Search Results

Search found 16902 results on 677 pages for 'strange errors'.

Page 489/677 | < Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >

• Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

  - by Albert Perrien

  Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

  Read the article

• Facebook Stream.Get -- How to access data in array?

  - by user316841

  On stream.get, I try to echo $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["href"]; It return the URL, but, in the same array scope where "type" is located (which returns string: video, etc), trying $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["type"] returns nothing at all! Here's an array through PHP's var_dump: http://pastie.org/930475 So, from testing I suppose this is protected by Facebook? Does that makes sense at all? Here it's full: http://pastie.org/930490, but not all attachment/media/types has values. It's also strange, because I can't access through [attachment][media][href] or [attachment][media][type], and if I try [attachment][media][0][type] or href, it gives me a string offset error. ["attachment"]=> array(8) { ["media"]=> array(1) { [0]=> array(5) { ["href"]=> string(55) "http://www.facebook.com/video/video.php?v=1392999461587" ["alt"]=> string(13) "IN THE STUDIO" ["type"]=> string(5) "video" My question is, is this protected by Facebook? Or we can actually access this array position?

  Read the article

• CLI include paths to run zend framework via cron

  - by summerg

  I wrote a command line utility using Zend Framework to do some nightly reporting. It uses a ton of the same functionality the accompanying site. It works great when I run it by hand, but when I run it on cron I have include path issues. Seems like it should be easily fixed with set_include_path, but maybe I'm missing something? My directory structure looks like this: /var/www/clientname/ application Globals.php commandline commandline_bootstrap.php public_html public_bootstrap.php library Zend In public_bootstrap.php I use set_include_path without a problem, relative to the current directory: set_include_path('../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); If I understand correctly, in commandline_bootstrap.php I need to put in the absolute path, so cron knows where everything is. My file starts like this: error_reporting(E_ALL); set_include_path('/var/www/clientname/library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); require_once "../application/Globals.php"; But when I run it via cron I get the following error: PHP Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required '../application/Globals.php' (include_path='/var/www/clientname/library/') in /var/www/clientname/commandline/zfcli.php on line 11 I think PHP is accepting my new path, because when I run it command line and dump the phpinfo I can see: include_path = /var/www/clientname/library/:.:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php = .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php I admit the syntax here looks a little strange, but I can’t figure out how to fix it. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks summer

  Read the article

• C# How can I return my base class in a webservice

  - by HenriM

  I have a class Car and a derived SportsCar: Car Something like this: public class Car { public int TopSpeed{ get; set; } } public class SportsCar : Car { public string GirlFriend { get; set; } } I have a webservice with methods returning Cars i.e: [WebMethod] public Car GetCar() { return new Car() { TopSpeed = 100 }; } It returns: <Car> <TopSpeed>100</TopSpeed> </Car> I have another method that also returns cars like this: [WebMethod] public Car GetMyCar() { Car mycar = new SportsCar() { GirlFriend = "JLo", TopSpeed = 300 }; return mycar; } It compiles fine and everything, but when invoking it I get: System.InvalidOperationException: There was an error generating the XML document. --- System.InvalidOperationException: The type wsBaseDerived.SportsCar was not expected. Use the XmlInclude or SoapInclude attribute to specify types that are not known statically. I find it strange that it can't serialize this as a straight car, as mycar is a car. Adding XmlInclude on the WebMethod of ourse removes the error: [WebMethod] [XmlInclude(typeof(SportsCar))] public Car GetMyCar() { Car mycar = new SportsCar() { GirlFriend = "JLo", TopSpeed = 300 }; return mycar; } and it now returns: <Car xsi:type="SportsCar"> <TopSpeed>300</TopSpeed> <GirlFriend>JLo</GirlFriend> </Car> But I really want the base class returned, without the extra properties etc from the derived class. Is that at all possible without creating mappers etc? Please say yes ;)

  Read the article

• Apache HttpClient 4.0. Weird behavior.

  - by Mikhail T

  Hello. I'm using Apache HttpClient 4.0 for my web crawler. The behavior i found strange is: i'm trying to get page via HTTP GET method and getting response about 404 HTTP error. But if i try to get that page using browser it's done successfully. Details: 1. I upload multipart form to server this way: HttpPost httpPost = new HttpPost("http://[host here]/in.php"); MultipartEntity entity = new MultipartEntity(HttpMultipartMode.BROWSER_COMPATIBLE); entity.addPart("method", new StringBody("post")); entity.addPart("key", new StringBody("223fwe0923fjf23")); FileBody fileBody = new FileBody(new File("photo.jpg"), "image/jpeg"); entity.addPart("file", fileBody); httpPost.setEntity(entity); HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(httpPost); HttpEntity result = response.getEntity(); String responseString = ""; if (result != null) { InputStream inputStream = result.getContent(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; while(inputStream.read(buffer) > 0) responseString += new String(buffer); result.consumeContent(); } Uppload succefully ends. I'm getting some results from web server: HttpGet httpGet = new HttpGet("http://[host here]/res.php?key="+myKey+"&action=get&id="+id); HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(httpGet); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); I'm getting ClientProtocolException while execute method run. I was debugging this situation with log4j. Server answers "404 Not Found". But my browser loads me that page with no problem. Can anybody help me? Thank you.

  Read the article

• The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

  - by Trev

  Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

  Read the article

• Trouble with custom WPF Panel-derived class

  - by chaiguy

  I'm trying to write a custom Panel class for WPF, by overriding MeasureOverride and ArrangeOverride but, while it's mostly working I'm experiencing one strange problem I can't explain. In particular, after I call Arrange on my child items in ArrangeOverride after figuring out what their sizes should be, they aren't sizing to the size I give to them, and appear to be sizing to the size passed to their Measure method inside MeasureOverride. Am I missing something in how this system is supposed to work? My understanding is that calling Measure simply causes the child to evaluate its DesiredSize based on the supplied availableSize, and shouldn't affect its actual final size. Here is my full code (the Panel, btw, is intended to arrange children in the most space-efficient manner, giving less space to rows that don't need it and splitting remaining space up evenly among the rest--it currently only supports vertical orientation but I plan on adding horizontal once I get it working properly): protected override Size MeasureOverride( Size availableSize ) { foreach ( UIElement child in Children ) child.Measure( availableSize ); return availableSize; } protected override System.Windows.Size ArrangeOverride( System.Windows.Size finalSize ) { double extraSpace = 0.0; var sortedChildren = Children.Cast<UIElement>().OrderBy<UIElement, double>( new Func<UIElement, double>( delegate( UIElement child ) { return child.DesiredSize.Height; } ) ); double remainingSpace = finalSize.Height; double normalSpace = 0.0; int remainingChildren = Children.Count; foreach ( UIElement child in sortedChildren ) { normalSpace = remainingSpace / remainingChildren; if ( child.DesiredSize.Height < normalSpace ) // if == there would be no point continuing as there would be no remaining space remainingSpace -= child.DesiredSize.Height; else { remainingSpace = 0; break; } remainingChildren--; } extraSpace = remainingSpace / Children.Count; double offset = 0.0; foreach ( UIElement child in Children ) { //child.Measure( new Size( finalSize.Width, normalSpace ) ); double value = Math.Min( child.DesiredSize.Height, normalSpace ) + extraSpace; child.Arrange( new Rect( 0, offset, finalSize.Width, value ) ); offset += value; } return finalSize; }

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

  - by ebb

  Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• ApplicationPoolIdentity permissions on Temporary Asp.Net files

  - by Anton

  Hi all, at work I am struggling a bit with the following situation: We have a web application that runs on a WIndows Server 2008 64 bits machine. The app's ApplicationPool is running under the ApplicationPoolIdentity and configured for .net 2 and Classic pipeline mode. This works fine up to the moment that XmlSerialization requires creation of Serializer assemblies where MEF is being used to create a collection of knowntypes. To remedy this I was hoping that granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity rights to the ASP.Net Temporary Files directory would be enough, but alas... What I did was the run the following command from a cmd prompt: icacls "c:\windows\microsoft.net\framework64\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" /grant "IIS AppPool\MyAppPool":(M) Obviously this did not work, otherwise you would not be reading this :) Strange thing is that whenever I grant the Users or even more specific, the Authenticated Users Group those permissions, it works. What's weird as well (in my eyes) is that before I started granting access the ApplicationPoolIdentity was already a member of IIS_IUSRS which does have Modify rights for the temporary asp files directory. And now I'm left wondering why this situation requires Modify rights for the Authenticated Users group. I thought it could be because the apppool account was missing additional rights (googling for this returned some results, so I tried those), but granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity modification rights to the Windows\Temp directory and/or the application directory itself did not fix it. For now we have a workaround, but I hate that I don't know what is exactly going on here, so I was hoping any of you guys could shed some light on this. Thanx in advance!

  Read the article

• Private member vector of vector dynamic memory allocation

  - by Geoffroy

  Hello, I'm new to C++ (I learned programming with Fortran), and I would like to allocate dynamically the memory for a multidimensional table. This table is a private member variable : class theclass{ public: void setdim(void); private: std::vector < std::vector <int> > thetable; } I would like to set the dimension of thetable with the function setdim(). void theclass::setdim(void){ this->thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); } I have no problem compiling this program, but as I execute it, I've got a segmentation fault. The strange thing for me is that this piece (see under) of code does exactly what I want, except that it doesn't uses the private member variable of my class : std::vector < std::vector < int > > thetable; thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); By the way, I have no trouble if thetable is a 1D vector. In theclass : std::vector < int > thetable; and if in setdim : this->thetable.assign(1000,2); So my question is : why is there such a difference with "assign" between thetable and this-thetable for a 2D vector? And how should I do to do what I want? Thank-you for your help, Best regards, -- Geoffroy

  Read the article

• Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

  - by bitbonk

  We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

  Read the article

• Unable to create a breakpoint in Eclipse and Tomcat

  - by Traroth

  Since yesterday, I get a strange error message when I start my Tomcat (6.0.35) under Eclipse Juno (build 20120614-1722): Among the things I tried in order to get rid of the error: Check in Preferences - Java - Compiler if all "Classfile Generation" checkboxes where checked. I did that for both general preferences and project preference Uncheck them, build, check them build again (found on another question) Add org.eclipse.jdt.core.compiler.debug.lineNumber=generate to my .settings/org.eclipse.jdt.core.prefs file Use a new CVS checkout (same symptoms) And now, I don't know what to do anymore. The problem is really stopping me from get anything done. I can't work anymore. Crazy is: the problem doesn't happen on every class, only on some of them. Neither does it happen on my other Eclipse projects. And it didn't happen before yesterday, even if I can't remeber having done anything weird. Actually, I have never seen a problem like this in almost 10 years I'm using Eclipse... If you have any idea, I would be really grateful... Edit: I also tried to ignore the message and go on with my tests: If I create another breakpoint upstream from my problematic class, when I enter this problematic class, it tries to open a $Proxy132 class, which means it actually opens an empty page, with a source not found message

  Read the article

• JSF don't find component in view root with the form id

  - by kenzokujpn

  I have a t:inputFileUpload inside the form, in the html of the display page the id of this component is form:inputFile but when I tried to get the component from the view root using "form:inputFile" the return is null, but when the "form:" is removed the return is the component. The component don't set the value in my managed bean, someone have this problem? EDIT: <h:form id="form" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <t:inputFileUpload id="inputFile" size="40" value="#{managedBean.inputFile}"/> </h:form> In the managed bean: private UploadedFile inputFile; with the gets and sets provided by Eclipse. //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("form:inputFile"); This returns null, but when I use: //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("inputFile"); The return is the component I'm looking for, but when I use the View Source in Internet Explorer the id of this component is "form:inputFile". I don't know if this is related, but the component don't set the value in my managed bean and it's strange the fact that the id of the component is different from the HTML source. I'm using JSF 1.2 Mojarra. Someone else has this problem? Or know why this happens?

  Read the article

• Date Picker Control Not Displaying Proper Date (Access 2003)

  - by JPM

  Hi everyone, I just have a quick question. I am maintaining an app for my summer co-op position, and a new requirement came down today where the user requested to have a date control added to a form to mark the date of when an employee is "laid off". This control is enabled/disabled by a toggle button, and has its control source bound to a field that I added in the database. All the functionality has been added and tested, but.... The issue I am having is that the date picker is on a tab control (the 2nd page) and I am having problems trying to get the control to display the date that is stored in the field I created. I know the control is storing any changes made using it, but since the user asked to move the control over to the 2nd tab (it was on the first), it just shows today's date, not the date entered using the control. To make things a little more strange, if I place the control anywhere except the tab control, it seems to be working fine. I've even placed a textbox on the tab and set its control source to the database field, and it displays just fine. What gives? And I have registered the .ocx with Access, and as I mentioned before, the actual database is storing the data. Just not displaying it. Any ideas as to what I am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• IIS7 integrated mode MVC deploy 404 not found on some actions

  - by majkinetor

  Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. One interesting thing is that 1 AJAX action is working. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: Noticed one very strange thing. One ajax call works, other ajax call doesn't works as I login, but when I move to ther page and return to that one it starts working ?! Small video of the problem is available here

  Read the article

• Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

  - by williamjones

  I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

  Read the article

• Qt/PyQt dialog with toggable fullscreen mode - problem on Windows

  - by Guard

  I have a dialog created in PyQt. It's purpose and functionality don't matter. The init is: class MyDialog(QWidget, ui_module.Ui_Dialog): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(MyDialog, self).__init__(parent) self.setupUi(self) self.installEventFilter(self) self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Dialog | Qt.WindowTitleHint) self.showMaximized() Then I have event filtering method: def eventFilter(self, obj, event): if event.type() == QEvent.KeyPress: key = event.key() if key == Qt.Key_F11: if self.isFullScreen(): self.setWindowFlags(self._flags) if self._state == 'm': self.showMaximized() else: self.showNormal() self.setGeometry(self._geometry) else: self._state = 'm' if self.isMaximized() else 'n' self._flags = self.windowFlags() self._geometry = self.geometry() self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Tool | Qt.FramelessWindowHint) self.showFullScreen() return True elif key == Qt.Key_Escape: self.close() return QWidget.eventFilter(self, obj, event) As can be seen, Esc is used for dialog hiding, and F11 is used for toggling full-screen. In addition, if the user changed the dialog mode from the initial maximized to normal and possibly moved the dialog, it's state and position are restored after exiting the full-screen. Finally, the dialog is created on the MainWindow action triggered: d = MyDialog(self) d.show() It works fine on Linux (Ubuntu Lucid), but quite strange on Windows 7: if I go to the full-screen from the maximized mode, I can't exit full-screen (on F11 dialog disappears and appears in full-screen mode again. If I change the dialog's mode to Normal (by double-clicking its title), then go to full-screen and then return back, the dialog is shown in the normal mode, in the correct position, but without the title line. Most probably the reason for both cases is the same - the setWindowFlags doesn't work. But why? Is it also possible that it is the bug in the recent PyQt version? On Ubuntu I have 4.6.x from apt, and on Windows - the latest installer from the riverbank site.

  Read the article

• MS Query returns data inside itself but does not export it to Excel

  - by kappa

  Hi, I'm having a strange problem with Excel and MS Query: I'm using MS Query to run a T-SQL query against a Microsoft SQL Server 2000 and return the results to Excel. To do this, I open Excel, go to Data - Import external data - New database query, select my data source, paste the SQL script in MS Query and click File - Return data to Microsoft Office Excel, leaving all the query options to their defaults. This works fine for many other Excel files, but this time although MS Query shows the correct data when I paste the SQL script, after returning to Excel all I get is the query name in the upper left cell, with no data returned. I fear the cause could be the SQL script, as it contains some advanced functions like union all, UDFs and variables. Here's the script: declare @date smalldatetime set @date = dateadd(day, datediff(day, 0, getdate()), 0) select [date], sum([hours]) as [hours] from ( select [date], [hours] from [server].[dbo].[udf] (84, '2010-01-01', @date) union all select [date], [hours] from [server].[dbo].[udf] (89, '2010-01-01', @date) union all select [date], [hours] from [server].[dbo].[udf] (93, '2010-01-01', @date) ) as [a] group by [date] order by [date] asc I can't get rid of the UDF as inside them are done advanced groupings involving cursors and temporary tables, nor I can remove the variable as the UDF won't accept dateadd(day, datediff(day, 0, getdate()), 0) as parameter. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Andrea.

  Read the article

• rich:editor ruins html?

  - by Ben

  Hi, Strange behaviour. I use rich:editor with these attributes: (Irrelevant data removed) HtmlEditor editor = new HtmlEditor(); editor.setValueExpression("value", ve); editor.setTheme("advanced"); editor.setValueExpression("viewMode", viewModeValueExpression); panel.getChildren().add(editor); Now my problem is that whenever I load a ready-made html text such as this (In source mode): <html lang="en" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Done</title> </head> <body style="direction: ltr; font-size: medium; color: #0000FF;"> <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Image Editor.</p> </body> </html> Change to VisualMode and then back to SourceMode, I see that the editor removed all of my html data and now the source mode is this: <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Chul Muzal.</p> Anyone knows why this happens? Thanks!!

  Read the article

• Several Objective-C objects become Invalid for no reason, sometimes.

  - by farnsworth

  - (void)loadLocations { NSString *url = @"<URL to a text file>"; NSStringEncoding enc = NSUTF8StringEncoding; NSString *locationString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] usedEncoding:&enc error:nil]; NSArray *lines = [locationString componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; for (int i=0; i<[lines count]; i++) { NSString *line = [lines objectAtIndex:i]; NSArray *components = [line componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]; Restaurant *res = [byID objectForKey:[components objectAtIndex:0]]; if (res) { NSString *resAddress = [components objectAtIndex:3]; NSArray *loc = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[components objectAtIndex:1], [components objectAtIndex:2]]; [res.locationCoords setObject:loc forKey:resAddress]; } else { NSLog([[components objectAtIndex:0] stringByAppendingString:@" res id not found."]); } } } There are a few weird things happening here. First, at the two lines where the NSArray lines is used, this message is printed to the console- *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFDictionary count]: method sent to an uninitialized mutable dictionary object' which is strange since lines is definitely not an NSMutableDictionary, definitely is initialized, and because the app doesn't crash. Also, at random points in the loop, all of the variables that the debugger can see will become Invalid. Local variables, property variables, everything. Then after a couple lines they will go back to their original values. setObject:forKey never has an effect on res.locationCoords, which is an NSMutableDictionary. I'm sure that res, res.locationCoords, and byId are initialized. I also tried adding a retain or copy to lines, same thing. I'm sure there's a basic memory management principle I'm missing here but I'm at a loss.

  Read the article

• How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

  - by froadie

  I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

  Read the article

• Generic property- specify the type at runtime

  - by Lirik

  I was reading a question on making a generic property, but I'm a little confused at by the last example from the first answer (I've included the relevant code below): You have to know the type at compile time. If you don't know the type at compile time then you must be storing it in an object, in which case you can add the following property to the Foo class: public object ConvertedValue { get { return Convert.ChangeType(Value, Type); } } That's seems strange: it's converting the value to the specified type, but it's returning it as an object when the value was stored as an object. Doesn't the returned object still require un-boxing? If it does, then why bother with the conversion of the type? I'm also trying to make a generic property whose type will be determined at run time: public class Foo { object Value {get;set;} Type ValType{get;set;} Foo(object value, Type type) { Value = value; ValType = type; } // I need a property that is actually // returned as the specified value type... public object ConvertedValue { get { return Convert.ChangeType(Value, ValType); } } } Is it possible to make a generic property? Does the return property still require unboxing after it's accessed?

  Read the article

• Module not found

  - by TMP

  Hi There! I've been working on this one quite a bit and haven't gotten any closer to a solution. I juut dug up my old copy of the WindowsHookLib again - It's available with source at http://www.codeproject.com/KB/DLL/WindowsHookLib.aspx. This library allows Global Windows Mouse/Keyboard/Clipboard Hooks, which is very useful. I'm trying to use the Mouse Hook in here to Capture Mouse-Motion (I could use a Timer that always polls Cursor.Position, but I plan on using more features of WindowsHookLib later). Code as follows: MouseHook mh = new MouseHook(); mh.InstallHook(); mh.MouseMove += new EventHandler<WindowsHookLib.MouseEventArgs>(mh_MouseMove); But on the call to InstallHook(), I get an Exception: "The specified Module could not be found". Strange. Searching, I found that someone thought this occurs because a DLL is not in a place included in the Windows PATH variable, and because placing it in system32 didn't help I went the whole hog and translated the thing to C# for inclusion directly in my project (I was curious how it works). However the error was obstinately persistent, so I dug a bit on this, and found the Code in the Library that is responsible: In InstallHook(), we have IntPtr hinstDLL = Marshal.GetHINSTANCE(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetModules()[0]); this._hMouseHook = UnsafeNativeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx(14, this._mouseProc, hinstDLL, 0); if (this._hMouseHook == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new MouseHookException(new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message); } And this (after modification and recompile) tells me that what I'm really getting is a Windows error "ERROR_MOD_NOT_FOUND"! Now, Here I'm stumped. Didn't I just compile the Hook Library directly into my project? (UnsafeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx is just a DllImported Method from user32) Any Answers, or Prods in the right direction, or any hints, pointers or similar are very much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

  - by c.batt

  I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• C++ class is not being included properly.

  - by ravloony

  Hello all, I have a problem which is either something I have completely failed to understand, or very strange. It's probably the first one, but I have spent the whole afternoon googling with no success, so here goes... I have a class called Schedule, which has as a member a vector of Room. However, when I compile using cmake, or even by hand, I get the following: In file included from schedule.cpp:1: schedule.h:13: error: ‘Room’ was not declared in this scope schedule.h:13: error: template argument 1 is invalid schedule.h:13: error: template argument 2 is invalid schedule.cpp: In constructor ‘Schedule::Schedule(int, int, int)’: schedule.cpp:12: error: ‘Room’ was not declared in this scope schedule.cpp:12: error: expected ‘;’ before ‘r’ schedule.cpp:13: error: request for member ‘push_back’ in ‘((Schedule*)this)->Schedule::_sched’, which is of non-class type ‘int’ schedule.cpp:13: error: ‘r’ was not declared in this scope Here are the relevant bits of code: #include <vector> #include "room.h" class Schedule { private: std::vector<Room> _sched; //line 13 int _ndays; int _nrooms; int _ntslots; public: Schedule(); ~Schedule(); Schedule(int nrooms, int ndays, int ntslots); }; Schedule::Schedule(int nrooms, int ndays, int ntslots):_ndays(ndays), _nrooms(nrooms),_ntslots(ntslots) { for (int i=0; i<nrooms;i++) { Room r(ndays,ntslots); _sched.push_back(r); } } In theory, g++ should compile a class before the one that includes it. There are no circular dependencies here, it's all straightforward stuff. I am completely stumped on this one, which is what leads me to believe that I must be missing something. :-D

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >