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  • FMOD Compiling trouble

    - by CptAJ
    I'm trying to get started with FMOD but I'm having some issues compiling the example code in this tutorial: http://www.gamedev.net/reference/articles/article2098.asp I'm using MinGW, I placed the libfmodex.a file in MinGW's include folder (I also tried linking directly to the filename) but it doesn't work. Here's the output. C:\>g++ -o test1.exe test1.cpp -lfmodex test1.cpp:4:1: error: 'FSOUND_SAMPLE' does not name a type test1.cpp: In function 'int main()': test1.cpp:9:29: error: 'FSOUND_Init' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:12:4: error: 'handle' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:12:53: error: 'FSOUND_Sample_Load' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:13:30: error: 'FSOUND_PlaySound' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:21:30: error: 'FSOUND_Sample_Free' was not declared in this scope test1.cpp:22:17: error: 'FSOUND_Close' was not declared in this scope This is the particular example I'm using: #include <conio.h> #include "inc/fmod.h" FSOUND_SAMPLE* handle; int main () { // init FMOD sound system FSOUND_Init (44100, 32, 0); // load and play sample handle=FSOUND_Sample_Load (0,"sample.mp3",0, 0, 0); FSOUND_PlaySound (0,handle); // wait until the users hits a key to end the app while (!_kbhit()) { } // clean up FSOUND_Sample_Free (handle); FSOUND_Close(); } I have the header files in the "inc" path where my code is. Any ideas as to what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Java - How to declare table[i][j] elements as instance variables?

    - by JDelage
    All, I am trying to code a Connect4 game. For this, I have created a P4Game class and a P4Board class which represents the i X j dimensions of the Connect4 board. In P4Game, I have the following: public class P4Game{ //INSTANCE VARIABLES private int nbLines; private int nbColumns; private P4Board [][] position; //CONSTRUCTOR public P4Game(int nbLines, int nbColumns){ this.nbColumns = nbColumns; this.nbLines = nbLines; P4Board [][] position = new P4Board [nbLines][nbColumns]; //Creates the table to receive the instances of the P4Board object.*/ for (int i=0; i<nbLines; i++){ for (int j=0; j<nbColumns; j++){ this.position[i][j] = new P4Board(i,j); //Meant to create each object at (line=i, column=j) } } } This causes a NullPointerException in the nested loops where I mention this.position[i][j]. I reference those objects in other methods of this class so I need them to be instance variables. I suppose the exception is due to the fact that I have not listed the table element position[i][j] as an instance variable at the beginning of the class. my question to people here is (1) is my assumption correct, and if so (2) what would be the syntax to declare instance variables of this form? Thank you all for your help with what I realize is a very basic question. Hopefully it will also benefit other newbies. Cheers, JDelage

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  • Reverse geocode street name and city as text

    - by Taylor Satula
    Hello, I have been having some trouble finding a good way to output just the street name and city as text (Infinite Loop, Cupertino shown here) that can be displayed in my iPhone app. This needs to be able to dynamically change as you change streets and city. I don't have the slightest idea of how to do this, I hope someone can help. I have attached a very rough image of what I am trying to acheave. I have found this (http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/javascript/services.html#Geocoding) for google maps about how to reverse geocode using javascript, but what I do not understand is how this would be done in a iPhone development setting. I work in web design and I see how it would be done in HTML but I am very new to iPhone development and don't have the slightest clue of how it would be done here. If someone could spell out how to do this I would be extremely grateful. I cannot seem to find what I am looking for by searching Google. Reference picture: http://www.threepixeldrift.com/images/deep-storage/reversegeocodeiphoneapp.jpg

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  • Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

    - by Coder
    Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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  • Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

    - by Patrick
    In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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  • How to track auto-generated id's in select-insert statement

    - by k rey
    I have two tables detail and head. The detail table will be written first. Later, the head table will be written. The head is a summary of the detail table. I would like to keep a reference from the detail to the head table. I have a solution but it is not elegant and requires duplicating the joins and filters that were used during summation. I am looking for a better solution. The below is an example of what I currently have. In this example, I have simplified the table structure. In the real world, the summation is very complex. -- Preparation create table #detail ( detail_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , amount money , head_id int null ); create table #head ( head_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , subtotal money ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); -- I would like to somehow simplify the following two queries insert into #head ( code, subtotal ) select code, sum(amount) from #detail group by code update #detail set head_id = h.head_id from #detail d inner join #head h on d.code = h.code -- This is the desired end result select * from #detail Desired end result of detail table: detail_id code amount head_id 1 A 5.00 1 2 A 5.00 1 3 B 2.00 2 4 B 2.00 2

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  • Generic cast type to primitive.

    - by Nix
    Is there a way to do the below? Imagine a generic result wrapper class. Where you have a type and an associated error list. When there is no result to return to the user we will use boolean to indicate success failure. I want to create a constructor that takes in an error list, and if the list is null or count 0, AND the type is a bool/Boolean i want to set it to true.... Seemingly simple, but amazingly not possible. public class Result<T>{ private T valueObject { get;set;} private List<Error> errors{ get;set;} public Result(T valueObj, List<Error> errorList){ this.valueObject = valueObj; this.errors = errorList; } public Result(List<Error> errors) { this.valueObject = default(ReturnType); if (valueObject is Boolean) { //Wont work compile //(valueObject as Boolean) = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); //Compiles but detaches reference //bool temp = ((bool)(valueObject as object)) ; //temp = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); } this.errors = errors; } } } Am I missing something simple? And in general I would prefer to do it without reflection.

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • Modelling in Agile Development

    - by bertzzie
    I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

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  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

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  • Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

    - by Kyle
    I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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  • Trying to match variables in a PHP array

    - by Nick B
    I'm stuck with a php array problem. I've to a webpage that takes values from a URL, and I need to cross reference those values against some values on the page and if they match output a 'yes'. It's an expression engine bodge job. The URL is something like domain.com/page/C12&C14 The C12 and C14 represent different categories. I've taken the last bit of the url, removed the 'C' from the values and then exploded the 12&14 into an array. I print_r the array on the page and it shows: Array ( [0] = 12 [1] = 14 ) So, the values are in the array. Lovely. Now on the page I have an html list which looks like 10 12 14 15 I want to output a YES next to the variables that are current in the array so the ideal output would be: 10 12 - YES 14 - YES 15 I was trying this but it keeps just saying No next to all of them. $currentnumber = 12; foreach ($tharray as $element) { if ($element == $currentnumber) { echo "Yes"; } else { echo "No"; } } I thought that should work, but it's not. I checked and the array and the variable are both stings. I did a strlen() on both to see if they are the same, but $currentnumber outputs '13' and the array variable outputs '2'. Any ideas as to why it's saying 13? Is the variable the wrong type of string - and if so how would I convert it?

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

    - by Coco
    Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

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  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

    - by Danny Chen
    Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

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  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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