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• Link compatibility between C++ and D

  - by Caspin

  D easily interfaces with C. D just as easily interfaces with C++, but (and it's a big but) the C++ needs to be extremely trivial. The code cannot use: namespaces templates multiple inheritance mix virtual with non-virtual methods more? I completely understand the inheritance restriction. The rest however, feel like artificial limitations. Now I don't want to be able to use std::vector<T> directly, but I would really like to be able to link with std::vector<int> as an externed template. The C++ interfacing page has this particularly depressing comment. D templates have little in common with C++ templates, and it is very unlikely that any sort of reasonable method could be found to express C++ templates in a link-compatible way with D. This means that the C++ STL, and C++ Boost, likely will never be accessible from D. Admittedly I'll probably never need std::vector while coding in D, but I'd love to use QT or boost. So what's the deal. Why is it so hard to express non-trivial C++ classes in D? Would it not be worth it to add some special annotations or something to express at least namespaces?

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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• Serializing a class containing a custom class

  - by Netfangled

  I want to serialize an object as xml that contains other custom classes. From what I understand (I've been reading MSDN and SO mostly), the XmlSerializer doesn't take this into account. This is the line that's confusing me: XML serialization serializes only the public fields and property values of an object into an XML stream. XML serialization does not include type information. For example, if you have a Book object that exists in the Library namespace, there is no guarantee that it will be deserialized into an object of the same type. Taken from MSDN, here For example, I want to serialize an object of type Order, but it contains a list of Products, and each one contains an object of type Category: class Order { List<Product> products; } class Product { Category type; } class Category { string name; string description; } And I want my Order object to be serialized like so: <Order> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Order> Does the XmlSerializer already do this? If not, is there another class that does or do I have to define the serialization process myself?

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• JSP displaying source code instead of executing

  - by DJStroky

  I'm new to jsp and have ran into some trouble. Initially, the jsp file and associated java classes were built and tested fine on a test Tomcat server. Now, they've been transitioned to another server of what I believe is the same setup (except it's linux now instead of windows). But when the jsp page is accessed the source code is displayed instead of the jsp actually executing. I've googled for a while but received no success. I had thought that this page might solve the problem since there was no reference to the jsp file I was using or even the following snippets in my web.xml file in the WEB-INF folder: <servlet> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>logVerbosityLevel</param-name> <param-value>WARNING</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>3</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I tried inserting these lines and restarting Tomcat, but no success. Any ideas?

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• jQuery validate problem

  - by tohop

  Hi there. I have a jquery dialog box that pops up and takes user data through a form. Once the user is finished s/he clicks the 'ok' button. This dialog box has a few 'tabs' such that when 'ok' is clicked, we want to validate all the data given in each tab. If anything is invalid, we take the user to that tab and tell them what's wrong. However, it takes 2 clicks of 'ok' to achieve this. Here is the offending jquery: if(errors){ // display the tab with the error jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){ alert('we are here'); if(jQuery(this).find('*').not('label').hasClass('invalid')){ jQuery('#recording_tabs').tabs('option','selected', i); return false;// prevent further processing } }); } So what happens in the above code is that when we click 'ok' we get a 'we are here' alert for each div (tab) and then nothing happens. Clicking 'ok' again gives us the 'we are here' alert up until we are taken to the tab with the errors. So obviously the first time round the inner if statement is false for each tab which probably means jQuery hasn't registered the 'invalid' classes in time. So I tried a blank each() statement just before the main one in the hope that it would fix the problem jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){} ); But I got the same result. Can anyone spot anything I am missing?

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• JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

  - by Jon

  This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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• How does a java compiler resolve a non-imported name

  - by gexicide

  Consider I use a type X in my java compilation unit from package foo.bar and X is not defined in the compilation unit itself nor is it directly imported. How does a java compiler resolve X now efficiently? There are a few possibilities where X could reside: X might be imported via a star import a.b.* X might reside in the same package as the compilation unit X might be a language type, i.e. reside in java.lang The problem I see is especially (2.). Since X might be a package-private type, it is not even required that X resides in a compilation unit that is named X.java. Thus, the compiler must look into all entries of the class path and search for any classes in a package foo.bar, it then must read every class that is in package foo.bar to check whether X is included. That sounds very expensive. Especially when I compile only a single file, the compiler has to read dozens of class files only to find a type X. If I use a lot of star imports, this procedure has to be repeated for a lot of types (although class files won't be read twice, of course). So is it advisable to import also types from the same package to speed up the compilation process? Or is there a faster method for resolving an unimported type X which I was not able to find?

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• Spring annotation-based container configuration context:include & exclude filters

  - by lisak

  Hey, first off I point to the similar question. I spent more than an hour to set this up, but PathMatchingResourcePatternResolver still scans everything. I have one common.xml (that is imported from specific.xml) and a specific.xml bean definition file. The context is loaded from specific.xml. In common.xml there is this element: <context:component-scan base-package="cz.instance.transl"> <context:exclude-filter type="aspectj" expression="cz.instance.transl.model..* &amp;&amp; cz.instance.transl.service..* &amp;&amp; cz.instance.transl.hooks..*"/> </context:component-scan> Where classes in packages like cz.instance.transl.service.* should not be subject of scanning, but everything else in here cz.instance.transl.* should be scanned through. But PathMatchingResourcePatternResolver marks everything as matching resources. It is the same with regex. BTW: in xml style configuration, one can have many components that share a common.xml beans via "import resource" when loading context. How this is done when Annotation-based container configuration is used ?

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• Can I write a .NETCF Partial Class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl?

  - by eidylon

  Okay... I'm writing a .NET CF (VBNET 2008 3.5 SP1) application, which has one master form, and it dynamically loads specific UserControls based on menu click, in a sort of framework idea. There are certain methods and properties these controls all need to work within the app. Right now I am doing this as an Interface, but this is aggravating as all get up, because some of the methods are optional, and yet I MUST implement them by the nature of interfaces. I would prefer to use inheritance, so that I can have certain code be inherited with overridability, but if I write a class which inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl and then inherit my control from that, it squiggles, and tells me that UserControls MUST inherit directly from System.Windows.Forms.UserControl. (Talk about a design flaw!) So next I thought, well, let me use a partial class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl, but when I do that, even though it all seems to compile fine, none of my new properties/methods show up on my controls. Is there any way I can use partial classes to 'extend' System.Windows.Forms.UserControl? For example, can anyone give me a code sample of a partial class which simply adds a MyCount As Integer readonly property to the System.Windows.Forms.UserControl class? If I can just see how to get this going, I can take it from there and add the rest of my functionality. Thanks in advance! I've been searching google, but can't find anything that seems to work for UserControl extension on .NET CF. And the Interface method is driving me crazy as even a small change means updating ALL the controls whether they need to 'override' the method or not.

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• Adding a first and last class to Wordpress' widget contents

  - by user571188

  In Wordpress, I'm looking for some way to add a "last" and a "first" class to list items inside Wordpress widgets. The HTML could look like this: <div class="widget-area"> <ul > <li class="widget_recent_comments"> <h3 class="widget-title">Recent comments</h3> <ul id="recentcomments"> <li class="recentcomments">Comment 1</li> <li class="recentcomments">Comment 2</li> <li class="recentcomments">Comment 3</li> <li class="recentcomments">Comment 4</li> </ul> </li> <li class="widget_my_links"> <h3 class="widget-title">My links</h3> <ul id="my-links"> <li class="item">Link 1</li> <li class="item">Link 2</li> <li class="item">Link 3</li> <li class="item">Link 4</li> <li class="item">Link 5</li> </ul> </li> </ul></div> In this example above i'd like to have first/last classes added to the li with "Comment 1", "Comment 4", "Link 1" and "Link 5". Is there an easy workaround for this? (I don't want to do this with javascript) Thank you.

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• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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• Toggle table row siblings

  - by kuswantin

  I have a table structured like this: <table> <tr id="id1" class="parent"></tr> <tr class="id1"></tr> <tr class="id1"></tr> <tr class="id1"></tr> <tr class="id1"></tr> <tr id="id2" class="parent"></tr> <tr class="id2"></tr> <tr class="id2"></tr> <tr class="id2"></tr> <tr class="id2"></tr> .....etc </table> As you can see child classes are coresponding to their parent id. Now I want to toggle all the rows which have class names equal to their parent row id whenever parent row is clicked. I have tried this, perhaps stupid try:) and can't seem to get this working: $('tr.parent').click(function() { //alert('yay'); var tog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).siblings().hasClass(tog).slideToggle(); return false; }); Thanks.

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• Zend Framework Application: module dependencies

  - by takeshin

  How do you handle dependencies between modules in Zend Framework to create reusable, drop-in modules? E.g. I have Newsletter module, which allows users to subscribe, providing e-mail address. Next, I plan to add Blog module, which allows to subscribe to posts by e-mail (it obviously duplicates some functionality of the newsletter, but the e-mails addresses are stored in User model). Next one is the Forum module, with the same subscribe to post functionality. But I want to have ability to use these modules independent to each one, i.e. application with newsletter alone, newsletter with blog, comibnation two or three modules at once. This is pretty common, e.g. the same story with search feature. I want to have search module, with options to search in all data, blog data or forum data if available. Is there any design pattern for this? Do I have to add some moduleExists($moduleMame), or provide some interface or abstract classes, some base controller pattern, similar for each module?

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• C++ Eclipse error class mynamespace::mynamespace

  - by user2969329

  I'm new to C++, coming from a Java and web programming background. I specified a header file, with class definition. The class and the namespace have the same name. I do not know if that causes this issue, eclipse is very unspecific. Here is the World.h file: `/* * World.h * * Created on: 5 nov. 2013 * Author: Mo */ #ifndef WORLD_H_ #define WORLD_H_ #include "../../lib/tinyxml/tinyxml.h" #include "Layer.h" namespace World { class World { private: Layer layers[]; public: World(); virtual ~World(); TiXmlElement toXML(); }; } /* namespace World */ #endif /* WORLD_H_ */` The error occurs in the class definition. The only thing eclipse shows is: class World::World I have been googling for the last day and a half, and haven't found anything similar. In other classes, World is not seen as a type: "World" does not name a type. What have I done wrong? Help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Why strings behave like ValueType

  - by AJP

  I was perplexed after executing this piece of code, where strings seems to behave as if they are value types. I am wondering whether the assignment operator is operating on values like equality operator for strings. Here is the piece of code I did to test this behavior. using System; namespace RefTypeDelimma { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string a1, a2; a1 = "ABC"; a2 = a1; //This should assign a1 reference to a2 a2 = "XYZ"; //I expect this should change the a1 value to "XYZ" Console.WriteLine("a1:" + a1 + ", a2:" + a2);//Outputs a1:ABC, a2:XYZ //Expected: a1:XYZ, a2:XYZ (as string being a ref type) Proc(a2); //Altering values of ref types inside a procedure //should reflect in the variable thats being passed into Console.WriteLine("a1: " + a1 + ", a2: " + a2); //Outputs a1:ABC, a2:XYZ //Expected: a1:NEW_VAL, a2:NEW_VAL (as string being a ref type) } static void Proc(string Val) { Val = "NEW_VAL"; } } } In the above code if I use a custom classes instead of strings, I am getting the expected behavior. I doubt is this something to do with the string immutability? welcoming expert views on this.

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• Oddities in Linq-to-SQL generated code related to property change/changing events

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I'm working on creating my own Linq-to-Sql generated classes in order to learn the concepts behind it all. I have some questions, if anyone knows the answer to one or more of these I'd be much obliged. The code below, and thus the questions, are from looking at code generated by creating a .DBML file in the Visual Studio 2010 designer, and inspecting the .Designer.cs file afterwards. 1. Why is INotifyPropertyChanging not passing the property name The event raising method is defined like this: protected virtual void SendPropertyChanging() Why isn't the name of the property that is changing passed to the event here? It is defined to be part of the EventArgs descendant that is passed to the event handler, but the method only passes an empty such value to it. 2. Why are the EntitySet<X> attach/detach methods not raising property changed? For an EntitySet<X> reference, the following two methods are generated: private void attach_EmailAddress1s(EmailAddress1 entity) { this.SendPropertyChanging(); entity.Person1 = this; } private void detach_EmailAddress1s(EmailAddress1 entity) { this.SendPropertyChanging(); entity.Person1 = null; } Why isn't SendPropertyChanged also called here? I'm sure I have more questions later, but for now these will suffice :)

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• Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

  - by David B.

  I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

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• Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

  - by Warren P

  I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

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• Visual Studio: Collapse Methods, but not Comments (Summary etc.)

  - by Alex

  Hello, is there a way (settings? "macro"? extension?) that I can simply toggle outlining so that only the using section and my methods collapse to their signature line, but my comments (summary and double slash comments) and classes stay expanded? Examples: 1) Uncollapsed using System; using MachineGun; namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite) { return animalToBite.Shoulder; } /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill) { return animalToKill.Head; } } } 2) Collapsed (the following is my desired result): using[...] namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite)[...] /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill)[...] } } This is how I prefer seeing my class files (the collapsed form). I've been doing the collapsing by hand a million times by now and I think there should be a way to automate/customize/extend VS to do it the way I want? Every time I debug/hit a breakpoint, it uncollapses and messes up things. If I collapse via the context menu's collapse to outline etc. it also collapses my comments which isn't desired. Appreciate your help!

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• Hibernate many-to-one - bad usage?

  - by DaveA

  Just trying out Hibernate (with Annotations) and I'm having problems with my mappings. I have two entity classes, AudioCD and Artist. @Entity public class AudioCD implements CatalogItem { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private int id; private String title; @ManyToOne(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, optional = false) private Artist artist; .... } @Entity @Table(uniqueConstraints = { @UniqueConstraint(columnNames = { "name" }) }) public class Artist { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private int id; @Column(nullable = false) private String name; ..... } I get AudioCD objects from an external source. When I try to persist the AudioCD the Artist gets persisted as well, just like I want to happen. If I try persisting another different CD, but Artist already exists I get errors due to constraint violations. I want Hibernate to recognise that the Artist already exists and shouldn't be inserted again. Can this be done via annotations? Or do I have to manage the persistence of the AudioCD and Artist seperately?

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• Why should I abstract my data layer?

  - by Gazillion

  OOP principles were difficult for me to grasp because for some reason I could never apply them to web development. As I developed more and more projects I started understanding how some parts of my code could use certain design patterns to make them easier to read, reuse, and maintain so I started to use it more and more. The one thing I still can't quite comprehend is why I should abstract my data layer. Basically if I need to print a list of items stored in my DB to the browser I do something along the lines of: $sql = 'SELECT * FROM table WHERE type = "type1"';' $result = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<li>'.$row['name'].'</li>'; } I'm reading all these How-Tos or articles preaching about the greatness of PDO but I don't understand why. I don't seem to be saving any LoCs and I don't see how it would be more reusable because all the functions that I call above just seem to be encapsulated in a class but do the exact same thing. The only advantage I'm seeing to PDO are prepared statements. I'm not saying data abstraction is a bad thing, I'm asking these questions because I'm trying to design my current classes correctly and they need to connect to a DB so I figured I'd do this the right way. Maybe I'm just reading bad articles on the subject :) I would really appreciate any advice, links, or concrete real-life examples on the subject!

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• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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• How do I put all the types matching a particular C# interface in an IDictionary?

  - by Kevin Brassen

  I have a number of classes all in the same interface, all in the same assembly, all conforming to the same generic interface: public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... It's safe to assume that if we have an IFactory<T> for a particular T that it's the only one of that kind. (That is, there aren't two things that implement IFactory<Apple>.) I'd like to use reflection to get all these types, and then store them all in an IDictionary, where the key is typeof(T) and the value is the corresponding IFactory<T>. I imagine eventually we would wind up with something like this: _map = new Dictionary<Type, object>(); foreach(Type t in [...]) { object factoryForType = System.Reflection.[???](t); _map[t] = factoryForType; } What's the best way to do that? I'm having trouble seeing how I'd do that with the System.Reflection interfaces.

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• Is it acceptable to wrap PHP library functions solely to change the names?

  - by Carson Myers

  I'm going to be starting a fairly large PHP application this summer, on which I'll be the sole developer (so I don't have any coding conventions to conform to aside from my own). PHP 5.3 is a decent language IMO, despite the stupid namespace token. But one thing that has always bothered me about it is the standard library and its lack of a naming convention. So I'm curious, would it be seriously bad practice to wrap some of the most common standard library functions in my own functions/classes to make the names a little better? I suppose it could also add or modify some functionality in some cases, although at the moment I don't have any examples (I figure I will find ways to make them OO or make them work a little differently while I am working). If you saw a PHP developer do this, would you think "Man, this is one shoddy developer?" Additionally, I don't know much (or anything) about if/how PHP is optimized, and I know that usually PHP performace doesn't matter. But would doing something like this have a noticeable impact on the performance of my application?

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• Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

  - by TX_

  Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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