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• PEAR:DB connection parameters

  - by Markus Ossi

  I just finished my first PHP site and now I have a security-related question. I used PEAR:DB for the database connection and made a separate parameter file for it. How should I hide this parameter file? I found a guide (http://www.kitebird.com/articles/peardb.html) that says: Another way to specify connection parameters is to put them in a separate file that you reference from your main script. ... It also enables you to move the parameter file outside of the web server's document tree, which prevents its contents from being displayed literally if the server becomes misconfigured and starts serving PHP scripts as plain text. I have now put my file in a directory like this /include/db_parameters.inc However, if I go to this URL, the web server shows me the contents of the file including my database username and password. From what I've understood, I should protect this file so, that even though PHP would be served as text, nobody could read this. What does outside of web server's document tree mean here? Put the PHP file out of public_html directory altogether deeper into the server file system? Some CHMOD?

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• Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

  - by Darin

  I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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• Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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• Trying to match variables in a PHP array

  - by Nick B

  I'm stuck with a php array problem. I've to a webpage that takes values from a URL, and I need to cross reference those values against some values on the page and if they match output a 'yes'. It's an expression engine bodge job. The URL is something like domain.com/page/C12&C14 The C12 and C14 represent different categories. I've taken the last bit of the url, removed the 'C' from the values and then exploded the 12&14 into an array. I print_r the array on the page and it shows: Array ( [0] = 12 [1] = 14 ) So, the values are in the array. Lovely. Now on the page I have an html list which looks like 10 12 14 15 I want to output a YES next to the variables that are current in the array so the ideal output would be: 10 12 - YES 14 - YES 15 I was trying this but it keeps just saying No next to all of them. $currentnumber = 12; foreach ($tharray as $element) { if ($element == $currentnumber) { echo "Yes"; } else { echo "No"; } } I thought that should work, but it's not. I checked and the array and the variable are both stings. I did a strlen() on both to see if they are the same, but $currentnumber outputs '13' and the array variable outputs '2'. Any ideas as to why it's saying 13? Is the variable the wrong type of string - and if so how would I convert it?

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• [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

  - by Luke Mcneice

  Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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• Get the id of the link and pass it to the jQueryUI dialog widget

  - by Mike Sanchez

  I'm using the dialog widget of jQueryUI. Now, the links are grabbed from an SQL database by using jQuery+AJAX which is the reason why I used "live" $(function() { var $dialog = $('#report') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true, height: 410, width: 350, draggable: true }) //store reference to placeholders $uid = $('#reportUniqueId'); $('.reportopen').live("click", function (e) { $dialog.dialog('open'); var $uid = $(this).attr('id'); e.preventDefault(); }); }); My question is, how do I pass the id of the link that triggered the dialog widget to the dialog box itself? The link is set up like this: <td align="left" width="12%"> <span id="notes"> [<a href="javascript:void(0)" class="reportopen" id="<?=$reportId;?>">Spam</a>] </span> </td> And the dialogbox is set up like this: <div id="report" title="Inquire now"> HAHAHAHAHA <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> </div> I'd like for the id to be passed and generated in the <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> part of the dialog box. Any idea?

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• Using a CMS with an external database

  - by George Reith

  I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

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• Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

  - by Schnapple

  Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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• Changing <object> height and width works in Chrome but not Firefox or IE. Why?

  - by Michael Hopkins

  I am making a site with two Youtube videos. These videos use the raw embed code from Youtube. The site's design doesn't work with any of the default Youtube sizes, so I am writing code to automatically resize the video. Here is my code. There will never be more than these two tags on the page, otherwise I'd do a better job selecting the videos. <script language='JavaScript' type='text/javascript'> var x=document.getElementsByTagName('object'); x.[0].width='350'; x.[0].height='350'; x.[1].width='350'; x.[1].height='350'; </script> For reference, here's a sample default Youtube embed that the code might alter: <object width="480" height="385"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="480" height="385"></embed> </object> In Chrome, the video players sit perfectly in a 350x350 box. In IE and FF (latest versions), the videos are the unchanged, normal size. I cannot find anything in Google that explans why this won't work. I have tried using setattribute, for loops, adjusting both and , single-quotes and double-quotes, etc. Any ideas what is going wrong?

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• Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

  - by goober

  Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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• flash as3, Error #1009

  - by smerels

  I'm making a website that exist out of linked pages. All the pages are on the time line and all the code is in an as3 file. The first page with links works but if I want to place a link on the second frame I get the 1009 error Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Because the link doesn't exist on the first frame. This is my code. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.MouseEvent; public class Honger extends MovieClip { public function Honger():void { weten.buttonMode = true; weten.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickWeten); spelen.buttonMode = true; spelen.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickSpelen); antwoorden.buttonMode = true; antwoorden.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickAntwoorden); } public function onClickWeten(e:MouseEvent):void { this.gotoAndStop("vragen"); } public function onClickSpelen(e:MouseEvent):void{ this.gotoAndStop("spel"); } public function onClickAntwoorden(e:MouseEvent):void{ this.gotoAndStop("sp"); } } } Does anyone know how to solve this problem within the code?

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• Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

  - by CL4NCY

  Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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• What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

  - by Lord Torgamus

  Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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• Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

  - by George Crawford

  Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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• Prolog singleton variables in Python

  - by Rubens

  I'm working on a little set of scripts in python, and I came to this: line = "a b c d e f g" a, b, c, d, e, f, g = line.split() I'm quite aware of the fact that these are decisions taken during implementation, but shouldn't (or does) python offer something like: _, _, var_needed, _, _, another_var_needed, _ = line.split() as well as Prolog does offer, in order to exclude the famous singleton variables. I'm not sure, but wouldn't it avoid unnecessary allocation? Or creating references to the result of the split call does not count up as overhead? EDIT: Sorry, my point here is: in Prolog, as far as I'm concerned, in an expression like: test(L, N) :- test(L, 0, N). test([], N, N). test([_|T], M, N) :- V is M + 1, test(T, V, N). The variable represented by _ is not accessible, for what I suppose the reference to the value that does exist in the list [_|T] is not even created. But, in Python, if I use _, I can use the last value assigned to _, and also, I do suppose the assignment occurs for each of the variables _ -- which may be considered an overhead. My question here is if shouldn't there be (or if there is) a syntax to avoid such unnecessary attributions.

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• How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

  - by Jesse Beder

  I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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• how to share a variable between two threads

  - by prmatta

  I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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• SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

  - by gbn

  We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

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• GWT - problems with constants in css

  - by hba

  Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

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• Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

  - by Steve

  I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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• Can we manipulate (subtract) the value of a property while template bidning?

  - by Subhen

  Hi, I am currently defining few grids as following: <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-Height/5}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/15}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/20}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/6}"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> While the division works fine , the subtraction isn't yielding the output. Ialso tried like following: <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-(Height/5)}"/> Still no result. Any suggestions plz. Thanks, Subhen ** Update ** Now In My XAML I tried implementing the IvalueConverter like : <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height, Converter={StaticResource heightConverter}}"/> Added the reference as <local:medieElementHeight x:Key="heightConverter"/> In side generic.cs I have coded as following: public class medieElementHeight : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { //customVideoControl objVdeoCntrl=new customVideoControl(); double custoMediaElementHeight = (double)value;//objVdeoCntrl.customMediaPlayer.Height; double mediaElementHeight = custoMediaElementHeight - (custoMediaElementHeight / 5); return mediaElementHeight; } #region IValueConverter Members object IValueConverter.ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } But getting the exception Unknown Element Height in the element RowDefination.

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• JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

  - by Heavy Bytes

  I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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• Why does grails use hsqldb when I ask for mysql?

  - by John

  I'm following the racetrack example from Jason Rudolph's book at InfoQ, using grails-1.2.1. I got up to the part where I was to switch from hsqldb to mysql. I think I've deleted every reference to hsqldb in the DataSource.groovy file, but I get an exception and the stack trace shows it's still using hsqldb. DataSource.groovy dataSource { boolean pooled = true String driverClassName = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/dfpc2" String dbCreate = "create" String username = "dfpc2" String password = "dfpc2" dialect = org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect } hibernate { cache.use_second_level_cache=true cache.use_query_cache=true cache.provider_class='net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider' } // environment specific settings environments { development { } test { } production { } } When I grails run-app it all starts up with no errors. I can navigate to the home page. But when I click on one of the links, I get a stack trace: java.sql.SQLException: Table not found in statement [select this_.id as id0_0_, this_.version as version0_0_, this_.name as name0_0_, this_.variant as variant0_0_ from domainObject this_ limit ?] at org.hsqldb.jdbc.Util.throwError(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcPreparedStatement.<init>(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcConnection.prepareStatement(Unknown Source) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy:13) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) My mysql database shows no tables created. (I don't think groovy's connected to mysql yet.) Things I've checked: mysql-connector-java-5.1.6.jar is in lib directory. I've tried grails clean I tried putting the dataSource info in the development environment (I haven't graduated to test or prod yet), but it seemed to make no difference. The stdout shows I'm using development env. I've googled for solutions, but the only solution I've found is when people don't change the test or production environments.

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