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  • How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

    - by Ron Klein
    Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

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  • img onload doesn't work well in IE7

    - by rmeador
    I have an img tag in my webapp that uses the onload handler to resize the image: <img onLoad="SizeImage(this);" src="foo" > This works fine in Firefox 3, but fails in IE7 because the image object being passed to the SizeImage() function has a width and height of 0 for some reason -- maybe IE calls the function before it finishes loading?. In researching this, I have discovered that other people have had this same problem with IE. I have also discovered that this isn't valid HTML 4. This is our doctype, so I don't know if it's valid or not: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Is there a reasonable solution for resizing an image as it is loaded, preferably one that is standards-compliant? The image is being used for the user to upload a photo of themselves, which can be nearly any size, and we want to display it at a maximum of 150x150. If your solution is to resize the image server-side on upload, I know that is the correct solution, but I am forbidden from implementing it :( It must be done client side, and it must be done on display. Thanks. Edit: Due to the structure of our app, it is impractical (bordering on impossible) to run this script in the document's onload. I can only reasonably edit the image tag and the code near it (for instance I could add a <script> right below it). Also, we already have Prototype and EXT JS libraries... management would prefer to not have to add another (some answers have suggested jQuery). If this can be solved using those frameworks, that would be great. Edit 2: Unfortunately, we must support Firefox 3, IE 6 and IE 7. It is desirable to support all Webkit-based browsers as well, but as our site doesn't currently support them, we can tolerate solutions that only work in the Big 3.

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  • How to avoid serializing zero values with Simple Xml

    - by Bram Vandenbussche
    I'm trying to serialise an object using simple xml (http://simple.sourceforge.net/). The object setup is pretty simple: @Root(name = "order_history") public class OrderHistory { @Element(name = "id", required = false) public int ID; @Element(name = "id_order_state") public int StateID; @Element(name = "id_order") public int OrderID; } The problem is when I create a new instance of this class without an ID: OrderHistory newhistory = new OrderHistory(); newhistory.OrderID = _orderid; newhistory.StateID = _stateid; and I serialize it via simple xml: StringWriter xml = new StringWriter(); Serializer serializer = new Persister(); serializer.write(newhistory, xml); it still reads 0 in the resulting xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <order_history> <id>0</id> <id_order>2</id_order> <id_order_state>8</id_order_state> </order_history> I'm guessing the reason for this is that the ID property is not null, since integers can't be null. But I really need to get rid of this node, and I'd rather not remove it manually. Any clues anyone?

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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • C# WinForms. Multiple Forms in separate threads

    - by Calum Murray
    I'm trying to run an ATM Simulation in C# with Windows Forms that can have more than one instance of an ATM machine transacting with a bank account simultaneously. The idea is to use semaphores/locking to block critical code that may lead to race conditions. My question is this: How can I run two Forms simultaneously on separate threads? In particular, how does all of this fit in with the Application.Run() that's already there? Here's my main class: public class Bank { private Account[] ac = new Account[3]; private ATM atm; public Bank() { ac[0] = new Account(300, 1111, 111111); ac[1] = new Account(750, 2222, 222222); ac[2] = new Account(3000, 3333, 333333); Application.Run(new ATM(ac)); } static void Main(string[] args) { new Bank(); } } ...that I want to run two of these forms on separate threads... public partial class ATM : Form { //local reference to the array of accounts private Account[] ac; //this is a reference to the account that is being used private Account activeAccount = null; private static int stepCount = 0; private string buffer = ""; // the ATM constructor takes an array of account objects as a reference public ATM(Account[] ac) { InitializeComponent(); //Sets up Form ATM GUI in ATM.Designer.cs this.ac = ac; } ... I've tried using Thread ATM2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(/*What goes in here?*/)); But what method do I put in the ThreadStart constructor, since the ATM form is event-driven and there's no one method controlling it? Thanks, Calum

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • Too many false positives when using FxCop.

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. We are using FxCop and it generates too many false positives to our liking. For instance, if a private method is invoked using reflection, then this method is reported as potentially unused - understandable and we suppress this warning explicitly using the SuppressMessage attribute. However, FxCop reports the same warning for the methods invoked from that method, which we already suppressed warnings about. This is stupid and generates too much noise. There are also false reports on member variables used in these methods. Also, there are problems with generic types (I even saw something about it in MS connect). Anyway, I am wondering if anyone knows whether Microsoft is going to upgrade FxCop, because it seems to be stuck in version 1.36 for a long time. BTW, I we do not use StyleCop, because it is way too picky and we just do not have the time to examine all the zillion messages in order to suppress them all. Besides, the StyleCop report seem to augment, rather than replace FxCop. Maybe anyone can suggest a good alternative to FxCop? We are using VS2008 pro. Thanks.

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  • Controls added in the designer are null during Page_Load

    - by mwright
    All of the names below are generic and not the actual names used. I have a custom UserControl with a Panel that contains a a couple Labels, both .aspx controls. .aspx: <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label1" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label2" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> Codebehind: private readonly Object object; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // These are the lines that are failing // label1 and label2 are null label1.Text = object.Value1; label2.Text = object.Value2; } public ObjectRow(Object objectToDisplay) { object = objectToDisplay; } On another page, in the code behind, I create a new instance of the custom user control. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { CustomControl control = new CustomControl(object); } The user control takes the parameter and attempts to set the labels based off of the object passed in. The labels that it tries to assign the values to are however, null. Is this an ASP.net lifecycle issue that I'm not understanding? My understanding based on the Microsoft ASP.net lifecycle page was that page controls were available after the Page_Initialization. What is the proper way to do this? Is there a better way?

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  • Create image from scratch with JMagick

    - by Michael IV
    I am using Java port of ImageMagick called JMagick .I need to be able to create a new image and write an arbitrary text chunk into it.The docs are very poor and what I managed to get so far is to write text into the image which comes from IO.Also , in all the examples I have found it seems like the very first operation ,before writing new image data , is always loading of an existing image into ImageInfo instance.How do I create an image from scratch with JMagick and then write a text into it? Here is what I do now : try { ImageInfo info = new ImageInfo(); info.setSize("512x512"); info.setUnits(ResolutionType.PixelsPerInchResolution); info.setColorspace(ColorspaceType.RGBColorspace); info.setBorderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("red")); info.setDepth(8); BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(512,512,BufferedImage.TYPE_4BYTE_ABGR); byte[] imageBytes = ((DataBufferByte) img.getData().getDataBuffer()).getData(); MagickImage mimage = new MagickImage(info,imageBytes); DrawInfo aInfo = new DrawInfo(info); aInfo.setFill(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("green")); aInfo.setUnderColor(PixelPacket.queryColorDatabase("yellow")); aInfo.setOpacity(0); aInfo.setPointsize(36); aInfo.setFont("Arial"); aInfo.setTextAntialias(true); aInfo.setText("JMagick Tutorial"); aInfo.setGeometry("+40+40"); mimage.annotateImage(aInfo); mimage.setFileName("text.jpg"); mimage.writeImage(info); } catch (MagickException ex) { Logger.getLogger(LWJGL_IDOMOO_SIMPLE_TEST.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } It doesn't work , the JVM crashes with access violation as it probably expects for the input image from IO.

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  • java Properties - to expose or not to expose?

    - by ring bearer
    This might be an age old problem and I am sure everyone has their own ways. Suppose I have some properties defined such as secret.user.id=user secret.password=password website.url=http://stackoverflow.com Suppose I have 100 different classes and places where I need to use these properties. Which one is good (1) I create a Util class that will load all properties and serve them using a key constant Such as : Util is a singleton that loads all properties and keeps up on getInstance() call. Util myUtil = Util.getInstance(); String user = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_USER_ID); String password = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_PASSWORD); .. //getConfigByKey() - inturns invokes properties.get(..) doSomething(user, password) So wherever I need these properties, I can do steps above. (2) I create a meaningful Class to represent these properties; say, ApplicationConfig and provide getters to get specific properties. So above code may look like: ApplicationConfig config = ApplicationConfig.getInstance(); doSomething(config.getSecretUserId(), config.getPassword()); //ApplicationConfig would have instance variables that are initialized during // getInstance() after loading from properties file. Note: The properties file as such will have only minor changes in the future. My personal choice is (2) - let me hear some comments?

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • Spring Security 3.0 - Intercept-URL - All pages require authentication but one

    - by gav
    Hi All, I want any user to be able to submit their name to a volunteer form but only administrators to be able to view any other URL. Unfortunately I don't seem to be able to get this correct. My resources.xml are as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http realm = "BumBumTrain Personnel list requires you to login" auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans> Specifically I am trying to achieve the access settings I described via; <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> Could someone please describe how to use intercept-url to achieve the outcome I've described? Thanks Gav

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  • REST API error return good practices

    - by Remus Rusanu
    I'm looking for guidance on good practices when it comes to return errors from a REST API. I'm working on a new API so I can take it any direction right now. My content type is XML at the moment, but I plan to support JSON in future. I am now adding some error cases, like for instance a client attempts to add a new resource but has exceeded his storage quota. I am already handling certain error cases with HTTP status codes (401 for authentication, 403 for authorization and 404 for plain bad request URIs). I looked over the blessed HTTP error codes but none of the 400-417 range seems right to report application specific errors. So at first I was tempted to return my application error with 200 OK and a specific XML payload (ie. Pay us more and you'll get the storage you need!) but I stopped to think about it and it seems to soapy (/shrug in horror). Besides it feels like I'm splitting the error responses into distinct cases, as some are http status code driven and other are content driven. So what is the SO crowd recommendation? Good practices (please explain why!) and also, from a client pov, what kind of error handling in the REST API makes life easier for the client code?

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  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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  • How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • Use of unassigned local variable 'dictionary'

    - by codemonkie
    I got the error Use of unassigned local variable 'dictionary' despite I assigned the value in the following code: private static void UpdateJadProperties(Uri jadUri, Uri jarUri, Uri notifierUri) { Dictionary<String, String> dictionary; try { String[] jadFileContent; // Create an instance of StreamReader to read from a file. // The using statement also closes the StreamReader. using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(jadUri.AbsolutePath.ToString())) { Char[] delimiters = { '\r', '\n' }; jadFileContent = sr.ReadToEnd().Split(delimiters, System.StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); } // @@NOTE: Keys contain ": " suffix, values don't! dictionary = jadFileContent.ToDictionary(x => x.Substring(0, x.IndexOf(':') + 2), x => x.Substring(x.IndexOf(':') + 2)); } catch (Exception e) { // Let the user know what went wrong. Console.WriteLine("The file could not be read:"); Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } try { if (dictionary.ContainsKey("MIDlet-Jar-URL: ")) { // Change the value by Remove follow by Add } } catch (ArgumentNullException ane) { throw; } } The error is from the line: if (dictionary.ContainsKey("MIDlet-Jar-URL: ")) Can any one help me out here, pls? TIA

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  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

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  • Reflection: cast an object to subclass without use instaceof

    - by Fabrizio
    I have this simple interface/class: public abstract class Message { } public class Message1 extends Message{ } public class Message2 extends Message{ } And an utility class: public class Utility { public void handler(Message m){ System.out.println("Interface: Message"); } public void handler(Message1 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message1"); } public void handler(Message2 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message2"); } } Now, the main class: public static void main(String[] args) { Utility p=new Utility(); Message1 m1=new Message1(); p.handler(m1); Message m=(Message) m1; p.handler(m); } The output is Class: Message1 Interface: Message I would that p.handler(m) call the method p.handler(m:Message1) I don't want use the "manual" command instanceof because I have many cases: if(m instance of Message1) p.handler((Message1)m) else if (m instanceof Message2) p.handler((Message2)m) ... If I call m.getClass() I obtain "mypackage.Message1", so the subclass and not the superclass. I try with this code (use reflection): p.handler(m.getClass().cast(m)); But the output is Interface: Message So, this is my problem. I would do a runtime cast of superclass object to subclassobject without use the "code command" istanceof. I would a right command like this: p.handler((m.getclass)m); How can I obtain it? It's possible? Thank in advance. Fabrizio

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  • Bind SQLiteDataReader to GridView in ASP.NET

    - by Charles Gargent
    Hi, this is all rather new to me, but I have searched for a good while and cant find any idea why I cant get this to work, dr looks like it is populated but I get this nullreferenceexeception when I try to bind to the gridview Thanks code SQLiteConnection cnn = new SQLiteConnection(@"Data Source=c:\log.db"); cnn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(@"SELECT * FROM evtlog", cnn); SQLiteDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView1.DataSource = dr; GridView1.DataBind(); dr.Close(); cnn.Close(); Codebehind <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> error Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at WPKG_Report.SiteMaster.Button1_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\Report\Site.Master.cs:line 32 at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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  • Show me your Linq to SQL architectures!

    - by Brad Heller
    I've been using Linq to SQL for a new implementation that I've been working on. I have about 5000 lines of code and am a little ways from a solid demo. I've been pretty satisfied with Linq to SQL so far -- the tools are excellent and pretty painless and it allows you to get a DAL up and running quickly. That said, there are some major draw backs that I just keep hitting over and over again. Namely how to handle separation of concerns between my DAL and my business layer and juggling that with different data contexts. Here is the architecture I've been using: My repositories do all my data access and they return Linq to SQL objects. Each of my Linq to SQL objects implements an IDetachable interface. A typical implementation looks like this: partial class PaymentDetail : IDetachable { #region IDetachable Members public bool IsAttached { get { return PropertyChanging != null; } } public void Detach() { if (IsAttached) { PropertyChanged = null; PropertyChanging = null; Transaction.Detach(); } } #endregion } Every time I do a DAL operation in my repository I "detach" when I'm done with the object (and it should theoretically detach from any child objects) to remove the DataContext's context. Like I said, this works pretty well, but there are some edge cases that seem to be a big pain in the ass. For instance, my Transaction object has many PaymentDetails. Even when there are no PaymentDetails in that collection it's still attached to the DataContext's context! Thus, if I try to update (I update by Attach()ing to the object and then SubmitChanges()) I get that dreaded "An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported." message. Anyway, I'm starting to doubt that this technology was a good gamble. Has anyone got a decent architecture that they're willing to share? I'd really love to use this technology but I feel like I spend 1/3 of my time just debugging is retarded quirks!

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  • Setting serial RS232 port settings; any in C# alternatives to SerialPort class ?

    - by adrin
    In my .NET application I need to achieve serial port setup equivalent to this C++ managed code: ::SetCommMask(m_hCOMM, EV_RXCHAR); ::SetupComm(m_hCOMM, 9*2*128*10, 400); ::PurgeComm(m_hCOMM, PURGE_TXABORT|PURGE_RXABORT|PURGE_TXCLEAR|PURGE_RXCLEAR); COMMTIMEOUTS timeOut; timeOut.ReadIntervalTimeout = 3; timeOut.ReadTotalTimeoutConstant = 3; timeOut.ReadTotalTimeoutMultiplier = 1; timeOut.WriteTotalTimeoutConstant = 0; timeOut.WriteTotalTimeoutMultiplier= 0; int nRet= ::SetCommTimeouts(m_hCOMM, &timeOut); ::EscapeCommFunction(m_hCOMM, SETDTR); ::EscapeCommFunction(m_hCOMM, SETRTS); DCB dcb; memset(&dcb, 0, sizeof(DCB)); dcb.BaudRate= m_nSpeed; dcb.ByteSize= 8; dcb.fParity = FALSE; dcb.Parity = NOPARITY; dcb.StopBits= ONESTOPBIT; dcb.fBinary = TRUE; dcb.fDsrSensitivity= FALSE; dcb.fOutxDsrFlow= FALSE; dcb.fOutxCtsFlow= FALSE; dcb.fDtrControl = DTR_CONTROL_HANDSHAKE; dcb.fRtsControl = RTS_CONTROL_TOGGLE; nRet= ::SetCommState(m_hCOMM, &dcb); Is it possible at all? How do I approach this problem? Are there any (preferable free) libraries that allow such low level serial port control or should I create my own wrapper on top of Win32 api? Anyone did anything similar or has an idea how to 'glue' win32 serial port api with .net so that I can use neat .NET DataReceived() events ? Or maybe I can create .NET SerialPort instance and then modify it using managed API?

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  • Applets failing to load

    - by Roy Tang
    While testing our setup for user acceptance testing, we got some reports that java applets in our web application would occasionally fail to load. The envt where it was reported was WinXP/IE6, and there were no errors found in the java console. Obviously we'd like to avoid it. What sort of things should we be checking for here? On our local servers, everything seems fine. There's some turnaround time when sending questions to the on-site guy, so I'd look to cover as many possible causes as possible. Some more info: We have multiple applets, in the instance that they fail loading, all of them fail loading. The applet jar files vary in size from 2MB to 8MB. I'm told it seems more likely to happen if the applet isn't cached yet, i.e. if they've been able to load the applets once on a given machine, further runs on that machine go smoothly. I'm wondering if there's some sort of network transfer error when downloading the applets, but I don't know how to verify that. Any advise is welcome!

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  • Jquery Cluetip - clean up between ajax loaded content

    - by ted776
    Hi, I'm using the jquery cluetip plugin and trying to figure out how to remove any open cluetip dialogs once i load new content via ajax. I am either stuck with the dialog boxes still showing on top of new content, or the ways i've tried to fix this actually remove all future cluetip dialogs from showing at all. Here's my code, thanks for any help. On dom ready i instantiate cluetip as below. //activate cluetip $('a.jTip').cluetip({ attribute: 'href', cluetipClass: 'jtip', arrows: true, activation: 'click', ajaxCache: false, dropShadow: true, sticky: true, mouseOutClose: false, closePosition: 'title' }); When i'm loading new content, I have the following code. The problem i have is that $('.cluetip-jtip').empty() prevents dialog boxes from opening on any of the new content loaded in, while the destroy function doesn't remove any open dialog boxes, but just destroys the current object. $('.next a').live("click", function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href'); var $data = $('#main_body #content'); $.validationEngine.closePrompt('body'); //close any validation messages $data.fadeOut('fast', function(){ $data.load(toLoad, function(){ $data.animate({ opacity: 'show' }, 'fast'); //reinitialise datepicker and toolip $(".date").date_input(); //JT_init(); $('.hidden').hide(); //scroll to top of form $("html,body").animate({ "scrollTop": $('#content').offset().top + "px" }); //remove existing instance //$('a.jTip').cluetip('destroy'); //remove any opened popups $('.cluetip-jtip').empty(); //reinitialise cluetip $('a.jTip').cluetip({ attribute: 'href', cluetipClass: 'jtip', arrows: true, activation: 'click', ajaxCache: false, dropShadow: true, sticky: true, mouseOutClose: false, closePosition: 'title' }); }); }); return false; });

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  • How do I implement page authorizaton in ASP.NET using a SQL store instead of web.config?

    - by drachenstern
    For instance, the way we're doing it now is like thus: (in the web.config) <location path="somePath"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="approvedRoles"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> And what I would like to do instead is to store this information in SQL somewhere so that we can manipulate the information more easily. But we want to keep the same functionality that having the information in web.config provides, just like we can use a SqlRoleProvider instead of hardcoding roles in the app. So in other words, if a user currently tries to goto "somePath" and they're not a member of "approvedRoles" then they get redirected back to default.aspx, and if they are a member of "approvedRoles" then they get the page. I want to do the same thing, but without using web.config as the authorization mechanism. So what I'm NOT asking is how do I go about defining roles, or how do I handle logging in to the database, but specifically how do I store the above information in SQL instead of web.config. Actually, I'll take "anywhere but web.config" for now. Any ideas? Is this possible using a "Provider" class? I'm just looking for pointers on what to inherit and maybe some technet documentation. In this regard my googlefoo is lacking since I don't really know where to point. Am I really only looking for AzMan? Is this location-authorization-via-SQL already defined in the default aspnetdb somewhere and I'm missing it? For that matter, has this question already been asked on SO and I've missed it? What would you google?

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  • Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

    - by BlueRaja
    Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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