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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

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  • Contrary to Python 3.1 Docs, hash(obj) != id(obj). So which is correct?

    - by Don O'Donnell
    The following is from the Python v3.1.2 documentation: From The Python Language Reference Section 3.3.1 Basic Customization: object.__hash__(self) ... User-defined classes have __eq__() and __hash__() methods by default; with them, all objects compare unequal (except with themselves) and x.__hash__() returns id(x). From The Glossary: hashable ... Objects which are instances of user-defined classes are hashable by default; they all compare unequal, and their hash value is their id(). This is true up through version 2.6.5: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79096, Mar 19 2010 21:48:26) ... ... >>> class C(object): pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11335856 >>> hash(c) 11335856 But in version 3.1.2: Python 3.1.2 (r312:79149, Mar 21 2010, 00:41:52) ... ... >>> class C: pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11893680 >>> hash(c) 743355 So which is it? Should I report a documentation bug or a program bug? And if it's a documentation bug, and the default hash() value for a user class instance is no longer the same as the id() value, then it would be interesting to know what it is or how it is calculated, and why it was changed in version 3.

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  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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  • Does anyone still believe in the Capability Maturity Model for Software?

    - by Ed Guiness
    Ten years ago when I first encountered the CMM for software I was, I suppose like many, struck by how accurately it seemed to describe the chaotic "level one" state of software development in many businesses, particularly with its reference to reliance on heroes. It also seemed to provide realistic guidance for an organisation to progress up the levels improving their processes. But while it seemed to provide a good model and realistic guidance for improvement, I never really witnessed an adherence to CMM having a significant positive impact on any organisation I have worked for, or with. I know of one large software consultancy that claims CMM level 5 - the highest level - when I can see first hand that their processes are as chaotic, and the quality of their software products as varied, as other, non-CMM businesses. So I'm wondering, has anyone seen a real, tangible benefit from adherence to process improvement according to CMM? And if you have seen improvement, do you think that the improvement was specifically attributable to CMM, or would an alternative approach (such as six-sigma) have been equally or more beneficial? Does anyone still believe? As an aside, for those who haven't yet seen it, check out this funny-because-its-true parody

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  • Issue displaying a local image from XAML

    - by Flack
    Hello, I have the below simple xaml: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Image Source="happyface.jpg"/> </Grid> </Window> happyface.jpg is included in the project and its Build Action is set to "Content" and Copy To Ouptput Directory is set to "Copy Always". When looking at the app through the VS designer, everything is ok and I see the image. However, when I run the app, no image is displayed. I see the image is copied to the out out directory. If I put in the entire path as the source (C:\SANDBOX\WpfApplication1\WpfApplication1\bin\Debug") it works. Any ideas as to why the image is not displayed when I run the app? I read about pack URIs but thought that to just simply reference a loose image in the current directory, I can just use the image name. Thank you.

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  • Use a foreign key mapping to get data from the other table using Python and SQLAlchemy.

    - by Az
    Hmm, the title was harder to formulate than I thought. Basically, I've got these simple classes mapped to tables, using SQLAlchemy. I know they're missing a few items but those aren't essential for highlighting the problem. class Customer(object): def __init__(self, uid, name, email): self.uid = uid self.name = name self.email = email def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Cust: %s, Name: %s (Email: %s)" %(self.uid, self.name, self.email) The above is basically a simple customer with an id, name and an email address. class Order(object): def __init__(self, item_id, item_name, customer): self.item_id = item_id self.item_name = item_name self.customer = None def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Item ID %s: %s, has been ordered by customer no. %s" %(self.item_id, self.item_name, self.customer) This is the Orders class that just holds the order information: an id, a name and a reference to a customer. It's initialised to None to indicate that this item doesn't have a customer yet. The code's job will assign the item a customer. The following code maps these classes to respective database tables. # SQLAlchemy database transmutation engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() customers_table = Table('customers', metadata, Column('uid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('email', String) ) orders_table = Table('orders', metadata, Column('item_id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('item_name', String), Column('customer', Integer, ForeignKey('customers.uid')) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Customer, customers_table) mapper(Orders, orders_table) Now if I do something like: for order in session.query(Order): print order I can get a list of orders in this form: Item ID 1001: MX4000 Laser Mouse, has been ordered by customer no. 12 What I want to do is find out customer 12's name and email address (which is why I used the ForeignKey into the Customer table). How would I go about it?

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  • Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

    - by OlliD
    Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

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  • Best practice for managing changes to 3rd party open source libraries?

    - by Jeff Knecht
    On a recent project, I had to modify an open source library to address a functional deficiency. I followed the SVN best practice of creating a "vendor source" repository and made my changes there. I also submitted the patch to the mailing list of that project. Unfortunately, the project only has a couple of maintainers and they are very slow to commit updates. At some point, I expect the library to be updated, and I expect that my project will want to use the upgraded library. But now I have a potential problem... I don't know whether my patch will have been applied to this future release of the 3rd party library. I also don't know whether my patch will even still be compatible with the internal implementation of the upgraded components. And in all likelihood, someone else will be maintaining my project by that point. Should I name the library in a special way so it is clear that we made special modifications (eg. commons-lang-2.x-for-my-project.jar)? Should I just document the patch and reference the SVN location and a link to the mailing list item in a README? No option that I can think of seems to be fool-proof in an upgrade scenario. What is the best practice for this?

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  • IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

    - by DigitalBlade
    Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • MySQL left outer join is slow

    - by Ryan Doherty
    Hi, hoping to get some help with this query, I've worked at it for a while now and can't get it any faster: SELECT date, count(id) as 'visits' FROM dates LEFT OUTER JOIN visits ON (dates.date = DATE(visits.start) and account_id = 40 ) WHERE date >= '2010-12-13' AND date <= '2011-1-13' GROUP BY date ORDER BY date ASC That query takes about 8 seconds to run. I've added indexes on dates.date, visits.start, visits.account_id and visits.start+visits.account_id and can't get it to run any faster. Table structure (only showing relevant columns in visit table): create table visits ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `account_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `start` DATETIME NOT NULL, `end` DATETIME NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; CREATE TABLE `dates` ( `date` date NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`date`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; dates table contains all days from 2010-1-1 to 2020-1-1 (~3k rows). visits table contains about 400k rows dating from 2010-6-1 to yesterday. I'm using the date table so the join will return 0 visits for days there were no visits. Results I want for reference: +------------+--------+ | date | visits | +------------+--------+ | 2010-12-13 | 301 | | 2010-12-14 | 356 | | 2010-12-15 | 423 | | 2010-12-16 | 332 | | 2010-12-17 | 346 | | 2010-12-18 | 226 | | 2010-12-19 | 213 | | 2010-12-20 | 311 | | 2010-12-21 | 273 | | 2010-12-22 | 286 | | 2010-12-23 | 241 | | 2010-12-24 | 149 | | 2010-12-25 | 102 | | 2010-12-26 | 174 | | 2010-12-27 | 258 | | 2010-12-28 | 348 | | 2010-12-29 | 392 | | 2010-12-30 | 395 | | 2010-12-31 | 278 | | 2011-01-01 | 241 | | 2011-01-02 | 295 | | 2011-01-03 | 369 | | 2011-01-04 | 438 | | 2011-01-05 | 393 | | 2011-01-06 | 368 | | 2011-01-07 | 435 | | 2011-01-08 | 313 | | 2011-01-09 | 250 | | 2011-01-10 | 345 | | 2011-01-11 | 387 | | 2011-01-12 | 0 | | 2011-01-13 | 0 | +------------+--------+ Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

    - by msalvadores
    I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

    - by Rod
    HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

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  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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  • Cannot create a new VS data connection in Server Explorer

    - by Seventh Element
    I have a local instance of SQL Server 2008 express edition running on my development PC. I'm trying to create a new data connection through Visual Studio Server Explorer. The steps are the following: Right click the "Data Connections" node = Choose Data Source. I select "Microsoft SQL Server" as the data source. The "Add Connection" dialog window appears. I select my local server instance = "Test connection" works fine. I select "AdventureWorks" as the database name = "Test connection" works fine. Next I hit the "Ok" button = Error message: "This server version is not supported. Only servers up to MS SQL Server 2005 are supported." I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition. The target framework of the application is ".NET framework 3.5". I have a reference to System.Data (framework v2.0) and cannot find another version of the assembly on my system. Am I referencing the wrong assembly? How can I fix this problem?

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  • How to put a pre-existing sqlite file into <Application_Home>/Library/?

    - by Byron Cox
    My app uses Core Data. I have run the app in the simulator which has successfully created and populated the corresponding sqlite file. I now want to get this pre-existing sqlite file on to an actual device and be part of my app. I have located the simulator generated sqlite file at /Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/6.0/Applications/identifier/Documents/myapp.sqlite and dragged it into Xcode. This has added it to my application bundle but not in an appropriate directory (with the consequence that the sqlite file can be read but not written to). From reading about the file system I believe that the best place to put the sqlite file would be in a custom directory 'Database' under Application_Home/Library/. I don't seem to be able to do this within Xcode and despite searching I am unable to figure out how to do the following: (1) Create a sub-directory called 'Database' in Application_Home/Library/ ? (2) Transfer the sqlite file to my newly created 'Database' directory ? Many thanks to @Daij-Djan of his answer below. One other question: the path to the sqlite file will be used by the persistent store coordinator. Now depending on the size of the sqlite file it may take a while to copy or move. How can you ensure that the example code provided by @Daij-Djan has executed and finished before the persistent store coordinator tries to reference the sqlite file? Thanks for any help in advance.

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  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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  • Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

    - by user227290
    I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • Magento layout related basic Questions ?

    - by user197992
    Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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