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  • Email Collector / Implementation

    - by Tian
    I am implementing a simple RoR webpage that collect emails from visitors and store them as objects. I'm using it as a mini-project to try RoR and BDD. I can think of 3 features for Cucumber: 1. User submits a valid email address 2. User submits an existing email address 3. User submits an invalid email My question is, for scenarios 2 and 3, is it better to handle this via the controller? or as methods in a class? Perhaps something that throws errors if an instance is instantiated in sceanrio 2 or 3? Implementation is below, love to hear some code reviews in addition to answers to questions above. Thanks! MODEL: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessor :email end VIEW: <h1>Welcome To My Experiment</h1> <p>Find me in app/views/welcome/index.html.erb</p> <%= flash[:notice] %> <% form_for @contact, :url => {:action => "index"} do |f| %> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' %> <% end %> CONTROLLER: class WelcomeController < ApplicationController def index @contact = Contact.new unless params[:contact].nil? @contact = Contact.create!(params[:contact]) flash[:notice] = "Thank you for your interest, please check your mailbox for confirmation" end end end

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  • Apache - "dynamic" rewrite rule

    - by Christian A. Rasmussen
    Hi there. I'm working on a Zend Framework project where I've stumbled across a bit of a problem. The problem originates from the fact that modules are 2nd class citizens in Zend Framework. In my project, I'd like for each module to have a folder containing files which are to be accessed from the outside - files such as stylesheets, javascripts and images. Now, how is this to be done. With a Zend Framework project I have a folder structure which looks like this: application/ modules/ moduleOne/ public/ stylesheet.css moduleTwo/ moduleThree/ public/ index.php The standard .htaccess file located in the public/ folder holds this: SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] The way it works, is that the project's apache DocumentRoot is the public/ folder. All requests gets redirected through the index.php file where Zend Framework's router component takes over. Now, I'm by no means an expert with Apache nor mod_rewrite so pardon me if this is just silly. I imagine that I implement an extra step in the existing rewrite rule so that if I request http://project/public/moduleOne/stylesheet.css it will for instance resolve to /var/www/project/application/modules/moduleOne/public/stylesheet.css. So the steps which need to be done is to check if the first element in the URI is public/ if it is, we take the next segment as the modules name and use that in the path we're trying to resolve to and attempt to serve the file. Is this at all possible or does anyone have a better suggestion? Thank you for your time Christian Rasmussen

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  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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  • How do you implement a good profanity filter?

    - by Ben Throop
    Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

    - by manivineet
    I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

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  • Does isEmpty method in Stream evaluate the whole Stream?

    - by abhin4v
    In Scala, does calling isEmtpy method on an instance of Stream class cause the stream to be evaluated completely? My code is like this: import Stream.cons private val odds: Stream[Int] = cons(3, odds.map(_ + 2)) private val primes: Stream[Int] = cons(2, odds filter isPrime) private def isPrime(n: Int): Boolean = n match { case 1 => false case 2 => true case 3 => true case 5 => true case 7 => true case x if n % 3 == 0 => false case x if n % 5 == 0 => false case x if n % 7 == 0 => false case x if (x + 1) % 6 == 0 || (x - 1) % 6 == 0 => true case x => primeDivisors(x) isEmpty } import Math.{sqrt, ceil} private def primeDivisors(n: Int) = primes takeWhile { _ <= ceil(sqrt(n))} filter {n % _ == 0 } So, does the call to isEmpty on the line case x => primeDivisors(x) isEmpty cause all the prime divisors to be evaluated or only the first one?

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  • How do I setup NInject? (i.e.

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC View ReRenders Part of Itself

    - by Jason
    In all my years of .NET programming I have not run across a bug as weird as this one. I discovered the problem because some elements on the page were getting double-bound by jQuery. After some (ridiculous) debugging, I finally discovered that once the view is completely done rendering itself and all its children partial views, it goes back to an arbitrary yet consistent location and re-renders itself. I have been pulling my hair out about this for two days now and I simply cannot get it to render itself only once! For lack of any better debugging idea, I've painstakingly added logging tracers throughout the HTML just so I can pin down what may be causing this. For instance, this code ($log just logs to the console): ... <script type="text/javascript">var x = 0; $log('1');</script> <div id="new-ad-form"> <script type="text/javascript">x++;$log('1.5', x);</script> ... will yield ... <--- this happens before this snippet 1 1.5 1 ... 10 <--- bottom of my form, after snippet 1.5 2 <--- beginning of part that runs again! ... 9 <--- this happens after this snippet I've searched my codebase high and low, but there is NOTHING that says that it should re-render part of a page. I'm wondering if the jQueryUI has anything to do with it, as #new-ad-form is the container for a jQueryUI dialog box. If this is potentially the case, here's my init code for that: $('#new-ad-form').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, width: 470, title: 'Create A New Ad', position: ['center', 35], close: AdEditor.reset });

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  • Copy vector of values to vector of pairs in one line

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    I have the following types: struct X { int x; X( int val ) : x(val) {} }; struct X2 { int x2; X2() : x2() {} }; typedef std::pair<X, X2> pair_t; typedef std::vector<pair_t> pairs_vec_t; typedef std::vector<X> X_vec_t; I need to initialize instance of pairs_vec_t with values from X_vec_t. I use the following code and it works as expected: int main() { pairs_vec_t ps; X_vec_t xs; // this is not empty in the production code ps.reserve( xs.size() ); { // I want to change this block to one line code. struct get_pair { pair_t operator()( const X& value ) { return std::make_pair( value, X2() ); } }; std::transform( xs.begin(), xs.end(), back_inserter(ps), get_pair() ); } return 0; } What I'm trying to do is to reduce my copying block to one line with using boost::bind. This code is not working: for_each( xs.begin(), xs.end(), boost::bind( &pairs_vec_t::push_back, ps, boost::bind( &std::make_pair, _1, X2() ) ) ); I know why it is not working, but I want to know how to make it working without declaring extra functions and structs?

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • Building Reducisaurus URLs

    - by Alix Axel
    I'm trying to use Reducisaurus Web Service to minify CSS and Javascript but I've run into a problem... Suppose I've two unminified CSS at: http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/typography.php?font=Arial According to the docs I should call the web service like this: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red And if I want to minify both CSS files at once: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url1=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&url2=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red If I wanted to specify a different number of seconds for the cache (3600 for instance) I would use: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&expire_urls=3600 And again for both CSS files at once: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url1=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&url2=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&expire_urls=3600 Now my question is, how does Reducisaurus knows how to separate the URLs I want? How does it know that &expire_urls=3600 is not part of my URL? And how does it know that &url2=... is not a GET argument of url1? I'm I doing this right? Do I need to urlencode my URLs? I took a peek into the source code and although my Java is very poor it seems that the methods acquireFromRemoteUrl() and getSortedParameterNames() from the BaseServlet.java file hold the answers to my question - if a GET argument name contains - or _ they should be ignored?! What about multiple &url(n)s?

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • WPF DataBinding to standard CLR properties in code-behind

    - by nukefusion
    Hi everyone, Just learning WPF databinding and have a gap in my understanding. I've seen a few similar questions on StackOverflow, but I'm still struggling in determining what I have done wrong. I have a simple Person class with a Firstname and Surname property (standard CLR properties). I also have a standard CLR property on my Window class that exposes an instance of Person. I've then got some XAML, with two methods of binding. The first works, the second doesn't. Can anybody help me to understand why the second method fails? There's no binding error message in the Output log. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=MyPerson}"> <StackPanel> <Label>My Person</Label> <WrapPanel> <Label>First Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Window, Mode=FindAncestor}, Path=MyPerson.FirstName}"></Label> </WrapPanel> <WrapPanel> <Label>Last Name:</Label> <Label Content="{Binding MyPerson.Surname}"></Label> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> Edit: Ok, thanks so far. I've changed the second expression to: <Label Content="{Binding Surname}"></Label> I still can't get it to work though!

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  • What IDE setup and workflow is used for OSGi development?

    - by Falx
    I made quite a few easy OSGi test projects in Eclipse RCP. My typical workflow would always be: Make 3 different projects: APIproject, Clientproject and Serverproject Edit the MANIFEST.MF of APIproject to export the api package Edit the MANIFEST.MF file of Clientproject and Serverproject to add the required API package Choose "Run as..." "Plugin Framework" OSGi console starts in eclipse and everything seems to work I also tried wiring things by using Declarative Services, which worked well like this too. Now recently I wanted to try out iPOJO. The problem is that I get the feeling that I've been doing my OSGi development the wrong way. Can it be that I should instead make 1 project en make it work like no OSGi is involved. And then afterwards, just export each package to its own bundle by means of (for instance) the BNDL tool? Should development be done in a normal Eclipse (java, not RCP) or any other java IDE for that matter? So that's why I have these questions: What IDE setup is normally used to develop OSGi with iPOJO? And what is the normal workflow to be used when developing OSGi projects (maybe with iPOJO)?

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  • how to get the real bounds with google maps when fully zoomed out

    - by brad
    I have a map that shows location points based on the gbounds of the map. For example, any time the map is moved/zoomed, i find the bounds and query for locations that fall within those bounds. Unfortunately I'm unable to display all my locations when fully zoomed out. Reason being, gmaps reports the min/max long as whatever is at the edge of the map, but if you zoom out enough, you can get a longitudinal range that excludes visible locations. For instance, if you zoom your map so that you see NorthAmerica twice, on the far left and far right. The min/max long are around: -36.5625 to 170.15625. But this almost completely excludes NorthAmerica which lies in the -180 to -60 range. Obviously this is bothersome as you can actually see the continent NorthAmerica (twice), but when I query my for locations in the range from google maps, NorthAmerica isn't returned. My code for finding the min/max long is: bounds = gmap.getBounds(); min_lat = bounds.getSouthWest().lat() max_lat = bounds.getNorthEast().lat() Has anyone encountered this and can anyone suggest a workaround? Off the top of my head I can only thing of a hack: to check the zoom level and hardcode the min/max lats to -180/180 if necessary, which is definitely unacceptable.

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  • What do I need to do to make sure my app launches as Admin?

    - by John Gietzen
    I'm writing an app that allows you to script the buttons from a wiimote into actions on your PC. It currently supports all of the features of the main remote control, except for the speaker. Now, I'm running in to trouble when I run it on Vista with UAC turned on. Any time a UAC'd window has focus, my app fails to move the mouse successfully. For instance, when an installer is run, I have to navigate it with the keyboard. Will running the app as administrator solve my problem? (At one point in time, I was able to successfully move the mouse over a UAC-password-entry box) How do I build a manifest that will tell windows to "run as administrator"? How do I embed this manifest into my app, if I'm strongly naming my assembly? How do I sign my application with an Authenticode cert? EDIT: Ok, so after some more extensive research, I have found: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker|highestAvailable|requireAdministrator" uiAccess="true|false"/> However, the article says: Applications with the uiAccess flag set to true must be Authenticode signed to start properly. In addition, the application must reside in a protected location in the file system. \Program Files\ and \windows\system32\ are currently the two allowable protected locations. I have edited the question to reflect the new developments.

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  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

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  • Create an SQL Express 2008 database in C# code, but login fails when trying to connect with a sysadm

    - by Andrés Gonzales
    I have a piece of code that creates an SQL Server Express 2008 in runtime, and then tries to connect to it to execute a database initialization script in Transact-SQL. The code that creates the database is the following: private void CreateDatabase() { using (var connection = new SqlConnection( "Data Source=.\\sqlexpress;Initial Catalog=master;" + "Integrated Security=true;User Instance=True;")) { connection.Open(); using (var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "CREATE DATABASE " + m_databaseFilename + " ON PRIMARY (NAME=" + m_databaseFilename + ", FILENAME='" + this.m_basePath + m_databaseFilename + ".mdf')"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } The database is created successfully. After that, I try to connect to the database to run the initialization script, by using the following code: private void ExecuteQueryFromFile(string filename) { string queryContent = File.ReadAllText(m_filePath + filename); this.m_connectionString = string.Format( @"Server=.\SQLExpress; Integrated Security=true;Initial Catalog={0};", m_databaseFilename); using (var connection = new SqlConnection(m_connectionString)) { connection.Open(); using (var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = queryContent; command.CommandTimeout = 0; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } However, the connection.Open() statement fails, throwing the following exception: Cannot open database "TestData" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'MYDOMAIN\myusername'. I am completely puzzled by this error because the account I am trying to connect with has sysadmin privileges, which should allow me to connect any database (notice that I use a connection to the master database to create the database in the first place).

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  • Applying policy based design question

    - by Arthur
    I've not read the Modern C++ Design book but have found the idea of behavior injection through templates interesting. I am now trying to apply it myself. I have a class that has a logger that I thought could be injected as a policy. The logger has a log() method which takes an std::string or std::wstring depending on its policy: // basic_logger.hpp template<class String> class basic_logger { public: typedef String string_type; void log(const string_type & s) { ... } }; typedef basic_logger<std::string> logger; typedef basic_logger<std::wstring> wlogger; // reader.hpp template<class Logger = logger> class reader { public: typedef Logger logger_type; void read() { _logger.log("Reading..."); } private: logger_type _logger; }; Now the questing is, should the reader take a Logger as an argument, like above, or should it take a String and then instantiate a basic_logger as an instance variable? Like so: template<class String> class reader { public: typedef String string_type; typedef basic_logger<string_type> logger_type; // ... private: logger_type _logger; }; What is the right way to go?

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  • [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

    - by blow
    Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • Error handling in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We're building a PHP app based on Good old MVC (codeigniter framework) and have run into trouble with a massive chained action that consists of multiple model calls, that together is a part of a big transaction to the database. We want to be able to do a list of actions and get a status report of each one back from the function, whatever the outcome is. Our first initial idea was to utilize the exceptions of PHP5, but since we want to also need status messages that doesnt break the execution of the script, this was our solution that we came up with. It goes a little something like this: $sku = $this->addSku( $name ); if ($sku === false) { $status[] = 'Something gone terrible wrong'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } $image= $this->addImage( $filename); if ($image=== false) { $error[] = 'Image could not be uploaded, check filesize'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } Our controller looks like this: $var = $this->products->addProductGroup($array); if (is_array($var)) { foreach ($var as $error) { echo $error . '<br />'; } } It appears to be a very fragile solution to do what we need, but it's neither scalable, neither effective when compared to pure PHP exceptions for instance. Is this really the way that this kind of stuff generally is handled in MVC based apps? Thanks!

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  • std::locale breakage on MacOS 10.6 with LANG=en_US.UTF-8

    - by fixermark
    I have a C++ application that I am porting to MacOSX (specifically, 10.6). The app makes heavy use of the C++ standard library and boost. I recently observed some breakage in the app that I'm having difficulty understanding. Basically, the boost filesystem library throws a runtime exception when the program runs. With a bit of debugging and googling, I've reduced the offending call to the following minimal program: #include <locale> int main ( int argc, char *argv [] ) { std::locale::global(std::locale("")); return 0; } This program fails when I run this through g++ and execute the resulting program in an environment where LANG=en_US.UTF-8 is set (which on my computer is part of the default bash session when I create a new console window). Clearing the environment variable (setenv LANG=) allows the program to run without issues. But I'm surprised I'm seeing this breakage in the default configuration. My questions are: Is this expected behavior for this code on MacOS 10.6? What would a proper workaround be? I can't really re-write the function because the version of the boost libraries we are using executes this statement internally as part of the filesystem library. For completeness, I should point out that the program from which this code was synthesized crashes when launched via the 'open' command (or from the Finder) but not when Xcode runs the program in Debug mode. edit The error given by the above code on 10.6.1 is: $ ./locale terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): locale::facet::_S_create_c_locale name not valid Abort trap

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