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  • Why Enumerable.Range is faster than a direct yield loop?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Below code is checking performance of three different ways to do same solution. public static void Main(string[] args) { // for loop { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); int accumulator = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= 100000000; ++i) { accumulator += i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, accumulator); } //Enumerable.Range { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = Enumerable.Range(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } //self-made IEnumerable<int> { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = GetIntRange(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } } private static IEnumerable<int> GetIntRange(int start, int count) { int end = start + count; for (int i = start; i < end; ++i) { yield return i; } } } The result is like this: time = 306; result = 987459712 time = 1301; result = 987459712 time = 2860; result = 987459712 It is not surprising that "for loop" is faster than the other two solutions, because Enumerable.Aggregate takes more method invocations. However, it really surprises that "Enumerable.Range" is faster than the "self-made IEnumerable". I thought that Enumerable.Range will take more overhead than the simple GetIntRange method. What is the possible reason for this?

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  • Recursive QuickSort suffering a StackOverflowException -- Need fresh eyes

    - by jon
    I am working on a Recursive QuickSort method implementation in a GenericList Class. I will have a second method that accepts a compareDelegate to compare different types, but for development purposes I'm sorting a GenericList<int I am recieving stackoverflow areas in different places depending on the list size. I've been staring at and tracing through this code for hours and probably just need a fresh pair of (more experienced)eyes. Definitely wanting to learn why it is broken, not just how to fix it. public void QuickSort() { int i, j, lowPos, highPos, pivot; GenericList<T> leftList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> rightList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> tempList = new GenericList<T>(); lowPos = 1; highPos = this.Count; if (lowPos < highPos) { pivot = (lowPos + highPos) / 2; for (i = 1; i <= highPos; i++) { if (this[i].CompareTo(this[pivot]) <= 0) leftList.Add(this[i]); else rightList.Add(this[i]); } leftList.QuickSort(); rightList.QuickSort(); for(i=1;i<=leftList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(leftList[i]); for(i=1;i<=rightList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(rightList[i]); this.items = tempList.items; this.count = tempList.count; } }

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  • How to get around DnsRecordListFree error in .NET Framework 4.0?

    - by Greg Finzer
    I am doing an MxRecordLookup. I am getting an error when calling the DnsRecordListFree in the .NET Framework 4.0. I am using Windows 7. How do I get around it? Here is the error: System.MethodAccessException: Attempt by security transparent method to call native code through method. Here is my code: [DllImport("dnsapi", EntryPoint = "DnsQuery_W", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true, ExactSpelling = true)] private static extern int DnsQuery([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.VBByRefStr)]ref string pszName, QueryTypes wType, QueryOptions options, int aipServers, ref IntPtr ppQueryResults, int pReserved); [DllImport("dnsapi", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern void DnsRecordListFree(IntPtr pRecordList, int FreeType); public List<string> GetMXRecords(string domain) { List<string> records = new List<string>(); IntPtr ptr1 = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr ptr2 = IntPtr.Zero; MXRecord recMx; try { int result = DnsQuery(ref domain, QueryTypes.DNS_TYPE_MX, QueryOptions.DNS_QUERY_BYPASS_CACHE, 0, ref ptr1, 0); if (result != 0) { if (result == 9003) { //No Record Exists } else { //Some other error } } for (ptr2 = ptr1; !ptr2.Equals(IntPtr.Zero); ptr2 = recMx.pNext) { recMx = (MXRecord)Marshal.PtrToStructure(ptr2, typeof(MXRecord)); if (recMx.wType == 15) { records.Add(Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(recMx.pNameExchange)); } } } finally { DnsRecordListFree(ptr1, 0); } return records; }

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

    - by Olly
    We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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  • Security header is not valid - using curl php

    - by toni
    Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

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  • Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

    - by Quhby
    I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

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  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • N-gram split function for string similarity comparison

    - by Michael
    As part of excersise to better understand F# which I am currently learning , I wrote function to split given string into n-grams. 1) I would like to receive feedback about my function : can this be written simpler or in more efficient way? 2) My overall goal is to write function that returns string similarity (on 0.0 .. 1.0 scale) based on n-gram similarity; Does this approach works well for short strings comparisons , or can this method reliably be used to compare large strings (like articles for example). 3) I am aware of the fact that n-gram comparisons ignore context of two strings. What method would you suggest to accomplish my goal? //s:string - target string to split into n-grams //n:int - n-gram size to split string into let ngram_split (s:string, n:int) = let ngram_count = s.Length - (s.Length % n) let ngram_list = List.init ngram_count (fun i -> if( i + n >= s.Length ) then s.Substring(i,s.Length - i) + String.init ((i + n) - s.Length) (fun i -> "#") else s.Substring(i,n) ) let ngram_array_unique = ngram_list |> Seq.ofList |> Seq.distinct |> Array.ofSeq //produce tuples of ngrams (ngram string,how much occurrences in original string) Seq.init ngram_array_unique.Length (fun i -> (ngram_array_unique.[i], ngram_list |> List.filter(fun item -> item = ngram_array_unique.[i]) |> List.length) )

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • Post complex types to WebApi Client

    - by BumbleBee
    I am new to WebAPI. I have a MVC project and webApi project both reside under the **same solution**. Also, BLL Class library and DAL class library reside under the same solution. Earlier, my MVC project will talk to the BLL now I am trying to create a WebAPi project which stands in between MVC and BLL. Here is what I have come up with so far : I'm using the HTTPClient to post to a WebApi project. My post method on my controller accepts a single parameter (a model). StatsCriteria criteria = new StatsCriteria(); ...... var client = new HttpClient(); var response = client.PostAsJsonAsync("http://localhost:52765/api/reports", criteria).Result; ....... Here's the signature for my controller in Webapi [HttpPost] public CMAReportVM Reports([FromBody] StatsCriteria criteria) { var cmaReport = Service3.GetCMAReport(criteria.Mlsnums); //Create Map to enable mapping business object to View Model Mapper.CreateMap<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(); // Maps model to VM model class var cmaVM = Mapper.Map<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(cmaReport); reutn cmaVM; } // and here's my routing: config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } I am getting the following 405 : Method not allowed. As the WebAPI and MVC project both reside under same sloution I am not sure where/how to host my webapi.

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  • Strategies for when to use properties and when to use internal variables on internal classes?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In almost all of my classes, I have a mixture of properties and internal class variables. I have always chosen one or the other by the rule "property if you need it externally, class variable if not". But there are many other issues which make me rethink this often, e.g.: at some point I want to use an internal variable from outside the class, so I have to refactor it into a property which makes me wonder why I don't just make all my internal variables properties in case I have to access them externally anyway, since most classes are internal classes anyway it aren't exposed on an API so it doesn't really matter if the internal variables are accessible from outside the class or not but then since C# doesn't allow you to instantiate e.g. List<string> property in the definition, then these properties have to be initialized in every possible constructor, so these variables I would rather have internal variables just to keep things cleaner in that they are all initialized in one place C# code reads more cleanly if constructor/method parameters are camel case and you assign them to pascal case properties instead of the ambiguity of seeing "templateIdCode" and having to look around to see if it is a local variable, method parameter or internal class variable, e.g. it is easier when you see "TemplateIdCode = templateIdCode" that this is a parameter being assigned to a class property. This would be an argument for always using only properties on internal classes. e.g.: public class TextFile { private string templateIdCode; private string absoluteTemplatePathAndFileName; private string absoluteOutputDirectory; private List<string> listItems = new List<string>(); public string Content { get; set; } public List<string> ReportItems { get; set; } public TextFile(string templateIdCode) { this.templateIdCode = templateIdCode; ReportItems = new List<string>(); Initialize(); } ... When creating internal (non-API) classes, what are your strategies in deciding if you should create an internal class variable or a property?

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  • Using 'or' in Java Generics declaration

    - by Shervin
    I have a method that returns an instance of Map<String, List<Foo>> x(); and another method that returns an instance of Map<String, Collection<Foo>> y(); Now if I want to dynamically add one of this Maps in my field, how can I write the generics for it to work? ie: public class Bar { private Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>> myMap; public void initializer() { if(notImportant) myMap = x(); //OK else myMap = y(); // !OK (Need cast to (Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>>) } Now is it ok that I cast to the signature even though the y() is declared as being Collection? } } If it is not ok to cast, can I somehow write this (Collection OR List) I mean, List is a Collection, so it should somehow be possible. private Map<String, Collection<Foo> | List<Foo>>> myMap;

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • Fast serarch of 2 dimensional array

    - by Tim
    I need a method of quickly searching a large 2 dimensional array. I extract the array from Excel, so 1 dimension represents the rows and the second the columns. I wish to obtain a list of the rows where the columns match certain criteria. I need to know the row number (or index of the array). For example, if I extract a range from excel. I may need to find all rows where column A =”dog” and column B = 7 and column J “a”. I only know which columns and which value to find at run time, so I can’t hard code the column index. I could use a simple loop, but is this efficient ? I need to run it several thousand times, searching for different criteria each time. For r As Integer = 0 To UBound(myArray, 0) - 1 match = True For c = 0 To UBound(myArray, 1) - 1 If not doesValueMeetCriteria(myarray(r,c) then match = False Exit For End If Next If match Then addRowToMatchedRows(r) Next The doesValueMeetCriteria function is a simple function that checks the value of the array element against the query requirement. e.g. Column A = dog etc. Is it more effiecent to create a datatable from the array and use the .select method ? Can I use Linq in some way ? Perhaps some form of dictionary or hashtable ? Or is the simple loop the most effiecent ? Your suggestions are most welcome.

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  • Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

    - by Justin Williams
    I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

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  • Wildcards vs. generic methods

    - by FredOverflow
    Is there any practical difference between the following approaches to print all elements in a range? public static void printA(Iterable<?> range) { for (Object o : range) { System.out.println(o); } } public static <T> void printB(Iterable<T> range) { for (T x : range) { System.out.println(x); } } Apparently, printB involves an additional checked cast to Object (see line 16), which seems rather stupid to me -- isn't everything an Object anyway? public static void printA(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 24 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: astore_1 17: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 20: aload_1 21: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 24: aload_2 25: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 30: ifne 10 33: return public static void printB(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 27 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: checkcast #3; //class java/lang/Object 19: astore_1 20: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 23: aload_1 24: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 27: aload_2 28: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 33: ifne 10 36: return

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • How to render a POST and make it show up on another page

    - by stack5914
    I'm trying to create a marketplace website similar to craigslist. I created a form according to the Django tutorial "Working with forms", but I don't know how to render information I got from the POST forms. I want to make information(subject,price...etc) that I got from POST show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/atq/3375938126.html and, I want the "Subject"(please look at form.py) of this product(eg.1960 French Chair) to show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/ata/ } Can I get some advice to handle submitted information? Here's present codes. I'll appreciate all your answers and helps. <-! Here's my codes -- ?forms.py from django import forms class SellForm(forms.Form): subject = forms.CharField(max_length=100) price = forms.CharField(max_length=100) condition = forms.CharField(max_length=100) email = forms.EmailField() body = forms.TextField() ?views.py from django.shortcuts import render, render_to_response from django.http import HttpResponseRedirect from site1.forms import SellForm def sell(request): if request.method =="POST": form =SellForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): subject = form.cleaned_data['subject'] price = form.cleaned_data['price'] condition = form.cleaned_data['condition'] email = form.cleaned_data['email'] body = form.cleaned_data['body'] return HttpResponseRedirect('/books/') else: form=SellForm() render(request, 'sell.html',{'form':form,}) ?urls.py from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^sechand/$','site1.views.sell'), url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) ?sell.html <form action = "/sell/" method = "post">{% csrf_token%} {{ form.as_p }} <input type = "submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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