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  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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  • How to call a method in another class in Java?

    - by Puchatek
    Currently I have two classes. a classroom class and a School class. I would like to write a method in the School class to call public void setTeacherName(String newTeacherName) from the classroom class. public class classroom { private String classRoomName; private String teacherName; public void setClassRoomName(String newClassRoomName) { classRoomName = newClassRoomName; } public String returnClassRoomName() { return classRoomName; } public void setTeacherName(String newTeacherName) { teacherName = newTeacherName; } public String returnTeacherName() { return teacherName; } } import java.util.ArrayList; public class School { private ArrayList<classroom> classrooms; private String classRoomName; private String teacherName; public School() { classrooms = new ArrayList<classroom>(); } public void addClassRoom(classroom newClassRoom, String theClassRoomName) { classrooms.add(newClassRoom); classRoomName = theClassRoomName; } // how to write a method to add a teacher to the classroom by using the classroom parameter // and the teachers name }

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  • Creating simple calculator with bison & flex in C++ (not C)

    - by ak91
    Hey, I would like to create simple C++ calculator using bison and flex. Please note I'm new to the creating parsers. I already found few examples in bison/flex but they were all written in C. My goal is to create C++ code, where classes would contain nodes of values, operations, funcs - to create AST (evaluation would be done just after creating whole AST - starting from the root and going forward). For example: my_var = sqrt(9 ** 2 - 32) + 4 - 20 / 5 my_var * 3 Would be parsed as: = / \ my_var + / \ sqrt - | / \ - 4 / / \ / \ ** 32 20 5 / \ 9 2 and the second AST would look like: * / \ my_var 3 Then following pseudocode reflects AST: ast_root = create_node('=', new_variable("my_var"), exp) where exp is: exp = create_node(OPERATOR, val1, val2) but NOT like this: $$ = $1 OPERATOR $3 because this way I directly get value of operation instead of creation the Node. I believe the Node should contain type (of operation), val1 (Node), val2 (Node). In some cases val2 would be NULL, like above mentioned sqrt which takes in the end one argument. Right? It will be nice if you can propose me C++ skeleton (without evaluation) for above described problem (including *.y file creating AST) to help me understand the way of creating/holding Nodes in AST. Code can be snipped, just to let me get the idea. I'll also be grateful if you point me to an existing (possibly simple) example if you know any. Thank you all for your time and assistance!

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  • Java queue and multi-dimension array

    - by javaLearner.java
    First of all, this is my code (just started learning java): Queue<String> qe = new LinkedList<String>(); qe.add("b"); qe.add("a"); qe.add("c"); qe.add("d"); qe.add("e"); My question: Is it possible to add element to the queue with two values, like: qe.add("a","1"); // where 1 is integer So, that I know element "a" have value 1. If I want to add a number let say "2" to element a, I will have like a = 3. If this cant be done, what else in java classes that can handle this? I tried to use multi-dimention array, but its kinda hard to do the queue, like pop, push etc. (Maybe I am wrong) How to call specific element in the queue? Like, call element a, to check its value. [Note] Please don't give me links that ask me to read java docs. I was reading, and I still dont get it. The reason why I ask here is because, I know I can find the answer faster and easier.

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  • Passing.getText() String to another class

    - by DanMc
    I'm currently working on a first year university project and I have a problem, although I doubt it's a very complicated one, but I've been searching and I just can't find a suitable answer to it. The problem concerns two classes. A gui class (class1) and another class (class2). I have a JTextField in class1 and am trying to pass through the .getText() value to class2 and store it in a String type variable. The current code I'm trying to achieve this with is the following: (Class1) private JTextField textField = new JTextField("Something"); ... public String getTextFieldString() { return textField.getText(); } (Class2) private c1 Class1 = new Class1(); private String s = new String(); ... s = c1.getTextFieldString(); I'm pretty new to coding, I've read that maybe I need to pass through an argument somewhere and I assume that's because textField is not static in itself, it changes when somebody enters a new value. (sorry for stating the obvious there.) Anyway, help is appreciated. Thanks a lot!

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  • How do I access abstract private data from derived class without friend or 'getter' functions in C++?

    - by John
    So, I am caught up in a dilemma right now. How am I suppose to access a pure abstract base class private member variable from a derived class? I have heard from a friend that it is possible to access it through the base constructor, but he didn't explain. How is it possible? There are some inherited classes from base class. Is there any way to gain access to the private variables ? class Base_button { private: bool is_vis; Rect rButton; public: // Constructors Base_button(); Base_button( const Point &corner, double height, double width ); // Destructor virtual ~ Base_button(); // Accessors virtual void draw() const = 0; bool clicked( const Point &click ) const; bool is_visible() const; // Mutators virtual void show(); virtual void hide(); void move( const Point &loc ); }; class Button : public Base_button { private: Message mButton; public: // Constructors Button(); Button( const Point &corner, const string &label ); // Acessors virtual void draw() const; // Mutators virtual void show(); virtual void hide(); }; I want to be able access Rect and bool in the base class from the subclass

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  • I have a bunch of template parameters that I want to hide from my users. How can I do this?

    - by Alex
    I have a superclass which is defined in terms of a few internal types it uses. Subclassing is performed as so: template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> class Super { ... } class Sub : Super <interalTypeClass1, interalTypeClass2> { ... } But when I want to write a function that takes a pointer to the superclass, this happens : template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> void function(Super<InternalType1, InternalType2>* in) { ... } The user really shouldn't know anything about the inside classes, and should really just concern himself with the use of the function. Some of these template lists become very very large, and expecting the user to pass them every time is wasteful, in my opinion. Any suggestions? EDIT: The function needs to know the internal types in use, so unless there is a way to access template types at compile time, I think there is no solution? Potential solution: Have each class do the following: #define SubTemplateArgs <SubTypeName, SubInternalType1, SubInternalType2> ?

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  • I cant put a string in a switch nor an array in a class

    - by TimothyTech
    Okay, im making a pretty big file in my opinion, so i wanted to separate it into several files for cleaner code. so i have my main .cpp file and two header files holding my classes. well the header files dont hold strings, it aboslutely wont budge. i call the library in both my .cpp file and even tried it in my header file. another issue i ran into is using strings to make switches function, reason being if i use integers in a switch if the user inputs a alphabetical character the program goes into an endless loop. string choice; switch (choice) { case "1" : //... break; case "2" : //... break; } and my last issue is when i create an object in a case it gives an error. says cross initialization of object. string choice; switch (choice) { case "1" : Class object; break; case "2" : //... break; }

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  • Matching Class arrays

    - by frinkz
    I'm writing a routine to invoke methods, found by a name and an array of parameter Class values Matching the Method by getName works, but when trying to match the given Class[] for parameters, and Method.getParameterTypes(), I'm having trouble. I assumed that this would work: Class[] searchParams = new Class[] { float.class, String.class }; Class[] methodParams = m.getParameterTypes(); if(methodParams == searchParams) { m.invoke(this, paramValues); } But apparantly not - m.invoke is never reached. I've checked, and methodParams gives the same classes as searchParams. The code below works, and picks the right method, but it seems like a very dirty way of doing things, I'm sure I'm missing something obvious. Class[] searchParams = new Class[] { float.class, String.class }; Class[] methodParams = m.getParameterTypes(); boolean isMatch = true; for(int i = 0; i < searchParams.length; i++) { if(!searchParams.getClass().equals(methodParams.getClass())) { isMatch = false; } } if(isMatch) { m.invoke(this, paramValues); }

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • How to use the Zend_Log instance that was created using the Zend_Application_Resource_Log in a model

    - by Alex
    Our Zend_Log is initialized by only adding the following lines to application.ini resources.log.stream.writerName = "Stream" resources.log.stream.writerParams.mode = "a" So Zend_Application_Resource_Log will create the instance for us. We are already able to access this instance in controllers via the following: public function getLog() { $bootstrap = $this->getInvokeArg('bootstrap'); //if (is_null($bootstrap)) return false; if (!$bootstrap->hasPluginResource('Log')) { return false; } $log = $bootstrap->getResource('Log'); return $log; } So far, so good. Now we want to use the same log instance in model classes, where we can not access the bootstrap. Our first idea was to register the very same Log instance in Zend_Registry to be able to use Zend_Registry::get('Zend_Log') everywhere we want: in our Bootstrap class: protected function _initLog() { if (!$this->hasPluginResource('Log')) { throw new Zend_Exception('Log not enabled'); } $log = $this->getResource('Log'); assert( $log != null); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Log', $log); } Unfortunately this assertion fails == $log IS NULL --- but why?? It is clear that we could just initialize the Zend_Log manually during bootstrapping without using the automatism of Zend_Application_Resource_Log, so this kind of answers will not be accepted.

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  • LINQ to SQL: NOTing a prebuilt expression

    - by ck
    I'm building a library of functions for one of my core L2S classes, all of which return a bool to allow checking for certain situations. Example: Expression<Func<Account, bool>> IsSomethingX = a => a.AccountSupplementary != null && a.AccountSupplementary.SomethingXFlag != null && a.AccountSupplementary.SomethingXFlag.Value; Now to query where this is not true, I CAN'T do this: var myAccounts= context.Accounts .Where(!IsSomethingX); // does not compile However, using the syntax from the PredicateBuilder class, I've come up with this: public static IQueryable<T> WhereNot<T>(this IQueryable<T> items, Expression<Func<T, bool>> expr1) { var invokedExpr = Expression.Invoke(expr1, expr1.Parameters.Cast<Expression>()); return items.Where(Expression.Lambda<Func<T, bool>> (Expression.Not(invokedExpr), expr1.Parameters)); } var myAccounts= context.Accounts .WhereNot(IsSomethingX); // does compile which actually produces the correct SQL. Does this look like a good solution, and is there anything I need to be aware of that might cause me problems in future?

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  • StructureMap Configuration Per Thread/Request for the Full Dependency Chain

    - by Phil Sandler
    I've been using Structuremap for a few months now, and it has worked great on some smaller (green field) projects. Most of the configurations I have had to set up involve a single implementation per interface. In the cases where I needed to choose a specific implementation at runtime, I created a factory class that used ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<(). In the smaller projects, there were few enough of these cases where I was comfortable with the references to ObjectFactory. My understanding is that you want to limit these references as much as possible, and ideally only reference the ObjectFactory once. I am working to refactor a larger codebase to use IOC/StructureMap, and am finding that I may need many of these factory classes with ObjectFactory references to get what I need. Essentially, I am creating a "root service" with the ObjectFactory, so that everything in the dependency chain is managed by the container. The root service is created by name (i.e. "BuildCar", "BuildTruck"), and the services needed deeper in the dependency chain could also be constructed using the same name--so the "IAttachWheels" service could vary based on whether a car or truck is being built. Since the class that depends on IAttachWheels is the same in both configurations, I don't think I can use ConstructedBy in the registry to choose the implementation. Also, to be clear, the IAttachWheels implementations need to be managed by the container as well, because the dependency chain runs fairly deep. I looked briefly at Profiles as an option, but read (here on StackOverflow) that changing profiles essentially changes implementations for all threads. Is there a feature that is similar to profiles that is thread/request specific? Is the factory class that references ObjectFactory approach the right way to go? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

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  • Scope of Groovy's ExpandoMetaClass?

    - by TicketMonster
    Groovy exposes an ExpandoMetaClass that allows you to dynamically add instance and class methods/properties to a POJO. I would like to use it to add an instance method to one of my Java classes: public class Fizz { // ...etc. } Fizz fizz = new Fizz(); fizz.metaClass.doStuff = { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } This would be the equivalent to refactoring the Fizz class to have: public class Fizz { // ctors, getters/setters, etc... public void doStuff(String blah) { buzz(blah); } } My question: Does this add doStuff(String blah) to only this particular instance of Fizz? Or do all instances of Fizz now have a doStuff(String blah) instance method? If the former, how do I get all instances of Fizz to have the doStuff instance method? I know that if I made the Groovy: fizz.metaClass.doStuff << { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } Then that would add a static class method to Fizz, such as Fizz.doStuff(String blah), but that's not what I want. I just want all instances of Fizz to now have an instance method called doStuff. Ideas?

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  • Where should I put validation code?

    - by D Lawson
    I'm creating interfaces and abstract classes that represent a messaging framework for short text-based messages like SMS, email, twitter, xml, etc.. and I was wondering where I should put the message validation code. The thing is that I am only writing the superclasses and interfaces, so I'm not putting the actual implementation in, I'll just put the hooks in that allow others to validate the content of the messages. The way I see it, I could do it several ways: in the abstract superclass "Message", have an abstract method 'isValid'. A variation on this would be to have isValid be called when the Message constructor is called, throwing a MalformedMessageException if the message is formatted incorrectly. in the transport layer, immediately before sending, validate the message. I would have a send(Message) method that calls an isValid(Message) method immediately before it sends. have a singleton message validator with a static method isValid(Message) that is called at some point. I'm sure there are other options that I'm missing. Currently, I'm leaning towards the first one, but it doesn't feel right to me to have validation code in what should be a domain object.

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  • Home based business would like customers to schedule via website the time, day and date they want to take a class.

    - by Alessandro Machi
    I'm using google blogger. I want to ad thumbnail images of different classes I will be offering in my home film/video/sound/lighting studio. The idea is the prospective student visits my website, sees a class they want to take, clicks the thumbnail so first read a descriptive article about the class, at which point they can schedule the class for the time, day, and date of their choosing between the hours of 5am to 9pm, 365 days a year. As soon as the student has inputed the time, day and date of the class they want, they would go to a check out page to purchase the class time. The student would then be sent an email confirmation along with the exact location, the class name, and the time and date they selected. I was thinking of using Dwolla for the check out page because Dwolla offers either no fee or 25 cents per payment transaction, but I'm not sure I can hook up to them easily enough. My blog site is not finished by a longshot. I still have to actually input all of the class thumbnail images along with descriptions, but if you need to see what the page looks like the web address is http://www.myalexlogic.com Google blogger allows for third party code to be added within movable gadgets.

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  • static initialization confusion

    - by Happy Mittal
    I am getting very confused in some concepts in c++. For ex: I have following two files //file1.cpp class test { static int s; public: test(){s++;} }; static test t; int test::s=5; //file2.cpp #include<iostream> using namespace std; class test { static int s; public: test(){s++;} static int get() { return s; } }; static test t; int main() { cout<<test::get()<<endl; } Now My question is : 1. How two files link successfully even if they have different class definitions? 2. Are the static member s of two classes related because I get output as 7. Please explain this concept of statics.

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  • Password value on click is not changing the text to 'Password'

    - by Sam
    window.onload=function() { var password = document.getElementById('apassword'); var real = document.getElementById('password'); var fake = document.createElement('input'); fake.setAttribute('type', 'text'); /*fake.setAttribute('id', 'password');*/ fake.setAttribute('class', 'contact-input contact-right'); password.appendChild(fake); fake.setAttribute('value', 'Password'); fake.onfocus = function() {this.style.display='none';real.style.display=''; real.focus();}; real.style.display = 'none'; real.setAttribute('value', ''); real.onblur = function() {if(this.value==''){this.style.display='none';fake.style.display=''}}; }; AND <label id="apassword"> <input type="password" title="Password" id="password" class="contact-input contact-right" name="password" /> </label> What is supposed to happen is that when you click on the input box, it changes from 'Password' to a blank type="password" input box, however it doesn't happen. This originally worked, but then I had to change some ID's and classes etc. I'm not sure how to debug scripts, so hopefully someone can help me with that, and also with my question :). Thankyou :).

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  • Large Switch statements: Bad OOP?

    - by Mystere Man
    I've always been of the opinion that large switch statements are a symptom of bad OOP design. In the past, I've read articles that discuss this topic and they have provided altnerative OOP based approaches, typically based on polymorphism to instantiate the right object to handle the case. I'm now in a situation that has a monsterous switch statement based on a stream of data from a TCP socket in which the protocol consists of basically newline terminated command, followed by lines of data, followed by an end marker. The command can be one of 100 different commands, so I'd like to find a way to reduce this monster switch statement to something more manageable. I've done some googling to find the solutions I recall, but sadly, Google has become a wasteland of irrelevant results for many kinds of queries these days. Are there any patterns for this sort of problem? Any suggestions on possible implementations? One thought I had was to use a dictionary lookup, matching the command text to the object type to instantiate. This has the nice advantage of merely creating a new object and inserting a new command/type in the table for any new commands. However, this also has the problem of type explosion. I now need 100 new classes, plus I have to find a way to interface them cleanly to the data model. Is the "one true switch statement" really the way to go? I'd appreciate your thoughts, opinions, or comments.

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  • problem with "select new Object ... join ... where"

    - by jacob
    Hi, I'm having a problem with an HQL query Three classes ClassOne is my BusinessObject public class ClassOne { private int id; private int status; private Set<ClassTwo> classTwos; + other fields/getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassTwo is referenced in a set of ClassOne and is kind of the history of an object of ClassOne public class ClassTwo { private int id; private int oldStatus; private int newStatus; private String message; //+ getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassThree is my DTO/VO with just one classTwo (not the whole history) public class ClassThree { private int id; private int status; private ClassTwo classTwo; public ClassThree(int pId, int pStatus, ClassTwo pClassTwo) { id=pId; status=pStatus; classTwo=pClassTwo; } //+ getters/setters etc } Now I'd like to create an HQL query like this: I'd like to get all objects of ClassThree with a certain status and if it exists the newest ClassTwo with a certain newStatus. For example: I'd like to get all the DTOs (ClassThree) of ClassOne whose status is now 1, but earlier in their history it has been 2 and I'd like to have the latest ClassTwo object which has 2 as newStatus. SELECT new ClassThree(c1.id, c1.status, c2) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT JOIN c1.classtwos c2 (...) and (...) is where I don't know what to do, I'm not even sure if it's a join / join fetch Looked around and tried quite a lot already, but no clue. Especially with the join fetch I get some Hibernate errors like org.hibernate.QueryException: query specified join fetching, but the owner of the fetched association was not present in the select list. Fetching the BusinessObject like that is no problem SELECT distinct(c1) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT OUTER JOIN FETCH c1.classtwos c2 and I get the ClassTwos as my field. Thanks in advance, Jacob P.S.: One thing might be important, ClassTwo has no reference to ClassOne!!

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  • CSS Sprite for images which have vertical as well as horizontal repeats

    - by Rachel
    I have four images, one of which has background repeat property in horizontal direction and three of which have background repeat in vertical direction. I have different CSS classes which currently uses this images as under: .sb_header_dropdown { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_bg.gif) repeat-y top left; padding: 8px 3px 8px 15px; } .shopping_basket_dropdown .sb_body { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_body_bg.png) repeat-y top left; margin: 0; padding: 5px 9px 5px 8px; position: relative; z-index: 99999; } .checkout_cart .co_header_left { background: url(images/bg.gif) repeat-x 0 -150px; overflow: hidden; padding-left: 3px; } .sb_dropdown_footer { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_footer_bg.png) repeat-y top left; clear: both; height: 7px; font-size: 0; } So here am making 4 HTTP Request and I want to implement CSS Sprite for all 4 images such that I can reduce the number of HTTP Request from 4 to 1, also thing to keep in mind is that here we have background repeat for all 4 images, either on x-direction or on y-direction and so how should sprite be created and how it can be used in the CSS to reduce the number of HTTP request. I hope this question is clear.

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  • Python: Calling method A from class A within class B?

    - by Tommo
    There are a number of questions that are similar to this, but none of the answers hits the spot - so please bear with me. I am trying my hardest to learn OOP using Python, but i keep running into errors (like this one) which just make me think this is all pointless and it would be easier to just use methods. Here is my code: class TheGUI(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, title, size): wx.Frame.__init__(self, None, 1, title, size=size) # The GUI is made ... textbox.TextCtrl(panel1, 1, pos=(67,7), size=(150, 20)) button1.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.button1Click) self.Show(True) def button1Click(self, event): #It needs to do the LoadThread function! class WebParser: def LoadThread(self, thread_id): #It needs to get the contents of textbox! TheGUI = TheGUI("Text RPG", (500,500)) TheParser = WebParser TheApp.MainLoop() So the problem i am having is that the GUI class needs to use a function that is in the WebParser class, and the WebParser class needs to get text from a textbox that exists in the GUI class. I know i could do this by passing the objects around as parameters, but that seems utterly pointless, there must be a more logical way to do this that doesn't using classes seem so pointless? Thanks in advance!

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  • How do i prevent my code from being stolen?

    - by Calmarius
    What happens exactly when I launch a .NET exe? I know that C# is compiled to IL code and I think the generated exe file just a launcher that starts the runtime and passes the IL code to it. But how? And how complex process is it? IL code is embedded in the exe. I think it can be executed from the memory without writing it to the disk while ordinary exe's are not (ok, yes but it is very complicated). My final aim is extracting the IL code and write my own encrypted launcher to prevent scriptkiddies to open my code in Reflector and just steal all my classes easily. Well I can't prevent reverse engineering completely. If they are able to inspect the memory and catch the moment when I'm passing the pure IL to the runtime then it won't matter if it is a .net exe or not, is it? I know there are several obfuscator tools but I don't want to mess up the IL code itself. EDIT: so it seems it isn't worth trying what I wanted. They will crack it anyway... So I will look for an obfuscation tool. And yes my friends said too that it is enough to rename all symbols to a meaningless name. And reverse engineering won't be so easy after all.

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  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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