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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • Python logging in Django

    - by Jeff
    I'm developing a Django app, and I'm trying to use Python's logging module for error/trace logging. Ideally I'd like to have different loggers configured for different areas of the site. So far I've got all of this working, but one thing has me scratching my head. I have the root logger going to sys.stderr, and I have configured another logger to write to a file. This is in my settings.py file: sviewlog = logging.getLogger('MyApp.views.scans') view_log_handler = logging.FileHandler('C:\\MyApp\\logs\\scan_log.log') view_log_handler.setLevel(logging.INFO) view_log_handler.setFormatter(logging.Formatter('%(asctime)s %(name)-12s %(levelname)-8s %(message)s')) sviewlog.addHandler(view_log_handler) Seems pretty simple. Here's the problem, though: whatever I write to the sviewlog gets written to the log file twice. The root logger only prints it once. It's like addHandler() is being called twice. And when I put my code through a debugger, this is exactly what I see. The code in settings.py is getting executed twice, so two FileHandlers are created and added to the same logger instance. But why? And how do I get around this? Can anyone tell me what's going on here? I've tried moving the sviewlog logger/handler instantiation code to the file where it's used (since that actually seems like the appropriate place to me), but I have the same problem there. Most of the examples I've seen online use only the root logger, and I'd prefer to have multiple loggers.

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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  • Jquery Dialog - Is there a way to open it without registering it using .dialog?

    - by Raja
    This is my problem. I have a page with multiple tabs. I load those tabs dynamically and one of those tabs is a message container (mail). Every time I click a folder link (Inbox, Sent Mail etc) I reload just that tab alone with appropriate content. I use Jquery dialog to pick contacts and I have to load contacts everytime. Since I reload the whole tab content every time JQuery Dialog registers (or creates) the whole div content. To avoid this I did this: if ($("#ui-dialog-title-divContacts").length == 0) { //if dialog data is not created then make dialog $("#divContacts").dialog({ bgiframe: true, resizable: false, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 425, modal: true, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { Cancel: function () { //basically do nothing $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'Done': function () { $("#divTo").empty().html($("#divSelectedContacts").html()); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); } I went to generated viewsource in FF and found that only one instance is being created. My problem now is it is not showing the dialog. Is there a way by which I can open this dialog without registering it. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • jqtouch - panels appear on page, class="back" not working in Safari

    - by user564816
    I'm trying to get a demo working that was used in J. Stark's webinar on Safari Books Online (still available for viewing). I think I've followed the code example correctly, but the class="back" objects used to return from the "blog", "contacts", "settings" and "about" panels do not work, though the correct address shows in the nav area at the base of the browser window when I hover the mouse over the respective link. The panels-- which should slide in and out when called by their respective class"arrow" elements-- appear on the main page, nor do they animate correctly. Browser is Safari 5.0.3(6533.19.4); jquery-1.3.2; jqtouch freshly downloaded from the jqt website. Obviously I'm missing something simple. I'd sincerely appreciate anyone's help who sees what I'm doing wrong. Thanks for considering my question. View the app and source code (use view source in your browser) here. Sat 8 January 2011: 1 48 AM UPDATE in response to JS's comments: Most humble thanks for your note. Didn't want to impose on your server, so the URL for jqtouch.min.css points to a version on my server @ fastermac.net. There's something further amiss, I believe. On load, page still shows the elements that should be invisible until called by clicking class="arrow" elements. Animations not yet wiggling. Did get them to wiggle at one point, but "flip," for instance, landed then on a black page-- not the targeted panel. Probably something obvious, but I'm missing it after some considerable due diligence. Again, thanks for your note. Any further illumination would be sincerely appreciated.

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  • How to Bind a Command in WPF

    - by MegaMind
    Sometimes we used complex ways so many times, we forgot the simplest ways to do the task. I know how to do command binding, but i always use same approach. Create a class that implements ICommand interface and from the view model i create new instance of that class and binding works like a charm. This is the code that i used for command binding public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; testCommand = new MeCommand(processor); } ICommand testCommand; public ICommand test { get { return testCommand; } } public void processor() { MessageBox.Show("hello world"); } } public class MeCommand : ICommand { public delegate void ExecuteMethod(); private ExecuteMethod meth; public MeCommand(ExecuteMethod exec) { meth = exec; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return false; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; public void Execute(object parameter) { meth(); } } But i want to know the basic way to do this, no third party dll no new class creation. Do this simple command binding using a single class. Actual class implements from ICommand interface and do the work.

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  • Cast base class object to derived class

    - by Popgalop
    Lets say I have two classes, animal and dog like this. class Animal { }; class Dog : public Animal { }; And I have an animal object named animal, that is actually an instance of dog, how would I cast it back to dog? This may seem like an odd question, but I need it because I am writing a programming language interpreter, and on the stack everything is stored as a BaseObject, and all the other datatypes extend BaseObject. How would I cast the base object from the stack, to a specific data type? I have tried something like this Dog dog = static_cast<Dog>(animal); But it gives me an error 1>------ Build started: Project: StackTests, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> StackTests.cpp 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'Animal' to 'Dog' 1> No constructor could take the source type, or constructor overload resolution was ambiguous 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2512: 'Dog' : no appropriate default constructor available ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

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  • Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

    - by Nosredna
    What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Returning a reference from a Class member?

    - by nebukadnezzar
    Hi, I've a class that basically looks like this: class App { public function newTemplate($filename, $vars=array()) { $smarty = new Smarty; $smarty->compile_dir = $this->template_compile_path; if(count($vars) > 0) { foreach($vars as $v_key => $v_name) { $smarty->assign($v_key, $v_name); } } return $smarty; } } However, when I create a Instance of 'App', the reference to $smarty seems broken, as every call to the membermethods don't seem to do anything: $app = new App; $tpl = $app->newTemplate("index.tmpl"); $tpl->assign("foo", "bar"); // {$foo} does not appear with "bar" in the template Now I wonder why? Of course I tried to use references: ... public function &newTemplate() ... ... But that doesn't work. Variable references don't seem to work either: ... $tpl = &$app->newTemplate("index.tmpl"); ... What is causing PHP here not to return a proper reference? Help is very appreciated!

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  • Returning JSON from JavaScript to Python

    - by Chris Lacy
    I'm writing a simple App Engine app. I have a simple page that allows a user to move a marker on a Google map instance. Each time the user drops the marker, I want to return the long/lat to my Python app. function initialize() { ... // Init map var marker = new GMarker(center, {draggable: true}); GEvent.addListener(marker, "dragend", function() { // I want to return the marker.x/y to my app when this function is called .. }); } To my (admittedly limited) knowledge, I should be: 1). Returning a JSON structure with my required data in the listener callback above 2). In my webapp.RequestHandler Handler class, trying to retrieve the JSON structure during the post method. I would very much like to pass this JSOn data back to the app without causing a page reload (which is what has happened when I've used various post/form.submit methods so far). Can anyone provide me with some psuedo code or an example on how I might achieve what I'm after? Thanks.

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  • Reordering fields in Django model

    - by Alex Lebedev
    I want to add few fields to every model in my django application. This time it's created_at, updated_at and notes. Duplicating code for every of 20+ models seems dumb. So, I decided to use abstract base class which would add these fields. The problem is that fields inherited from abstract base class come first in the field list in admin. Declaring field order for every ModelAdmin class is not an option, it's even more duplicate code than with manual field declaration. In my final solution, I modified model constructor to reorder fields in _meta before creating new instance: class MyModel(models.Model): # Service fields notes = my_fields.NotesField() created_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) class Meta: abstract = True last_fields = ("notes", "created_at", "updated_at") def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): new_order = [f.name for f in self._meta.fields] for field in self.last_fields: new_order.remove(field) new_order.append(field) self._meta._field_name_cache.sort(key=lambda x: new_order.index(x.name)) super(TwangooModel, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) class ModelA(MyModel): field1 = models.CharField() field2 = models.CharField() #etc ... It works as intended, but I'm wondering, is there a better way to acheive my goal?

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  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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  • Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

    - by Bloudermilk
    Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

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  • Why initialize an object to empty

    - by ProgEnthu
    I am learning windows programming with the help of MSDN.Why would somebody initialize an object like the following? WNDCLASS wc = { }; Will this zero all the memory of the object? Whole source code is following: #ifndef UNICODE #define UNICODE #endif #include <windows.h> LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam); int WINAPI wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE, PWSTR pCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { // Register the window class. const wchar_t CLASS_NAME[] = L"Sample Window Class"; WNDCLASS wc = { }; wc.lpfnWndProc = WindowProc; wc.hInstance = hInstance; wc.lpszClassName = CLASS_NAME; RegisterClass(&wc); // Create the window. HWND hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, // Optional window styles. CLASS_NAME, // Window class L"Learn to Program Windows", // Window text WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW, // Window style // Size and position CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, CW_USEDEFAULT, NULL, // Parent window NULL, // Menu hInstance, // Instance handle NULL // Additional application data ); if (hwnd == NULL) { return 0; } ShowWindow(hwnd, nCmdShow); // Run the message loop. MSG msg = { }; while (GetMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { TranslateMessage(&msg); DispatchMessage(&msg); } return 0; } LRESULT CALLBACK WindowProc(HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch (uMsg) { case WM_DESTROY: PostQuitMessage(0); return 0; case WM_PAINT: { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(hwnd, &ps); FillRect(hdc, &ps.rcPaint, (HBRUSH) (COLOR_WINDOW+1)); EndPaint(hwnd, &ps); } return 0; } return DefWindowProc(hwnd, uMsg, wParam, lParam); }

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  • Forms authentication: how do you store username password in web.config?

    - by Nick G
    I'm used to using Forms Authentication with a database, but I'm writing a little internal utility and the app doesn't have a database so I want to store the username and password in web.config. However for some reason, forms authentication is still trying to access SQL Server and I can't see how to stop it doing this and pick up the credentials from web.config. What am I doing wrong? I just get the error "Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to a failure in impersonating the client. The connection will be closed." Here are the relevant sections of my web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" timeout="60" name=".LoginCookie" path="/" > <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="user1" password="[pass]" /> <user name="user2" password="[pass]" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration>

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  • Looking for resources to explain a security risk.

    - by Dave
    I've a developer which has given users the ability to download a zip archive which contains an html document which references a relative javascript file and flash document. The flash document accepts as one of it's parameters a url which is embedded in the html document. I believe that this archive is meant to be used as a means to transfer an advertisement to someone who would use the source to display the ad on their site, however the end user appears to want to view it locally. When one opens the html document the flash document is presented and when the user clicks on the flash document it redirects to this embedded url. However, if one extracts the archive on the desktop and opens the html document in a browser and clicks the flash object, nothing observable happens, they will not be redirected to the external url. I believe this is a security risk because one is transferring from the local computer zone to an external zone. I'm trying to determine the best way to explain this security risk in the simplest of terms to a very end user. They simply believe it's "broken" when it's not broken, they're being protected from a known vulnerability. The developer attempted to explain how to copy the files to a local iis instance, which I highly doubt is running on the users machine, and I do not consider this to be a viable explanation.

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  • Activator.CreateInstance uses a huge amount of memory

    - by Marco
    I have been playing a bit with Silverlight and try to port my Silverlight 3.0 application to Silverlight 4.0. My application loads different XAP files and upon a user request create an instance of a Xaml user control and adds it to the main container, in a sort of MEF approach in order I can have an extensible and pluggable application. The application is pretty huge and to keep acceptable the performances and the initial loading I have built up some helper classes to load in the background all pages and user controls that might be used later on. On Silverlight 3.0 everything was running smoothly without any problem so far. Switching to SL 4.0 I have noticed that when the process approaches to create the instances of the user controls using Activator.CreateInstance, the layout freezes unexpectedly for a minute and sometimes for more. Looking at the task manager the memory usage of IE jumps from 50MB to 400MB and sometimes to 1.5 GB. If the process won't take that much the layout is rendered properly and the memory falls back to 50 MB. Otherwise everything crashes due to out of memory exeption. Does anybody encountered the same problem? Or has anybody a solution about this tricky issue?

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  • My app crash with MFMailComposeViewController and MFMessageComposeViewController when I re-launch it.

    - by Dolwen
    Hello all, I encounter a crash with MFMailComposeViewController, MFMessageComposeViewController and multitasking on IOS 4.2 (both simulator and IPHone 4). Code i use : Class emailClass = (NSClassFromString(@"MFMailComposeViewController")); if( emailClass != nil ) { MFMailComposeViewController * controller = [[emailClass alloc] init]; if([emailClass canSendMail]) { // delegate controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; // subject [controller setSubject:@"Hello All."]; // main message [controller setMessageBody:@"I love Stackoverflow.com !" isHTML:NO]; // adding image attachment // getting path for the image we have in the tutorial project NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"image" ofType:@"png"]; // loading content of the image into NSData NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:path]; // adding the attachment to he message [controller addAttachmentData:imageData mimeType:@"image/png" fileName:@"My Byook image"]; // setting different than the default transition for the modal view controller [controller setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical]; // show [[CGameStateManager getCurrentGameState] presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } To close MFMailComposeViewController i use : [[CGameStateManager getCurrentGameState] dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; Then the app crash on the "dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:" and we can read in the debugger with NSZombieEnabled : * -[UIImage isKindOfClass:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xb0b9f80 Anyone have an answer to solve my problem ? :) Thx

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  • Ftp throws WebException only in .NET 4.0

    - by Trakhan
    I have following c# code. It runs just fine when compiled against .NET framework 3.5 or 2.0 (I did not test it against 3.0, but it will most likely work too). The problem is, that it fails when built against .NET framework 4.0. FtpWebRequest Ftp = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(Url_ + '/' + e.Name); Ftp.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; Ftp.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(Login_, Password_); Ftp.UseBinary = true; Ftp.KeepAlive = false; Ftp.UsePassive = true; Stream S = Ftp.GetRequestStream(); byte[] Content = null; bool Continue = false; do { try { Continue = false; Content = File.ReadAllBytes(e.FullPath); } catch (Exception) { Continue = true; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); } } while (Continue); S.Write(Content, 0, Content.Length); S.Close(); FtpWebResponse Resp = (FtpWebResponse)Ftp.GetResponse(); if (Resp.StatusCode != FtpStatusCode.CommandOK) Console.WriteLine(Resp.StatusDescription); The problem is in call Stream S = Ftp.GetRequestStream();, which throws an en instance of WebException with message “The remote server returned an error: (500) Syntax error, command unrecognized”. Does anybody know why it is so? PS. I communicate virtual ftp server in ECM Alfresco.

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  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

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  • how to fetch more than 1000 entities NON keybased?

    - by user291071
    If I should be approaching this problem through a different method, please suggest so. I am creating an item based collaborative filter. I populate the db with the LinkRating2 class and for each link there are more than a 1000 users that I need to call and collect their ratings to perform calculations which I then use to create another table. So I need to call more than 1000 entities for a given link. For instance lets say there are over a 1000 users rated 'link1' there will be over a 1000 instances of this class for the given link property that I need to call. How would I complete this example? class LinkRating2(db.Model): user = db.StringProperty() link = db.StringProperty() rating2 = db.FloatProperty() query =LinkRating2.all() link1 = 'link string name' a = query.filter('link = ', link1) aa = a.fetch(1000)##how would i get more than 1000 for a given link1 as shown? ##keybased over 1000 in other post example i need method for a subset though not key class MyModel(db.Expando): @classmethod def count_all(cls): """ Count *all* of the rows (without maxing out at 1000) """ count = 0 query = cls.all().order('__key__') while count % 1000 == 0: current_count = query.count() if current_count == 0: break count += current_count if current_count == 1000: last_key = query.fetch(1, 999)[0].key() query = query.filter('__key__ > ', last_key) return count

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  • Is there a design pattern that expresses objects (an their operations) in various states?

    - by darren
    Hi I have a design question about the evolution of an object (and its state) after some sequence of methods complete. I'm having trouble articulating what I mean so I may need to clean up the question based on feedback. Consider an object called Classifier. It has the following methods: void initialise() void populateTrainingSet(TrainingSet t) void pupulateTestingSet(TestingSet t) void train() void test() Result predict(Instance i) My problem is that these methods need to be called in a certain order. Futher, some methods are invalid until a previous method is called, and some methods are invalid after a method has been called. For example, it would be invalid to call predict() before test() was called, and it would be invalid to call train() after test() was called. My approach so far has been to maintain a private enum that represents the current stateof the object: private static enum STATE{ NEW, TRAINED, TESTED, READY}; But this seems a bit cloogy. Is there a design pattern for such a problem type? Maybe something related to the template method.

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  • VisualSVN How to roll back the revision number ?

    - by Ita
    The company I work in has suffered a major server failure. During this failure the SVN Repository was lost. But there is still hope ! We have an old backup of the repository which I've managed to successfully restore using VisualSVN. The problem I'm facing now is that I can't update / commit pre-failure checkedout folders. The reason for this problem is that for instance: a local folder has a revision number of 2361, while the repository itself holds a revision number of 2290, which is older. Is there a way to deal with this issue ? Can I some how change the revision numbers on either the local copy or the server copy? A few points: I'm using TortoiseSVN 1.6.6. I can checkout folders from the repo and the connection is active. I've picked one of my folders and used the Relocate option on it. This helped me see that there is something wrong with the revision number I've experimented a bit with the merge option but this lead me now where special. (I'm open for suggestions ) Thank you for your time, Ita

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