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• .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

  - by Ronan Thibaudau

  I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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• Advice on "Invalid Pointer Operation" when using complex records

  - by Xaz

  Env: Delphi 2007 <JustificationI tend to use complex records quite frequently as they offer almost all of the advantages of classes but with much simpler handling.</Justification Anyhoo, one particularly complex record I have just implemented is trashing memory (later leading to an "Invalid Pointer Operation" error). This is an example of the memory trashing code: sSignature := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary].Signature.Formatted(True); On the second time i call it i get "Invalid Pointer Operation" It works OK if i call it like this: AProfile := gProfiles.Profile[_stPrimary]; ASignature := AProfile.Signature; sSignature := ASignature.Formatted(True); Background Code: gProfiles: TProfiles; TProfiles = Record private FPrimaryProfileID: Integer; FCachedProfile: TProfile; ... public < much code removed > property Profile[ProfileType: TProfileType]: TProfile Read GetProfile; end; function TProfiles.GetProfile(ProfileType: TProfileType): TProfile; begin case ProfileType of _stPrimary : Result := ProfileByID(FPrimaryProfileID); ... end; end; function TProfiles.ProfileByID(iID: Integer): TProfile; begin <snip> if LoadProfileOfID(iID, FCachedProfile) then begin Result := FCachedProfile; end else ... end; TProfile = Record private ... public ... Signature: TSignature; ... end; TSignature = Record private public PlainTextFormat : string; HTMLFormat : string; // The text to insert into a message when using this profile function Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; end; function TSignature.Formatted(bHTML: boolean): string; begin if bHTML then result := HTMLFormat else result := PlainTextFormat; < SNIP MUCH CODE > end; OK, so I have a record within a record within a record, which is approaching Inception level confusion and I'm the first to admit is not really a good model. Clearly i am going to have to restructure it. What I would like from you gurus is a better understanding of why it is trashing the memory (something to do with the string object that is created then freed...) so that i can avoid making these kinds of errors in future. Thanks

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• WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

  - by Matt Green

  I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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• emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

  - by Cheeso

  I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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• How to perform gui operation in doInBackground method?

  - by jM2.me

  My application reads a user selected file which contains addresses and then displays on mapview when done geocoding. To avoid hanging app the importing and geocoding is done in AsyncTask. public class LoadOverlayAsync extends AsyncTask<Uri, Integer, StopsOverlay> { Context context; MapView mapView; Drawable drawable; public LoadOverlayAsync(Context con, MapView mv, Drawable dw) { context = con; mapView = mv; drawable = dw; } protected StopsOverlay doInBackground(Uri... uris) { StringBuilder text = new StringBuilder(); StopsOverlay stopsOverlay = new StopsOverlay(drawable, context); Geocoder geo = new Geocoder(context, Locale.US); try { File file = new File(new URI(uris[0].toString())); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(file)); String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { StopOverlay stopOverlay = null; String[] tempLine = line.split("~"); List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(tempLine[4] + " " + tempLine[5] + " " + tempLine[7] + " " + tempLine[8], 10); if (results.size() > 0) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "More than one yo", 1000); progressToast.show(); } else if (results.size() == 1) { Address addr = results.get(0); GeoPoint mPoint = new GeoPoint((int)(addr.getLatitude() * 1E6), (int)(addr.getLongitude() * 1E6)); stopOverlay = new StopOverlay(mPoint, tempLine); } if (stopOverlay != null) { stopsOverlay.addOverlay(stopOverlay); } //List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(locationName, maxResults) } } catch (URISyntaxException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } return stopsOverlay; } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer... progress) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Loaded " + progress.toString(), 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void onPostExecute(StopsOverlay so) { //mapView.getOverlays().add(so); Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Done geocoding", 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void showErrorToast(String msg) { Toast Newtoast = Toast.makeText(context, msg, 10000); Newtoast.show(); } } But if geocode fails, I want a dialog popup to let user edit the address. That would require calling on gui method while in doInBackground. What would be a good workaround this?

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• Dynamically change MYSQL query within a PHP file using jQuery .post?

  - by John

  Hi, Been trying this for quite a while now and I need help. Basically I have a PHP file that queries database and I want to change the query based on a logged in users name. What happens on my site is that a user logs on with Twitter Oauth and I can display their details (twitter username etc.). I have a database which the user has added information to and I what I would like to happen is when the user logs in with Twitter Oauth, I could use jQuery to take the users username and update the mysql query to show only the results where the user_name = that particular users name. At the moment the mysql query is: "SELECT * FROM markers WHERE user_name = 'dave'" I've tried something like: "SELECT * FROM markers WHERE user_name = '$user_name'" And elsewhere in the PHP file I have $user_name = $_POST['user_name'];. In a separate file (the one in which the user is redirected to after they log in through Twitter) I have some jQuery like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $.post('phpsqlinfo_resultb.php',{user_name:"<?PHP echo $profile_name?>"})}); $profile_name has been defined earlier on that page. I know i'm clearly doing something wrong, i'm still learning. Is there a way to achieve what I want using jQuery to post the users username to the PHP file to change the mysql query to display only the results related to the user that is logged in. I've included the PHP file with the query below: <?php // create a new XML document //$doc = domxml_new_doc('1.0'); $doc = new DomDocument('1.0'); //$root = $doc->create_element('markers'); //$root = $doc->append_child($root); $root = $doc->createElement('markers'); $root = $doc->appendChild($root); $table_id = 'marker'; $user_name = $_POST['user_name']; // Make a MySQL Connection include("phpsqlinfo_addrow.php"); $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM markers WHERE user_name = '$user_name'") or die(mysql_error()); // process one row at a time //header("Content-type: text/xml"); header('Content-type: text/xml; charset=utf-8'); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { // add node for each row $occ = $doc->createElement($table_id); $occ = $root->appendChild($occ); $occ->setAttribute('lat', $row['lat']); $occ->setAttribute('lng', $row['lng']); $occ->setAttribute('type', $row['type']); $occ->setAttribute('user_name', utf8_encode($row['user_name'])); $occ->setAttribute('name', utf8_encode($row['name'])); $occ->setAttribute('tweet', utf8_encode($row['tweet'])); $occ->setAttribute('image', utf8_encode($row['image'])); } // while $xml_string = $doc->saveXML(); $user_name2->response; echo $xml_string; ?> This is for use with a google map mashup im trying to do. Many thanks if you can help me. If my question isn't clear enough, please say and i'll try to clarify for you. I'm sure this is a simple fix, i'm just relatively inexperienced to do it. Been at this for two days and i'm running out of time unfortunately.

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• C# Serialization Surrogate - Cannot access a disposed object

  - by crushhawk

  I have an image class (VisionImage) that is a black box to me. I'm attempting to serialize the image object to file using Serialization Surrogates as explained on this page. Below is my surrogate code. sealed class VisionImageSerializationSurrogate : ISerializationSurrogate { public void GetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; byte[,] temp = image.ImageToArray().U8; info.AddValue("width", image.Width); info.AddValue("height", image.Height); info.AddValue("pixelvalues", temp, temp.GetType()); } public Object SetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context, ISurrogateSelector selector) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; Int32 width = info.GetInt32("width"); Int32 height = info.GetInt32("height"); byte[,] temp = new byte[height, width]; temp = (byte[,])info.GetValue("pixelvalues", temp.GetType()); PixelValue2D tempPixels = new PixelValue2D(temp); image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); return image; } } I've stepped through it to write to binary. It seems to be working fine (file is getting bigger as the images are captured). I tried to test it read the file back in. The values read back in are correct as far as the "info" object is concerned. When I get to the line image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); It throws the "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. Upon further inspection, the object and the resulting image are both marked as disposed. My code behind the form spawns an "acquisitionWorker" and runs the following code. void acquisitionWorker_LoadImages(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // This is the main function of the acquisition background worker thread. // Perform image processing here instead of the UI thread to avoid a // sluggish or unresponsive UI. BackgroundWorker worker = (BackgroundWorker)sender; try { uint bufferNumber = 0; // Loop until we tell the thread to cancel or we get an error. When this // function completes the acquisitionWorker_RunWorkerCompleted method will // be called. while (!worker.CancellationPending) { VisionImage savedImage = (VisionImage) formatter.Deserialize(fs); CommonAlgorithms.Copy(savedImage, imageViewer.Image); // Update the UI by calling ReportProgress on the background worker. // This will call the acquisition_ProgressChanged method in the UI // thread, where it is safe to update UI elements. Do not update UI // elements directly in this thread as doing so could result in a // deadlock. worker.ReportProgress(0, bufferNumber); bufferNumber++; } } catch (ImaqException ex) { // If an error occurs and the background worker thread is not being // cancelled, then pass the exception along in the result so that // it can be handled in the acquisition_RunWorkerCompleted method. if (!worker.CancellationPending) e.Result = ex; } } What am I missing here? Why would the object be immediately disposed?

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• Adding Insert Row in tableView

  - by user333624

  Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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• What is the best practice when coding math class/functions ?

  - by Isaac Clarke

  Introductory note : I voluntarily chose a wide subject. You know that quote about learning a cat to fish, that's it. I don't need an answer to my question, I need an explanation and advice. I know you guys are good at this ;) Hi guys, I'm currently implementing some algorithms into an existing program. Long story short, I created a new class, "Adder". An Adder is a member of another class representing the physical object actually doing the calculus , which calls adder.calc() with its parameters (merely a list of objects to do the maths on). To do these maths, I need some parameters, which do not exist outside of the class (but can be set, see below). They're neither config parameters nor members of other classes. These parameters are D1 and D2, distances, and three arrays of fixed size : alpha, beta, delta. I know some of you are more comfortable reading code than reading text so here you go : class Adder { public: Adder(); virtual Adder::~Adder(); void set( float d1, float d2 ); void set( float d1, float d2, int alpha[N_MAX], int beta[N_MAX], int delta[N_MAX] ); // Snipped prototypes float calc( List& ... ); // ... inline float get_d1() { return d1_ ;}; inline float get_d2() { return d2_ ;}; private: float d1_; float d2_; int alpha_[N_MAX]; // A #define N_MAX is done elsewhere int beta_[N_MAX]; int delta_[N_MAX]; }; Since this object is used as a member of another class, it is declared in a *.h : private: Adder adder_; By doing that, I couldn't initialize the arrays (alpha/beta/delta) directly in the constructor ( int T[3] = { 1, 2, 3 }; ), without having to iterate throughout the three arrays. I thought of putting them in static const, but I don't think that's the proper way of solving such problems. My second guess was to use the constructor to initialize the arrays Adder::Adder() { int alpha[N_MAX] = { 0, -60, -120, 180, 120, 60 }; int beta[N_MAX] = { 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0 }; int delta[N_MAX] = { 0, 0, 180, 180, 180, 0 }; set( 2.5, 0, alpha, beta, delta ); } void Adder::set( float d1, float d2 ) { if (d1 > 0) d1_ = d1; if (d2 > 0) d2_ = d2; } void Adder::set( float d1, float d2, int alpha[N_MAX], int beta[N_MAX], int delta[N_MAX] ) { set( d1, d2 ); for (int i = 0; i < N_MAX; ++i) { alpha_[i] = alpha[i]; beta_[i] = beta[i]; delta_[i] = delta[i]; } } My question is : Would it be better to use another function - init() - which would initialize arrays ? Or is there a better way of doing that ? My bonus question is : Did you see some mistakes or bad practice along the way ?

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• Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

  - by PirateKitten

  I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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• WPF: Improving Performance for Running on Older PCs

  - by Phil Sandler

  So, I'm building a WPF app and did a test deployment today, and found that it performed pretty poorly. I was surprised, as we are really not doing much in the way of visual effects or animations. I deployed on two machines: the fastest and the slowest that will need to run the application (the slowest PC has an Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM). The application ran pretty well on the faster machine, but was choppy on the slower machine. And when I say "choppy", I mean the cursor jumped even just passing it over any open window of the app that had focus. I opened the Task Manager Performance window, and could see that the CPU usage jumped whenever the app had focus and the cursor was moving over it. If I gave focus to another (e.g. Excel), the CPU usage went back down after a second. This happened on both machines, but the choppiness was only noticeable on the slower machine. I had very limited time to tinker on the deployment machines, so didn't do a lot of detailed testing. The app runs fine on my development machine, but I also see the CPU spiking up to 10% there, just running the cursor over the window. I downloaded the WPF performance tool from MS and have been tinkering with it (on my dev machine). The docs say this about the "Frame Rate" metric in the Perforator tool: For applications without animation, this value should be near 0. The app is not doing any heavy animation, but the frame rate stays near 50 when the cursor is over any window. The screens I tested on have column headers in a grid that "highlight" and buttons that change color and appearance when scrolled over. Even moving the mouse on blank areas of the windows cause the same Frame rate and CPU usage (doesn't seem to be related to these minor animations). (Also, I am unable to figure out how to get anything but the two default tools--Perforator and Visual Profiler--installed into the WPF performance tool. That is probably a separate question). I also have Redgate's profiling tool, but I'm not sure if that can shed any light on rendering performance. So, I realize this is not an easy thing to troubleshoot without specifics or sample code (which I can't post). My questions are: What are some general things to look for (or avoid) in the code to improve performance? What steps can I take using the WPF performance tool to narrow down the problem? Is the PC spec listed above (Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM) too slow to be running even vanilla WPF applications?

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• PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

  - by Devner

  Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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• VHDL gate basics

  - by balina

  Hello. I'm learning VHDL and I've come to a halt. I'd like to create a simple gate out of smaller gates (a NAND gate here). Here's the code: library IEEE; use IEEE.STD_LOGIC_1164.all; entity ANDGATE2 is port( x,y : in STD_LOGIC; z : out STD_LOGIC ); end ANDGATE2; architecture ANDGATE2 of ANDGATE2 is begin z <= x AND y; end ANDGATE2; library IEEE; use IEEE.STD_LOGIC_1164.all; entity NOTGATE1 is port( x : in STD_LOGIC; z : out STD_LOGIC ); end NOTGATE1; architecture NOTGATE1 of NOTGATE1 is begin z <= NOT x; end NOTGATE1; library ieee; use ieee.std_logic_1164.all; entity NANDGATE2 is port( x : in STD_LOGIC; y : in STD_LOGIC; z : out STD_LOGIC ); end NANDGATE2; architecture NANDGATE2 of NANDGATE2 is signal c, d: std_logic; component NOTGATE1 port( n_in : in STD_LOGIC; n_out : out STD_LOGIC ); end component; component ANDGATE2 port( a_in1, a_in2 : in STD_LOGIC; a_out : out STD_LOGIC ); end component; begin N0: ANDGATE2 port map(x, y, c); N1: NOTGATE1 port map(c, d); z <= d; end NANDGATE2; Here's the code from some tutorial I've been using as a template; it compiles with no problems. library ieee; use ieee.std_logic_1164.all; -- definition of a full adder entity FULLADDER is port ( a, b, c: in std_logic; sum, carry: out std_logic ); end FULLADDER; architecture fulladder_behav of FULLADDER is begin sum <= (a xor b) xor c ; carry <= (a and b) or (c and (a xor b)); end fulladder_behav; -- 4-bit adder library ieee; use ieee.std_logic_1164.all; entity FOURBITADD is port ( a, b: in std_logic_vector(3 downto 0); Cin : in std_logic; sum: out std_logic_vector (3 downto 0); Cout, V: out std_logic ); end FOURBITADD; architecture fouradder_structure of FOURBITADD is signal c: std_logic_vector (4 downto 0); component FULLADDER port ( a, b, c: in std_logic; sum, carry: out std_logic ); end component; begin FA0: FULLADDER port map (a(0), b(0), Cin, sum(0), c(1)); FA1: FULLADDER port map (a(1), b(1), C(1), sum(1), c(2)); FA2: FULLADDER port map (a(2), b(2), C(2), sum(2), c(3)); FA3: FULLADDER port map (a(3), b(3), C(3), sum(3), c(4)); V <= c(3) xor c(4); Cout <= c(4); end fouradder_structure; My code compiles with no errors, but with two warnings: # Warning: ELAB1_0026: p2.vhd : (85, 0): There is no default binding for component "andgate2".(Port "a_in1" is not on the entity). # Warning: ELAB1_0026: p2.vhd : (87, 0): There is no default binding for component "notgate1".(Port "n_in" is not on the entity). What gives?

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• When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

  - by smallufo

  I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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• Java replacement for C macros

  - by thkala

  Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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• Refactor a link and an image

  - by Mihail Stoynov

  I have to write an link with an image inside. Instead of explaining, here's the code I have now: <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image != null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image == null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image != null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="#{userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image == null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> This code looks awful - there are two exact links with two exact images but combined in all possible combinations. Is there a better way? Is there a way to avoid c:if - it created tables? Update: Bozho proposes: You can replace <c:if and <a with <h:outputLink rendered="#{..}". Apart from that I don't see any other optimization. But it doesn't work. This does not render correctly: <a href=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> (the image is outside the anchor) This does render fine: <h:outputLink value=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> , but it always adds href and in two of the cases I don't want href when rendered.

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• Setting background-image with javascript

  - by Mattoe3k

  In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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• Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

  - by Justin L.

  I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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• Error when deploying site of a maven multi module project with FTP

  - by julien

  I have a multi module project. When I launch mvn site:deploy, the deployment of the base module works fine, but it fails to create the directory of the module sites on the FTP server: [INFO] Error uploading site Embedded error: Required directory: '/myremoteftprepository/myproject-mymodule' is missing When I create the missing directory by hand, it works fine, but I would like to avoid that. It is surprising that the deploy command do not create it. Do you how to force this directory creation? Is it a bug in the wagon-ftp plugin? FYI, here is my POM: <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> I have chosen to include the javadoc with: <reporting> <plugins> <!-- include javadoc in the site --> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-javadoc-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <show>public</show> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </reporting> and <distributionManagement> <site> <id>site</id> <name>maven site</name> <url>ftp://ftp.blabla.org/myremoteftprepository</url> </site> </distributionManagement> and my settings.xml is good.

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• Solution Output Directory

  - by L.E.O

  The project that I'm currently working on is being developed by multiple teams where each team is responsible for different part of the project. They all have set up their own C# projects and solutions with configuration settings specific to their own needs. However, now we need to create another, global solution, which will combine and build all projects into the same output directory. The problem that I have encountered though, is that I have found only one way to make all projects build into the same output directory - I need to modify configurations for all of them. That is what we would like to avoid. We would prefer that all these projects had no knowledge about this "global" solution. Each team must retain possibility to work just with their own sub-solution. One possible workaround is to create a special configuration for all projects just for this "global" solution, but that could create extra problems since now you have to constantly sync this configuration settings with the regular one, used by that specific team. Last thing we want to do is to spend hours trying to figure out why something doesn't work when building under global solution just because of some check box that developers have checked in their configuration, but forgot to do so in the global configuration. So, to simplify, we need some sort of output directory setting or post build event that would only be present when building from that global, all-inclusive solution. Is there any way to achieve this without changing something in projects configurations? Update 1: Some extra details I guess I need to mention: We need this global solution to be as close as possible to what the end user gets when he installs our application, since we intend to use it for debugging of the entire application when we need to figure out which part of the application isn't working before sending this bug to the team working on that part. This means that when building under global solution the output directory hierarchy should be the same as it would be in Program Files after installation, so that if, for example, we have Program Files/MyApplication/Addins folder which contains all the addins developed by different teams, we need the global solution to copy the binaries from addins projects and place them in the output directory accordingly. The thing is, the team developing an addin doest necessary know that it is an addin and that it should be placed in that folder, so they cannot change their relative output directory to be build/bin/Debug/Addins.

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• What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

  - by fandingo

  I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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• How can i get the entire HTML of an element using regex?

  - by Lucas

  Hello, i'm learning Regex but can't figure it out.... i want to get the entire HTML from a DIV, how to procced? already tried this; /\< td class=\"desc1\"\>(.+)/i it returns; Array ( [0] => < td class="desc1"> [1] => ) the code that i'm matching is this; <table id="profile" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1"> <thead> <tr> <th colspan="2">Jogador TheInFEcT </th> </tr> <tr> <td>Detalhes</td> <td>Descrição:</td> </tr> </thead><tbody> <tr> <td class="empty"></td><td class="empty"></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="details"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tbody><tr> <th>Classificação</th> <td>11056</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Tribo:</th> <td>Teutões</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Aliança:</th> <td>-</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Aldeias:</th> <td>1</td> </tr> <tr> <th>População:</th> <td>2</td> </tr><tr> <td colspan="2" class="empty"></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <a href="spieler.php?s=1">» Alterar perfil</a></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </td> <td class="desc1"> <div>STATUS: OFNAaaaAA</div> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> i need to get the entire code inside the < td class="desc1", like that; <div >STATUS: OFNAaaaAA< /div> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Could someone help me out? Thanks in advance.

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• Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

  - by mrteacup

  I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

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• how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

  - by Austin

  I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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• CodeIgniter Form Validaton + JS. Form re-population.

  - by solefald

  Hello. I have a from with a checkbox, and depending on the checkbox state 2 different divs are shown. var alias = document.getElementById('alias'); var list = document.getElementById('list'); if(document.getElementById('isList').checked) { alias.style.display = 'none'; list.style.display = 'table-row'; } else { alias.style.display = 'table-row'; list.style.display = 'none'; } Here is the HTML/PHP (relevant) part: <tr id="alias" style="display:table-row;"> <td>' . form_label('Destination:', 'destination') . '</td> <td>' . form_textarea('destination') . '</td> </tr> <tr id="list" style="display:none;"> <td>' . form_label('File Path:', 'list_path') . '</td> <td>' . form_input('list_path') . '</td> </tr> alias div is shown by default on page load, list shown then i click on isList checkbox, and alias is shown again when i click on the checkbox again. This part works great and pretty straight froward. Now, I add CodeIgniter Form Validation plugin, set appropriate rules and set-up validation plugin to re-populate the form with. Without checkbox enabled everything works great. On errors form is re-populated. However, when form is submitted with checkbox enabled, I have an issue. CI's Form Validation plugin re-populates the form, and re-enables the checkbox, but the list div that is supposed to be shown when checkbox enabled is not there, and instead the alias div is shown. Is there any way around this issue? Can i have the list div shown on list validation error? Also, i would like to avoid using JavaScript form validation, and stick with my good old PHP. Thank you in advance. -i

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