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• IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

  - by Tokimon

  Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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• String Parameter in url

  - by Ivan90

  Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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• NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

  - by rdelmar

  I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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• Html.ListBox() and MultiselectList

  - by Ivan90

  Hi guys, I've a little problem with an Html.ListBox! I am developing a personal blog in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and I created an adminpanel where I can add and edit a post! During this two operations, I can add also tags! I think of use an Html.ListBox() helper to list all tags, and so I can select multiple tags to add in a post! The problem isn't during the add mode, but in the edit mode, where I have to pre-select post's tags! I read that I have to use a MultiSelectList and so in its constructor pass, tags' list and tag's list(pre-selected value). But I don't know how to use this class! I post, some code: This is my models method that get all list tags in selectlist public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> GetTagsListBox() { return from t in db.Tags orderby t.IDTag descending select new SelectListItem { Text = t.TagName, Value = t.IDTag.ToString(), }; } So in Edit (Get and Post), Add(Get and Post) I use a ViewData to pass this list in Html.ListBox(). ViewData["Tags"] = tagdb.GetTagsListBox(); And in my view <%=Html.ListBox("Tags",ViewData["Tags"] as SelectList) %> So with this code it's ok in Add Mode! But in Edit Mode I need to pre-select those values! So Now, of course I have to create a method that get all tagsbypostid! and then in ViewData what Must I to pass? Any suggest?

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• DRYing out implementation of ICloneable in several classes

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have several different classes that I want to be cloneable: GenericRow, GenericRows, ParticularRow, and ParticularRows. There is the following class hierarchy: GenericRow is the parent of ParticularRow, and GenericRows is the parent of ParticularRows. Each class implements ICloneable because I want to be able to create deep copies of instances of each. I find myself writing the exact same code for Clone() in each class: object ICloneable.Clone() { object clone; using (var stream = new MemoryStream()) { var formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); // Serialize this object formatter.Serialize(stream, this); stream.Position = 0; // Deserialize to another object clone = formatter.Deserialize(stream); } return clone; } I then provide a convenience wrapper method, for example in GenericRows: public GenericRows Clone() { return (GenericRows)((ICloneable)this).Clone(); } I am fine with the convenience wrapper methods looking about the same in each class because it's very little code and it does differ from class to class by return type, cast, etc. However, ICloneable.Clone() is identical in all four classes. Can I abstract this somehow so it is only defined in one place? My concern was that if I made some utility class/object extension method, it would not correctly make a deep copy of the particular instance I want copied. Is this a good idea anyway?

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• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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• Form submit capture into database not working

  - by kielie

  Hi guys, I have a form that has two buttons on it, one yes, one no, and at the moment I capture the clicked button into a database, but for some reason, it doesn't always capture the clicked button, I have gone through all my code and everything seems fine, here is the form <div id="mid_prompt"> <form action="refer.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="yes" /></span> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="no" /></span> </div> </form> </div> I am using sessions to carry the variables all the way to the end of the forms where I then write all the data to a database, I have checked my sessions and they seem to be working fine, the only one that is giving problems is the yes/no. So basically I need it to capture that yes/no everytime. Thanx in advance!

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• php syntax confusion accessing database result

  - by Babak

  I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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• jQuery dynamic css loading weired behavior

  - by jimpsr

  The app I am working on requires dynamic loading of css and js, right now the solution is as follows: myapp.loadCss = function(css){ $("head").append("<link>"); cssDom = $("head").children(":last"); cssDom.attr({rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: css }); } myapp.loadJs = funciton(js){ ... //$.ajax call is used in synchronized mode to make sure the js is fully loaded } } When some widgets need to be load, the usual call with be myapp.loadCss('/widgets/widget1/css/example.css'); myapp.loadJs('/wiggets/widget1/js/example.js'); The weired thing is that once a while (1 out of 10 or 20), the newly created dom elements from example.js will not be able to get its css from example.css, it seems however my loadCss method does not load the css in a synchronized mode? I have tried to replace my loadCss with the the following code: myapp.loadCss(css){ $('<link href="' + css + '" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />').appendTo($('head')); } It seems to be OK then (I refreshed the webpage a hundred times for verification :-( ) But unfortunately this method failed in IE(IE7, not tested in IE6, 8) Is there any better solution for this?

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• GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

  - by Mike Apolis

  Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

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• How to Update with LINQ?

  - by DaveDev

  currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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• How can I intercept an exception occurred during serialization in WCF?

  - by bonomo

  I have a legit data object with all data contract / data member attributes. For some reason the WCF service crashes after the operation has completed and the result is passed as a return value. I believe it has something to do with WCF not being able to serialize that result properly. The test client doesn't say anything specific: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IFacade.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) at FacadeClient.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) Inner Exception: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I am in control of creating the instance of the service using a customized service host factory. I know I can set up trace listeners and check the logs, but it's a lot of hassle to do. So I would rather handle it explicitly on the server at the time it happens. So I how can I intercept that exception programmatically and return an appropriate fault meassage?

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• How to play mpg/3gp 5 sec video at start of application?

  - by Asad Ahmed

  I am developing an application in which i want to play a short 5 seconds video at the startup. which is the best format 3gp, mpg or something else? i have generated a title activity. I wanted to play the video before title. Help please!!! Below is the code of my title activity. public class Title extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.title); setTitle("M.I.S.T"); this.setTitleColor(Color.BLUE); View title = getWindow().findViewById(android.R.id.title); View titleBar = (View) title.getParent(); titleBar.setBackgroundColor(Color.YELLOW); Thread timer = new Thread(){ public void run(){ try{ sleep(3000); }catch (InterruptedException e){ e.printStackTrace(); }finally{ Intent open= new Intent("com.congestion6.asad.MENU"); startActivity(open); } } }; timer.start(); } protected void onPause() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onPause(); finish(); } }

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• LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

  - by Manuel Navarro

  I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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• Error handling in C++, constructors vs. regular methods

  - by Dennis Ritchie

  I have a cheesesales.txt CSV file with all of my recent cheese sales. I want to create a class CheeseSales that can do things like these: CheeseSales sales("cheesesales.txt"); //has no default constructor cout << sales.totalSales() << endl; sales.outputPieChart("piechart.pdf"); The above code assumes that no failures will happen. In reality, failures will take place. In this case, two kinds of failures could occur: Failure in the constructor: The file may not exist, may not have read-permissions, contain invalid/unparsable data, etc. Failure in the regular method: The file may already exist, there may not be write access, too little sales data available to create a pie chart, etc. My question is simply: How would you design this code to handle failures? One idea: Return a bool from the regular method indicating failure. Not sure how to deal with the constructor. How would seasoned C++ coders do these kinds of things?

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• methods of metaclasses on class instances.

  - by Stefano Borini

  I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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• Servlet receiving data both in ISO-8859-1 and UTF-8. How to URL-decode?

  - by AJPerez

  I've a web application (well, in fact is just a servlet) which receives data from 3 different sources: Source A is a HTML document written in UTF-8, and sends the data via <form method="get">. Source B is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <form method="get">, too. Source C is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <a href="http://my-servlet-url?param=value&param2=value2&etc">. The servlet receives the request params and URL-decodes them using UTF-8. As you can expect, A works without problems, while B and C fail (you can't URL-decode in UTF-8 something that's encoded in ISO-8859-1...). I can make slight modifications to B and C, but I am not allowed to change them from ISO-8859-1 to UTF-8, which would solve all the problems. In B, I've been able to solve the problem by adding accept-charset="UTF-8" to the <form>. So the <form> sends the data in UTF-8 even with the page being ISO. What can I do to fix C? Alternatively, is there any way to determine the charset on the servlet, so I can call URL-decode with the right encoding in each case?

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• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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• how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

  - by Sadegh

  Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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• Immutable classes in C++

  - by ereOn

  Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

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• Need help implementing this algorithm with map Hadoop MapReduce

  - by Julia

  Hi all! i have algorithm that will go through a large data set read some text files and search for specific terms in those lines. I have it implemented in Java, but I didnt want to post code so that it doesnt look i am searching for someone to implement it for me, but it is true i really need a lot of help!!! This was not planned for my project, but data set turned out to be huge, so teacher told me I have to do it like this. EDIT(i did not clarified i previos version)The data set I have is on a Hadoop cluster, and I should make its MapReduce implementation I was reading about MapReduce and thaught that i first do the standard implementation and then it will be more/less easier to do it with mapreduce. But didnt happen, since algorithm is quite stupid and nothing special, and map reduce...i cant wrap my mind around it. So here is shortly pseudo code of my algorithm LIST termList (there is method that creates this list from lucene index) FOLDER topFolder INPUT topFolder IF it is folder and not empty list files (there are 30 sub folders inside) FOR EACH sub folder GET file "CheckedFile.txt" analyze(CheckedFile) ENDFOR END IF Method ANALYZE(CheckedFile) read CheckedFile WHILE CheckedFile has next line GET line FOR(loops through termList) GET third word from line IF third word = term from list append whole line to string buffer ENDIF ENDFOR END WHILE OUTPUT string buffer to file Also, as you can see, each time when "analyze" is called, new file has to be created, i understood that map reduce is difficult to write to many outputs??? I understand mapreduce intuition, and my example seems perfectly suited for mapreduce, but when it comes to do this, obviously I do not know enough and i am STUCK! Please please help.

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• Dependency Injection into your Singleton

  - by Langali

  I have a singleton that has a spring injected Dao (simplified below): public class MyService<T> implements Service<T> { private final Map<String, T> objects; private static MyService instance; MyDao myDao; public void set MyDao(MyDao myDao) { this. myDao = myDao; } private MyService() { this.objects = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<String, T>()); // start a background thread that runs for ever } public static synchronized MyService getInstance() { if(instance == null) { instance = new MyService(); } return instance; } public void doSomething() { myDao.persist(objects); } } My spring config will probably look like this: <bean id="service" class="MyService" factory-method="getInstance"/> But this will instantiate the MyService during startup. Is there a programmatic way to do a dependency injection of MyDao into MyService, but not have spring manage the MyService? Basically I want to be able to do this from my code: MyService.getInstance().doSomething(); while having spring inject the MyDao for me.

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• ScriptManager duplicates javascript

  - by Andreas

  Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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• AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

  - by Olly

  We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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