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  • Advice on "Invalid Pointer Operation" when using complex records

    - by Xaz
    Env: Delphi 2007 <JustificationI tend to use complex records quite frequently as they offer almost all of the advantages of classes but with much simpler handling.</Justification Anyhoo, one particularly complex record I have just implemented is trashing memory (later leading to an "Invalid Pointer Operation" error). This is an example of the memory trashing code: sSignature := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary].Signature.Formatted(True); On the second time i call it i get "Invalid Pointer Operation" It works OK if i call it like this: AProfile := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary]; ASignature := AProfile.Signature; sSignature := ASignature.Formatted(True); Background Code: gProfiles: TProfiles; TProfiles = Record private FPrimaryProfileID: Integer; FCachedProfile: TProfile; ... public < much code removed > property Profile[ProfileType: TProfileType]: TProfile Read GetProfile; end; function TProfiles.GetProfile(ProfileType: TProfileType): TProfile; begin case ProfileType of _stPrimary : Result := ProfileByID(FPrimaryProfileID); ... end; end; function TProfiles.ProfileByID(iID: Integer): TProfile; begin <snip> if LoadProfileOfID(iID, FCachedProfile) then begin Result := FCachedProfile; end else ... end; TProfile = Record private ... public ... Signature: TSignature; ... end; TSignature = Record private public PlainTextFormat : string; HTMLFormat : string; // The text to insert into a message when using this profile function Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; end; function TSignature.Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; begin if bHTML then result := HTMLFormat else result := PlainTextFormat; < SNIP MUCH CODE > end; OK, so I have a record within a record within a record, which is approaching Inception level confusion and I'm the first to admit is not really a good model. Clearly i am going to have to restructure it. What I would like from you gurus is a better understanding of why it is trashing the memory (something to do with the string object that is created then freed...) so that i can avoid making these kinds of errors in future. Thanks

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  • Project Euler #18 - how to brute force all possible paths in tree-like structure using Python?

    - by euler user
    Am trying to learn Python the Atlantic way and am stuck on Project Euler #18. All of the stuff I can find on the web (and there's a LOT more googling that happened beyond that) is some variation on 'well you COULD brute force it, but here's a more elegant solution'... I get it, I totally do. There are really neat solutions out there, and I look forward to the day where the phrase 'acyclic graph' conjures up something more than a hazy, 1 megapixel resolution in my head. But I need to walk before I run here, see the state, and toy around with the brute force answer. So, question: how do I generate (enumerate?) all valid paths for the triangle in Project Euler #18 and store them in an appropriate python data structure? (A list of lists is my initial inclination?). I don't want the answer - I want to know how to brute force all the paths and store them into a data structure. Here's what I've got. I'm definitely looping over the data set wrong. The desired behavior would be to go 'depth first(?)' rather than just looping over each row ineffectually.. I read ch. 3 of Norvig's book but couldn't translate the psuedo-code. Tried reading over the AIMA python library for ch. 3 but it makes too many leaps. triangle = [ [75], [95, 64], [17, 47, 82], [18, 35, 87, 10], [20, 4, 82, 47, 65], [19, 1, 23, 75, 3, 34], [88, 2, 77, 73, 7, 63, 67], [99, 65, 4, 28, 6, 16, 70, 92], [41, 41, 26, 56, 83, 40, 80, 70, 33], [41, 48, 72, 33, 47, 32, 37, 16, 94, 29], [53, 71, 44, 65, 25, 43, 91, 52, 97, 51, 14], [70, 11, 33, 28, 77, 73, 17, 78, 39, 68, 17, 57], [91, 71, 52, 38, 17, 14, 91, 43, 58, 50, 27, 29, 48], [63, 66, 4, 68, 89, 53, 67, 30, 73, 16, 69, 87, 40, 31], [04, 62, 98, 27, 23, 9, 70, 98, 73, 93, 38, 53, 60, 4, 23], ] def expand_node(r, c): return [[r+1,c+0],[r+1,c+1]] all_paths = [] my_path = [] for i in xrange(0, len(triangle)): for j in xrange(0, len(triangle[i])): print 'row ', i, ' and col ', j, ' value is ', triangle[i][j] ??my_path = somehow chain these together??? if my_path not in all_paths all_paths.append(my_path) Answers that avoid external libraries (like itertools) preferred.

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

    - by PirateKitten
    I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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  • Should I go along with my choice of web hosting company or still search?

    - by Devner
    Hi all, I have been searching for a good website hosting company that can offer me all the services that I need for hosting my PHP & MySQL based website. Now this is a community based website and users will be able to upload pictures, etc. The hosting company that I have in mind, currently lets me do everything... let me use mail(), supports CRON jobs, etc. Of course they are charging about $6/month. Now the only problem with this company is that they have a limit of 50,000 files that can exist within the hosting account at any time. This kind of contradicts their frontpage ad of "UNLIMITED SPACE" on their website. Apart from this, I know of no other reason why I should not go with this hosting company. But my issue is that 50,000 file limit is what I cannot live with, once the users increase in significant number and the files they upload, exceed 50,000 in number. Now since this is a dynamic website and also includes sensitive issues like payments, etc. I am not sure if I should go ahead with this company as I am just starting out and then later switch over to a better hosting company which does not limit me with 50,000 files. If I need to switch over once I host with this company, I will need to take backups of all the files located in my account (jpg, zip, etc.), then upload them to the new host. I am not aware of any tools that can help me in this process. Can you please mention if you know any? I can go ahead with the other companies right now, but their cost is double/triple of the current price and they all sport less features than my current choice. If I pay more, then they are ready to accommodate my higher demands. Unfortunately, the company that I am willing to go with now, does NOT have any other higher/better plans that I can switch to. So that's the really really bad part. So my question(s): Since I am starting out with my website and since the scope of users initially is going to be less/small, should I go ahead with the current choice and then once the demand increases, switch over to a better provider? If yes, how can I transfer my database, especially the jpg files, etc. to the new provider? I don't even know the tools required to backup and restore to another host. (I don't like this idea but still..) Should I go ahead and pay more right now and go with better providers (without knowing if the website is going to do really that well) just for saving myself the trouble of having to take a backup of the 50,000 files and upload to a new host from an old host and just start paying double/triple the price without even knowing if I would receive back the returns as I expected? Backup and Restore in such a bulky numbers is something that I have never done before and hence I am stuck here trying to decide what to do. The price per month is also a considerable factor in my decision. All these web hosting companies say one common thing: It is customers responsibility to backup and restore data and they are not liable for any loss. So no matter what hosting company that I would like to go with, they ask me to take backup via FTP so that I can restore them whenever I want (& it seems to be safer to have the files locally with me). Some are providing tools for backup and some are not and I am not sure how much their backup tools can be trusted considering the disclaimers they have. I have never backed-up and restored 50,000 files from one web host to another, so please, all you experienced people out there, leave your comments and let me know your suggestions so that I can decide. I have spent 2 days fighting with myself trying to decide what to do and finally concluded that this is a double-edged sword and I can't arrive at a satisfactory final decision without involving others suggestions. I believe that someone must be out there who may have had such troublesome decision to make. So all your suggestions to help me make my decision are appreciated. Thank you all.

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  • Adding Insert Row in tableView

    - by user333624
    Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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  • plotting multiple google maps to page

    - by Roland
    I'm trying to append more than one Google Map to a page. But it seems like I'm having some trouble. This would be the template I'm using to ( with Handlebars.js ) to create the same block more than once, about 50 times : <script type="text/x-handlebars-template"> {{#each productListing}} <div class="product-listing-wrapper"> <div class="product-listing"> <div class="left-side-content"> <div class="thumb-wrapper" data-image-link="{{ThumbnailUrl}}"> <i class="thumb"> <img src="{{ThumbnailUrl}}" alt="Thumb"> <span class="zoom-image"></span> </i> </div> <div class="google-maps-wrapper"> <div class="google-coordonates-wrapper"> <div class="google-coordonates"> <p>{{LatLon.Lat}}</p> <p>{{LatLon.Lon}}</p> </div> </div> <div class="google-maps-button"> <a class="google-maps" href="#">Google Maps</a> </div> </div> </div> <div class="right-side-content"> <div class="map-canvas-wrapper"> <div id="map-canvas" class="map-canvas" data-latitude="{{LatLon.Lat}}" data-longitude="{{LatLon.Lon}}"></div> </div> <div class="content-wrapper"></div> </div> </div> </div> {{/each}} And I'm trying to append the map to the #map-canvas id. With the following block of code I'm doing the plotting : Cluster.prototype.initiate_map_assembling = function() { return $(this.map_canvas_wrapper_class).each(function(index, element) { var canvas = $(element).children(); var latitude = $(canvas).attr('data-latitude'); var longitude = $(canvas).attr('data-longitude'); var coordinates = new google.maps.LatLng(latitude, longitude); var options = { zoom: 9, center: coordinates, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map($(canvas), options); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: coordinates, map: map }); }); }; This way I'm "looping" through all the parent classes of the id I'm trying to append the map to, but the map would only append to the first id. I tried to append it to all of the id's in other ways but with the same results. So what would you suggest me to do to make it work as I would expect it, append the map to each of the id's ?

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  • Refactor a link and an image

    - by Mihail Stoynov
    I have to write an link with an image inside. Instead of explaining, here's the code I have now: <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image != null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image == null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image != null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="#{userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image == null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> This code looks awful - there are two exact links with two exact images but combined in all possible combinations. Is there a better way? Is there a way to avoid c:if - it created tables? Update: Bozho proposes: You can replace <c:if and <a with <h:outputLink rendered="#{..}". Apart from that I don't see any other optimization. But it doesn't work. This does not render correctly: <a href=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> (the image is outside the anchor) This does render fine: <h:outputLink value=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> , but it always adds href and in two of the cases I don't want href when rendered.

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  • Gap between Navbar and Jumbotron

    - by DDK
    I am building I suppose you could call a template for the site I am going to build however I am still pretty new to bootstrap and thus have trouble figuring which CSS rules are affecting elements etc. The problem I am having is I cannot get the Jumbotron unit to sit flush with the bottom of the navbar. I have found a few questions on here about the same problem but the solutions did not work. Here is my code </head> <body> <div class="row"> <div> <img src="http://placehold.it/1600x300" width="100%"> </div> <!-- Static navbar --> <div class="navbar navbar-default navbar-static-top" role="navigation"> <div class="container"> <div class="navbar-header"> <button type="button" class="navbar-toggle" data-toggle="collapse" data-target=".navbar-collapse"> <span class="sr-only">Toggle navigation</span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> </button> </div> <div class="navbar-collapse collapse"> <ul class="nav nav-justified" id="myNav"> <li class="active"><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#about">About</a></li> <li><a href="#contact">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="#contact">Services</a></li> </ul> </div><!--/.nav-collapse --> </div> </div> <div class="jumbotron" id="openingtext"> This is where the opening sale text will go </div> <div class="container"> <!-- Example row of columns --> <div class="row"> <div class="col-md-4"> <h2>Heading</h2> <p>Donec id elit non mi porta gravida at eget metus. Fusce dapibus, tellus ac cursus commodo, tortor mauris condimentum nibh, ut fermentum massa justo sit amet risus. Etiam porta sem malesuada magna mollis euismod. Donec sed odio dui. </p> <p><a class="btn btn-default" href="#" role="button">View details &raquo;</a></p> </div> <div class="col-md-4"> <h2>Heading</h2> I would provide the css but as it is all being pulled from an unchanged version of bootstrap and my stylesheet.css has nothing relating to any of these ids etc it seems pointless to do so. I look forward to hearing your solutions guys and girls

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  • I can connect to Samba server but cannot access shares.

    - by jlego
    I'm having trouble getting samba sharing working to access shares. I have setup a stand-alone box running Fedora 16 to use as a file-sharing and web development server. It needs to be able to share files with a Windows 7 PC and a Mac running OSX Snow Leopard. I've setup Samba using the Samba configuration GUI tool on Fedora. Added users to Fedora and connected them as Samba users (which are the same as the Windows and Mac usernames and passwords). The workgroup name is the same as the Windows workgroup. Authentication is set to User. I've allowed Samba and Samba client through the firewall and set the ethernet to a trusted port in the firewall. Both the Windows and Mac machines can connect to the server and view the shares, however when trying to access the shares, Windows throws error: 0x80070035 " Windows cannot access \\SERVERNAME\ShareName." Windows user is not prompted for a username or password when accessing the server (found under "Network Places"). This also happens when connecting with the IP rather than the server name. The Mac can also connect to the server and see the shares but when choosing a share gives the error: The original item for ShareName cannot be found. When connecting via IP, the Mac user is prompted for username and password, which when authenticated gives a list of shares, however when choosing a share to connect to, the error is displayed and the user cannot access the share. Since both machines are acting similarly when trying to access the shares, I assume it is an issue with how Samba is configured. smb.conf: [global] workgroup = workgroup server string = Server log file = /var/log/samba/log.%m max log size = 50 security = user load printers = yes cups options = raw printcap name = lpstat printing = cups [homes] comment = Home Directories browseable = no writable = yes [printers] comment = All Printers path = /var/spool/samba browseable = yes printable = yes [FileServ] comment = FileShare path = /media/FileServ read only = no browseable = yes valid users = user1, user2 [webdev] comment = Web development path = /var/www/html/webdev read only = no browseable = yes valid users = user1 How do I get samba sharing working? UPDATE: I Figured it out, it was because I was sharing a second hard drive. See checked answer below. Speculation 1: Before this box I had another box with the same version of fedora installed (16) and samba working for these same computers. I started up the old machine and copied the smb.conf file from the old machine to the new one (editing the share definitions for the new shares of course) and I still get the same errors on both client machines. The only difference in environment is the hardware and the router. On the old machine the router received a dynamic public IP and assigned dynamic private IPs to each device on the network while the new machine is connected to a router that has a static public IP (still dynamic internal IPs though.) Could either one of these be affecting Samba? Speculation 2: As the directory I am trying to share is actually an entire internal disk, I have tried these things: 1.) changing the owner of the mounted disk from root to my user (which is the same username as on the Windows machine) 2.) made a share that only included one of the folders on the disk instead of the entire disk with my user again as the owner. Both tests failed giving me the same errors regarding the network address. Speculation 3: Whenever I try to connect to the share on the Windows 7 client I am prompted for my username and password. When I enter the correct credentials I get an access denied message. However I did notice that under the login box "domain: WINDOWS-PC-NAME" is listed. I believe this could very well be the problem. Speculation 4: So I've completely reinstalled Fedora and Samba now. I've created a share on the first harddrive (one fedora is installed on) and I can access that fine from Windows. However when I try to share any data on the second disk, I am receiving the same error. This I believe is the problem. I think I need to change some things in fstab or fdisk or something. Speculation 5: So in fstab I mapped the drive to automount in a folder which works correctly. I also added the samba_share_t SElinux label to the mountpoint directory which now allows me to access the shares on the Windows machine, however I cannot see any of the files in the directory on the windows machine. (They are there, I can see them in the fedora file browser locally)

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  • jQuery , Trigger change event on newly created elements

    - by kwhohasamullet
    Hi Guys, I have a button in a form that when clicked adds another set of form fields, In these form fields there are 2 drop downs where the contents of the 2nd dropdown rely on what is selected in the first dropdown... What i want to do is when the new form field button is clicked for the new items to be added and then the change event to be triggered on the drop down that was created so what only that drop down changes and not all the drop downs with the same name currently in that form. THe first drop down is called product Category The code for the addFormField function is: function addFormField() { var id = document.getElementById("field_id").value; $("#products").append("<table width='600' cellpadding='5' cellspacing='0' class='Add_Products' id='row" + id + "'><td width='250' class='left'><label>Select Product Category</label></td><td class='right' ><label><select name='" + id + "' id='ProductCategory'><?php foreach($categories as $key=>$category){ echo "<option value=".$key.">".$category."</option>"; } ?></select></label></td></tr><tr><td width='250' class='left'><label>Select Product Template</label></td><td class='right' ><label><select name='data[QuoteItem][" + id + "][product_id]' id='QuoteItem" + id + "product_id' class='Product' title='" + id + "'></select></label></td></tr><tr ><td class='left'>Name</td><td class='right'><label><input name='data[QuoteItem][" + id + "][name]' type='text' id='QuoteItem" + id + "name' size='50' /></label></td></tr><tr ><td class='left'>Price (ex GST)</td><td class='right'><input type='text' name='data[QuoteItem][" + id + "][price]' id='QuoteItem" + id + "price' onchange='totalProductPrice();' class='quote-item-price' value='0' /></td></tr><tr><td class='left'>Description</td><td class='right'><label><textarea name='data[QuoteItem][" + id + "][description]' cols='38' rows='5' id='QuoteItem" + id + "description'></textarea></label></td></tr><tr><td><a href='#' onClick='removeFormField(\"#row" + id + "\"); return false;'>Remove</a></td></tr></table>"); $('#row' + id).highlightFade({ speed:1000 }); id = (id - 1) + 2; document.getElementById("field_id").value = id; } The code that detects change in ProductCategory dropdown and triggers the AJAX is below: $("select#ProductCategory").live('change', function(){ var url = base + "/quotes/productList/" + $(this).val() + ""; var id = $(this).attr('name'); $.getJSON(url,{id: $(this).val(), ajax: 'true'}, function(j){ var options = ''; options += '<option value="0">None</option>'; $.each(j, function(key, value){ options += '<option value="' + key + '">' + value + '</option>'; }) $("select#QuoteItem" + id + "product_id").html(options); }) }).trigger('change'); I have been trying all afternoon to work this out and the closest one i got to work applied the returned ajax values to all items. Currently using the live function people can add new fields and are able to use the drops down independant of each other dropdown but its only when the field is first added that i have trouble getting is populated Thanks in advance for any help

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  • Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

    - by Justin L.
    I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • Accessing Layout Items from inside Widget AppWidgetProvider

    - by cam4mav
    I am starting to go insane trying to figure this out. It seems like it should be very easy, I'm starting to wonder if it's possible. What I am trying to do is create a home screen widget, that only contains an ImageButton. When it is pressed, the idea is to change some setting (like the wi-fi toggle) and then change the Buttons image. I have the ImageButton declared like this in my main.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/buttonOne" android:src="@drawable/button_normal_ringer" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center" /> my AppWidgetProvider class, named ButtonWidget * note that the RemoteViews class is a locally stored variable. this allowed me to get access to the RViews layout elements... or so I thought. @Override public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager, int[] appWidgetIds) { remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main); Intent active = new Intent(context, ButtonWidget.class); active.setAction(VIBRATE_UPDATE); active.putExtra("msg","TESTING"); PendingIntent actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.buttonOne, actionPendingIntent); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, remoteViews); } @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // v1.5 fix that doesn't call onDelete Action final String action = intent.getAction(); Log.d("onReceive",action); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_DELETED.equals(action)) { final int appWidgetId = intent.getExtras().getInt( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); if (appWidgetId != AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID) { this.onDeleted(context, new int[] { appWidgetId }); } } else { // check, if our Action was called if (intent.getAction().equals(VIBRATE_UPDATE)) { String msg = "null"; try { msg = intent.getStringExtra("msg"); } catch (NullPointerException e) { Log.e("Error", "msg = null"); } Log.d("onReceive",msg); if(remoteViews != null){ Log.d("onReceive",""+remoteViews.getLayoutId()); remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.buttonOne, R.drawable.button_pressed_ringer); Log.d("onReceive", "tried to switch"); } else{ Log.d("F!", "--naughty language used here!!!--"); } } super.onReceive(context, intent); } } so, I've been testing this and the onReceive method works great, I'm able to send notifications and all sorts of stuff (removed from code for ease of reading) the one thing I can't do is change any properties of the view elements. To try and fix this, I made RemoteViews a local and static private variable. Using log's I was able to see that When multiple instances of the app are on screen, they all refer to the one instance of RemoteViews. perfect for what I'm trying to do The trouble is in trying to change the image of the ImageButton. I can do this from within the onUpdate method using this. remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.buttonOne, R.drawable.button_pressed_ringer); that doesn't do me any good though once the widget is created. For some reason, even though its inside the same class, being inside the onReceive method makes that line not work. That line used to throw a Null pointer as a matter of fact, until I changed the variable to static. now it passes the null test, refers to the same layoutId as it did at the start, reads the line, but it does nothing. Its like the code isn't even there, just keeps chugging along. SO...... Is there any way to modify layout elements from within a widget after the widget has been created!? I want to do this based on the environment, not with a configuration activity launch. I've been looking at various questions and this seems to be an issue that really hasn't been solved, such as link text and link text oh and for anyone who finds this and wants a good starting tutorial for widgets, this is easy to follow (though a bit old, it gets you comfortable with widgets) .pdf link text hopefully someone can help here. I kinda have the feeling that this is illegal and there is a different way to go about this. I would LOVE to be told another approach!!!! Thanks

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  • OpenGL texture misaligned on quad

    - by user308226
    I've been having trouble with this for a while now, and I haven't gotten any solutions that work yet. Here is the problem, and the specifics: I am loading a 256x256 uncompressed TGA into a simple OpenGL program that draws a quad on the screen, but when it shows up, it is shifted about two pixels to the left, with the cropped part appearing on the right side. It has been baffling me for the longest time, people have suggested clamping and such, but somehow I think my problem is probably something really simple, but I just can't figure out what it is! Here is a screenshot comparing the TGA (left) and how it appears running in the program (right) for clarity. Also take note that there's a tiny black pixel on the upper right corner, I'm hoping that's related to the same problem. Here's the code for the loader, I'm convinced that my problem lies in the way that I'm loading the texture. Thanks in advance to anyone who can fix my problem. bool TGA::LoadUncompressedTGA(char *filename,ifstream &texturestream) { cout << "G position status:" << texturestream.tellg() << endl; texturestream.read((char*)header, sizeof(header)); //read 6 bytes into the file to get the tga header width = (GLuint)header[1] * 256 + (GLuint)header[0]; //read and calculate width and save height = (GLuint)header[3] * 256 + (GLuint)header[2]; //read and calculate height and save bpp = (GLuint)header[4]; //read bpp and save cout << bpp << endl; if((width <= 0) || (height <= 0) || ((bpp != 24) && (bpp !=32))) //check to make sure the height, width, and bpp are valid { return false; } if(bpp == 24) { type = GL_RGB; } else { type = GL_RGBA; } imagesize = ((bpp/8) * width * height); //determine size in bytes of the image cout << imagesize << endl; imagedata = new GLubyte[imagesize]; //allocate memory for our imagedata variable texturestream.read((char*)imagedata,imagesize); //read according the the size of the image and save into imagedata for(GLuint cswap = 0; cswap < (GLuint)imagesize; cswap += (bpp/8)) //loop through and reverse the tga's BGR format to RGB { imagedata[cswap] ^= imagedata[cswap+2] ^= //1st Byte XOR 3rd Byte XOR 1st Byte XOR 3rd Byte imagedata[cswap] ^= imagedata[cswap+2]; } texturestream.close(); //close ifstream because we're done with it cout << "image loaded" << endl; glGenTextures(1, &texID); // Generate OpenGL texture IDs glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texID); glPixelStorei(GL_UNPACK_ALIGNMENT, 1); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri (GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri (GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_NEAREST); glTexParameteri (GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_NEAREST); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, type, width, height, 0, type, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, imagedata); delete imagedata; return true; } //Public loading function for TGA images. Opens TGA file and determines //its type, if any, then loads it and calls the appropriate function. //Returns: TRUE on success, FALSE on failure bool TGA::loadTGA(char *filename) { cout << width << endl; ifstream texturestream; texturestream.open(filename,ios::binary); texturestream.read((char*)header,sizeof(header)); //read 6 bytes into the file, its the header. //if it matches the uncompressed header's first 6 bytes, load it as uncompressed LoadUncompressedTGA(filename,texturestream); return true; }

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  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • php soapclient returns null but getPreviousResults has proper results

    - by Joseph.Chambers
    I've ran into trouble with SOAP, I've never had this issue before and can't find any information on line that helps me solve it. The following code $wsdl = "path/to/my/wsdl"; $client = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('trace' => true)); //$$textinput is passed in and is a very large string with rows in <item></item> tags $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); var_dump($res);//outputs null var_dump($response);//provides the proper response as I would expect. I've tried passing params into the SoapClient constructor to define soap version but that didnt' help. I've also tried it with the trace param set to false and not present which as expected made $response null but $res was still null. I've tried the code on both a linux and windows install running Apache. The function definition in the WSDL is (xxxx is for security reasons) <portType name="xxxxServiceSoap"> <operation name="dataprofilingservice"> <input message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapIn"/> <output message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapOut"/> </operation> </portType> I have it working using the __getLastResponse() but its annoying me it will not work properly. I've put together a small testing script, does anyone see any issues here. //very simplifed dataset that would normally be //read in from a CSV file of about 1mb $soapInput = getSoapInput("asdf,qwer\r\nzzxvc,ewrwe\r\n23424,2113"); $wsdl = "path to wsdl"; try { $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array('trace' => true,'exceptions' => true)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } try { $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); echo htmlentities($client->__getLastRequest()); echo '<hr>'; var_dump($res); echo "<hr>"; echo(htmlentities($response)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } function getSoapInput($input){ $rows = array(); $userInputs = explode("\r\n", $input); $userInputs = array_filter($userInputs); // $inputTemplate = " <contents>%s</contents>"; $rowTemplate = "<Item>%s</Item>"; // $soapString = ""; foreach ($userInputs as $row) { // sanitize $row = htmlspecialchars(addslashes($row)); $xmlStr = sprintf($rowTemplate, $row); $rows[] = $xmlStr; } $textinput = sprintf($inputTemplate, implode(PHP_EOL, $rows)); $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); return $soapInput; }

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  • Solution Output Directory

    - by L.E.O
    The project that I'm currently working on is being developed by multiple teams where each team is responsible for different part of the project. They all have set up their own C# projects and solutions with configuration settings specific to their own needs. However, now we need to create another, global solution, which will combine and build all projects into the same output directory. The problem that I have encountered though, is that I have found only one way to make all projects build into the same output directory - I need to modify configurations for all of them. That is what we would like to avoid. We would prefer that all these projects had no knowledge about this "global" solution. Each team must retain possibility to work just with their own sub-solution. One possible workaround is to create a special configuration for all projects just for this "global" solution, but that could create extra problems since now you have to constantly sync this configuration settings with the regular one, used by that specific team. Last thing we want to do is to spend hours trying to figure out why something doesn't work when building under global solution just because of some check box that developers have checked in their configuration, but forgot to do so in the global configuration. So, to simplify, we need some sort of output directory setting or post build event that would only be present when building from that global, all-inclusive solution. Is there any way to achieve this without changing something in projects configurations? Update 1: Some extra details I guess I need to mention: We need this global solution to be as close as possible to what the end user gets when he installs our application, since we intend to use it for debugging of the entire application when we need to figure out which part of the application isn't working before sending this bug to the team working on that part. This means that when building under global solution the output directory hierarchy should be the same as it would be in Program Files after installation, so that if, for example, we have Program Files/MyApplication/Addins folder which contains all the addins developed by different teams, we need the global solution to copy the binaries from addins projects and place them in the output directory accordingly. The thing is, the team developing an addin doest necessary know that it is an addin and that it should be placed in that folder, so they cannot change their relative output directory to be build/bin/Debug/Addins.

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  • Are comonads a good fit for modeling the Wumpus world?

    - by Tim Stewart
    I'm trying to find some practical applications of a comonad and I thought I'd try to see if I could represent the classical Wumpus world as a comonad. I'd like to use this code to allow the Wumpus to move left and right through the world and clean up dirty tiles and avoid pits. It seems that the only comonad function that's useful is extract (to get the current tile) and that moving around and cleaning tiles would not use be able to make use of extend or duplicate. I'm not sure comonads are a good fit but I've seen a talk (Dominic Orchard: A Notation for Comonads) where comonads were used to model a cursor in a two-dimensional matrix. If a comonad is a good way of representing the Wumpus world, could you please show where my code is wrong? If it's wrong, could you please suggest a simple application of comonads? module Wumpus where -- Incomplete model of a world inhabited by a Wumpus who likes a nice -- tidy world but does not like falling in pits. import Control.Comonad -- The Wumpus world is made up of tiles that can be in one of three -- states. data Tile = Clean | Dirty | Pit deriving (Show, Eq) -- The Wumpus world is a one dimensional array partitioned into three -- values: the tiles to the left of the Wumpus, the tile occupied by -- the Wumpus, and the tiles to the right of the Wumpus. data World a = World [a] a [a] deriving (Show, Eq) -- Applies a function to every tile in the world instance Functor World where fmap f (World as b cs) = World (fmap f as) (f b) (fmap f cs) -- The Wumpus world is a Comonad instance Comonad World where -- get the part of the world the Wumpus currently occupies extract (World _ b _) = b -- not sure what this means in the Wumpus world. This type checks -- but does not make sense to me. extend f w@(World as b cs) = World (map world as) (f w) (map world cs) where world v = f (World [] v []) -- returns a world in which the Wumpus has either 1) moved one tile to -- the left or 2) stayed in the same place if the Wumpus could not move -- to the left. moveLeft :: World a -> World a moveLeft w@(World [] _ _) = w moveLeft (World as b cs) = World (init as) (last as) (b:cs) -- returns a world in which the Wumpus has either 1) moved one tile to -- the right or 2) stayed in the same place if the Wumpus could not move -- to the right. moveRight :: World a -> World a moveRight w@(World _ _ []) = w moveRight (World as b cs) = World (as ++ [b]) (head cs) (tail cs) initWorld = World [Dirty, Clean, Dirty] Dirty [Clean, Dirty, Pit] -- cleans the current tile cleanTile :: Tile -> Tile cleanTile Dirty = Clean cleanTile t = t Thanks!

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  • CodeIgniter Form Validaton + JS. Form re-population.

    - by solefald
    Hello. I have a from with a checkbox, and depending on the checkbox state 2 different divs are shown. var alias = document.getElementById('alias'); var list = document.getElementById('list'); if(document.getElementById('isList').checked) { alias.style.display = 'none'; list.style.display = 'table-row'; } else { alias.style.display = 'table-row'; list.style.display = 'none'; } Here is the HTML/PHP (relevant) part: <tr id="alias" style="display:table-row;"> <td>' . form_label('Destination:', 'destination') . '</td> <td>' . form_textarea('destination') . '</td> </tr> <tr id="list" style="display:none;"> <td>' . form_label('File Path:', 'list_path') . '</td> <td>' . form_input('list_path') . '</td> </tr> alias div is shown by default on page load, list shown then i click on isList checkbox, and alias is shown again when i click on the checkbox again. This part works great and pretty straight froward. Now, I add CodeIgniter Form Validation plugin, set appropriate rules and set-up validation plugin to re-populate the form with. Without checkbox enabled everything works great. On errors form is re-populated. However, when form is submitted with checkbox enabled, I have an issue. CI's Form Validation plugin re-populates the form, and re-enables the checkbox, but the list div that is supposed to be shown when checkbox enabled is not there, and instead the alias div is shown. Is there any way around this issue? Can i have the list div shown on list validation error? Also, i would like to avoid using JavaScript form validation, and stick with my good old PHP. Thank you in advance. -i

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  • Flash Mouse.hide() cmd+tab(alt+tab) bring the mouse back

    - by DickieBoy
    Having a bit of trouble with Mouse.show() and losing focus of the swf This isn't my demo: but its showing the same bug http://www.foundation-flash.com/tutorials/as3customcursors/ What i do to recreate it is: mouse over the swf, hit cmd+tab to highlight another window, result is that the mouse is not brought back and is still invisible, (to get it back go to the window bar at the top of the screen and click something). I have an area in which movement is detected and an image Things I have tried package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.MovieClip; import com.greensock.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.utils.Timer; import flash.events.TimerEvent; import flash.utils.*; import flash.ui.Mouse; public class mousey_movey extends MovieClip { public var middle_of_the_flash; //pixels per second public var speeds = [0,1,3,5,10]; public var speed; public var percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen; public var mouse_over_scrollable_area:Boolean; public var image_move_interval; public function mousey_movey() { middle_of_the_flash = stage.stageWidth/2; hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, mouseEnter); hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, mouseLeave); hot_area_for_movement.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, mouseMove); stage.addEventListener(Event.MOUSE_LEAVE, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(Event.DEACTIVATE,show_mouse); hot_area_for_movement.alpha=0; hot_area_for_movement.x=0; hot_area_for_movement.y=34; } public function show_mouse(e) { trace(e.type) trace('show_mouse') Mouse.show(); } public function onActivate(e) { trace('activate'); Mouse.show(); } public function onDeactivate(e) { trace('deactivate'); } public function get_speed(percantage_from_middle):int { if(percantage_from_middle > 80) { return speeds[4] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 60) { return speeds[3] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 40) { return speeds[2] } else { if(percantage_from_middle > 20) { return speeds[1] } else { return 0; } } } } } public function mouseLeave(e:Event):void{ Mouse.show(); clearInterval(image_move_interval); } public function mouseEnter(e:Event):void{ Mouse.hide(); image_move_interval = setInterval(moveImage,1); } public function mouseMove(e:Event):void { percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen = Math.round(((middle_of_the_flash-stage.mouseX)/middle_of_the_flash)*100); speed = get_speed(Math.abs(percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen)); airplane_icon.x = stage.mouseX; airplane_icon.y = stage.mouseY; } public function stageMouseMove(e:Event):void{ Mouse.show(); } public function moveImage():void { if(percentage_the_mouse_is_across_the_screen > 0) { moving_image.x+=speed; airplane_icon.scaleX = -1; } else { moving_image.x-=speed; airplane_icon.scaleX = 1; } } } } Nothing too fancy, im just scrolling an image left of right at a speed which is generated by how far you are from the middle of the stage, and making an airplane moveclip follow the mouse. The events: stage.addEventListener(Event.MOUSE_LEAVE, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, show_mouse); stage.addEventListener(Event.DEACTIVATE,show_mouse); All fire and work correctly when in the browser, seem a little buggy when running a test through flash, was expecting this as ive experienced it before. The deactivate call even runs when testing and cmd+tabbing but shows no mouse. Any help on the matter is appreciated Thanks, Dickie

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