meta info to a property. Then I look for properties with this attribute in the plugin implementation for extra processing (storing its value, mark as gui read-only...) Now when I create a mock can I add easily an attribute to a property or the object instance itself? EDIT: I found a post with the same question - link. The answer there is not 100% and it is Java... EDIT 2: It can be done... searched some more (on SO) and found 2 related questions (+ answers) here and here Now, is this already implemented in one or another mocking framework?

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  • Magento failure.phtml, get the order total

    - by Kieran
    Hello. One of the projects I work on has the failure page and success page in magento as exactly the same and requires some tracking code on both. The tracking code requires the order ID and the amount being ordered. The issue I'm having is trying to get the order total on the failure page. The methods built into the block class Mage_Checkout_Block_Onepage_Failure are getRealOrderId(), getErrorMessage() and getContinueShoppingUrl(), so no help there. I found some code to do what I want on the success page but it doesn't work for the failure page. <?php $orderId = $this->getRealOrderId(); $order = Mage::getSingleton('sales/order'); $order->load($orderId); $_totalData = $order->getData(); $_grand = $_totalData['grand_total']; ?> I dumped $order and $_totalData. $_totalData just an empty array and $order an empty Mage_Sales_Model_Order instance. Does anyone have any suggestions for where to get the grand total of what is being purchased? Regards, Kieran (I'm also having issues testing the success page as I can't get to it, even putting in the correct test card details on the dev server - but I'll find a way around this)

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  • Setting serial RS232 port settings; any in C# alternatives to SerialPort class ?

    - by adrin
    In my .NET application I need to achieve serial port setup equivalent to this C++ managed code: ::SetCommMask(m_hCOMM, EV_RXCHAR); ::SetupComm(m_hCOMM, 9*2*128*10, 400); ::PurgeComm(m_hCOMM, PURGE_TXABORT|PURGE_RXABORT|PURGE_TXCLEAR|PURGE_RXCLEAR); COMMTIMEOUTS timeOut; timeOut.ReadIntervalTimeout = 3; timeOut.ReadTotalTimeoutConstant = 3; timeOut.ReadTotalTimeoutMultiplier = 1; timeOut.WriteTotalTimeoutConstant = 0; timeOut.WriteTotalTimeoutMultiplier= 0; int nRet= ::SetCommTimeouts(m_hCOMM, &timeOut); ::EscapeCommFunction(m_hCOMM, SETDTR); ::EscapeCommFunction(m_hCOMM, SETRTS); DCB dcb; memset(&dcb, 0, sizeof(DCB)); dcb.BaudRate= m_nSpeed; dcb.ByteSize= 8; dcb.fParity = FALSE; dcb.Parity = NOPARITY; dcb.StopBits= ONESTOPBIT; dcb.fBinary = TRUE; dcb.fDsrSensitivity= FALSE; dcb.fOutxDsrFlow= FALSE; dcb.fOutxCtsFlow= FALSE; dcb.fDtrControl = DTR_CONTROL_HANDSHAKE; dcb.fRtsControl = RTS_CONTROL_TOGGLE; nRet= ::SetCommState(m_hCOMM, &dcb); Is it possible at all? How do I approach this problem? Are there any (preferable free) libraries that allow such low level serial port control or should I create my own wrapper on top of Win32 api? Anyone did anything similar or has an idea how to 'glue' win32 serial port api with .net so that I can use neat .NET DataReceived() events ? Or maybe I can create .NET SerialPort instance and then modify it using managed API?

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  • Iphone: TabView + TableView

    - by OneTrickPonySoft
    I think I'm missing something simple, but I can't figure out exactly what it is. I'm trying to set up an App with a UITabViewController, and one of the Tabs will have a UITableView and UISearchBar (but no Navigation Controller). I set up the UITabViewController with all the tabs in interface builder, and the views are in their own xib files. The xib file for the tab with the UITableView is set up and connected as follows. Stuff in the browser: File's owner (Class is my custom class that is a child of UITableViewController) view - View View (class UIView, reference view - File's owner) contains: UITableView (if i try and set references to the data source / delegate, the app breaks) UISearchBar (unconfigured at the moment) This setup displays all the items and doesn't lock up, but I can't assign a DataSource without it crashing when i try and load the tab with the UITableView. What should I do to get data into this table, either in IB or code? My ideas are as follows: Implement custom UITableView class, hook up to table view in IB or to custom tableviewcontroller in Xcode. Pound head or laptop against the wall until it works. Update: Here's the error the simulator pushes to the console when I connect the Tableview's data source and delegate to File Owner (who's class is my custom tableviewcontroller). 2/14/09 6:59:12 PM TabBarWillbeRight[33172] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '* -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x523760'

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  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

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  • Expression Tree with Property Inheritance causes an argument exception

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Following this post: link text I'm trying to create an expression tree that references the property of a property. My code looks like this: public interface IFoo { void X {get;set;} } public interface IBar : IFoo { void Y {get;set;} } public interface IFooBarContainer { IBar Bar {get;set;} } public class Filterer { //Where T = "IFooBarContainer" public IQueryable<T> Filter<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection) { var argument = Expression.Parameter(typeof (T), "item"); //... //where propertyName = "IBar.X"; PropertyOfProperty(argument, propertyName); } private static MemberExpression PropertyOfProperty(Expression expr, string propertyName) { return propertyName.Split('.').Aggregate<string, MemberExpression>(null, (current, property) => Expression.Property(current ?? expr, property)); } } I receive the exception: System.ArgumentException: Instance property 'X' is not defined for type 'IBar' ReSharper turned the code in the link above into the condensed statement in my example. Both forms of the method returned the same error. If I reference IBar.Y the method does not fail.

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  • TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

    - by Pharao2k
    I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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  • Connect xampp to MongoDB

    - by Jhonny D. Cano -Leftware-
    Hello I have a xampp 1.7.3 instance running and a MongoDB 1.2.4 server on the same machine. I want to connect them, so I basically have been following this tutorial on php.net, it seems to connect but the cursors are always empty. I don't know what am I missing. Here is the code I am trying. The cursor-valid always says false. thanks <?php $m = new Mongo(); // connect try { $m->connect(); } catch (MongoConnectionException $ex) { echo $ex; } echo "conecta..."; $dbs = $m->listDBs(); if ($dbs == NULL) { echo $m->lastError(); return; } foreach($dbs as $db) { echo $db; } $db = $m->selectDB("CDO"); echo "elige bd..."; $col = $db->selectCollection("rep_consulta"); echo "elige col..."; $rangeQuery = array('id' => array( '$gt' => 100)); $col->insert(array('id' => 456745764, 'nombre' => 'cosa')); $cursor = $col->find()->limit(10); echo "buscando..."; var_dump($cursor); var_dump($cursor->valid()); if ($cursor == NULL) echo 'cursor null'; while($cursor->hasNext()) { $item = $cursor->current(); echo "en while..."; echo $item["nombre"].'...'; } ?> doing this by command line works perfect use CDO db.rep_consulta.find() -- lot of data here

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  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

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  • _resignRootViewController causes app to crash.

    - by RickiG
    [MainViewController _resignRootViewController]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4ebfe50 This error happens when I try to pop my MainViewController Object from within it self: - (void) switchToTableView { //a method on the MainViewController [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [[UIApplication applicationDelegate] switchToTableView]; //convenience method for the app delegate } The debugger stops at the [super dealloc] command in MainViewControllers dealloc method. I do the exact same thing in the TripTableViewController, but here it never crashes. MainViewController and TripTableViewController are handled in my AppDelegate like this: - (void) switchToTableView { TripTableViewController *tripTableViewController = [[TripTableViewController alloc] init]; [[self.navigationController navigationBar] setHidden:NO]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:tripTableViewController animated:NO]; [tripTableViewController release]; } - (void) switchToScrollView { MainViewController *scrollView = [[MainViewController alloc] init]; [[self.navigationController navigationBar] setHidden:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:scrollView animated:NO]; [scrollView release]; } I am trying to achieve that when the user goes from TripTableViewController to MainViewController; TripTableViewController is released/popped and visa versa for the MainViewController. I do not wish for the navigationController to make the decision about when to pop/cache/release them, this is why I try to do it from within it self. I have not been able to find the _resignRootViewController mentioned anywhere. My guess is that it is a delegate message sent by a ViewController that resigns as rootViewController for a navigationController and that somehow it is called twice, once before MainViewCOntroller is released/popped and somehow again afterwards. Have any one else seen this error message before? Google and the Apple Docs does not mention it? How can I debug such an error? Hope someone can guide me in the right direction on this one, Thanks:)

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