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  • Is this a good starting point for iptables in Linux?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I'm new to iptables, and i've been trying to put together a firewall which purpose is to protect a web server. The below rules are the ones i've put together so far, and i would like to hear if the rules makes sense - and wether i've left out anything essential? In addition to port 80, i also need to have port 3306 (mysql) and 22 (ssh) open for external connections. Any feedback is highly appreciated! #!/bin/sh # Clear all existing rules. iptables -F # ACCEPT connections for loopback network connection, 127.0.0.1. iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # ALLOW established traffic iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # DROP packets that are NEW but does not have the SYN but set. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # DROP fragmented packets, as there is no way to tell the source and destination ports of such a packet. iptables -A INPUT -f -j DROP # DROP packets with all tcp flags set (XMAS packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL ALL -j DROP # DROP packets with no tcp flags set (NULL packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL NONE -j DROP # ALLOW ssh traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport ssh -m limit --limit 1/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW http traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport http -m limit --limit 5/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW mysql traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport mysql -m limit --limit 25/s -j ACCEPT # DROP any other traffic. iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

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  • How can I split a LINESTRING into two LINESTRINGs at a given point?

    - by sabbour
    Hello, I'm trying to write a function that will split a LINESTRING into two LINESTRINGs given the split point. What I'm trying to achieve is a function that given a LINESTRING and a distance, it will return N LINESTRINGS for the original linestring splitted at multiples of that distance. This is what I have so far (I'm using SQL Server Spatial Tools from CodePlex): DECLARE @testLine geography; DECLARE @slicePoint geography; SET @testLine = geography::STGeomFromText('LINESTRING (34.5157942 28.5039665, 34.5157079 28.504725, 34.5156881 28.5049565, 34.5156773 28.505082, 34.5155642 28.5054437, 34.5155498 28.5054899, 34.5154937 28.5058826, 34.5154643 28.5060218, 34.5153968 28.5063415, 34.5153322 28.5065338, 34.5152031 28.5069178, 34.5150603 28.5072288, 34.5148716 28.5075501, 34.5146106 28.5079974, 34.5143617 28.5083813, 34.5141373 28.5086414, 34.5139954 28.5088441, 34.5138874 28.5089983, 34.5138311 28.5091054, 34.5136783 28.5093961, 34.5134336 28.5097531, 34.51325 28.5100794, 34.5130256 28.5105078, 34.5128754 28.5107957, 34.5126258 28.5113222, 34.5123984 28.5117673)', 4326) DECLARE @pointOne geography; declare @result table (segment geography) DECLARE @sliceDistance float DECLARE @nextSliceAt float SET @sliceDistance = 100 -- slice every 100 meters SET @nextSliceAt = @sliceDistance SELECT @pointOne = @testLine.STStartPoint() WHILE(@nextSliceAt < @testLine.STLength()) BEGIN SELECT @slicePoint = dbo.LocateAlongGeog(@testLine,@nextSliceAt) DECLARE @subLineString geography; SET @subLineString = geography::STGeomFromText('LINESTRING (' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@pointOne.Long) + ' ' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@pointOne.Lat) + ',' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@slicePoint.Long) + ' ' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@slicePoint.Lat) +')', 4326) insert into @result SELECT @subLineString SET @pointOne = @slicePoint set @nextSliceAt = @nextSliceAt + @sliceDistance END SET @subLineString = geography::STGeomFromText('LINESTRING (' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@pointOne.Long) + ' ' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@pointOne.Lat) + ',' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@testLine.STEndPoint().Long) + ' ' + dbo.FloatToVarchar(@testLine.STEndPoint().Lat) +')', 4326) insert into @result SELECT @subLineString select * from @result I know it is not the best looking code, but there is another problem. The above code approximates the resulting LINESTRING because it does not follow the curvature of the original LINESTRING as it only takes into consideration the start and end points when creating the new segment. Is there a way take a substring out of the original LINESTRING given the start and end points?

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  • What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

    - by Rubens Farias
    It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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  • Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

    - by Royce Thigpen
    Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • How to find all initializations of instance variables in a Java package?

    - by Hank Gay
    I'm in the midst of converting a legacy app to Spring. As part of the transition, we're converting our service classes from an "instantiate new ones whenever you need one" style to a Springleton style, so I need a way to make sure they don't have any state. I'm comfortable on the *nix command-line, and I have access to IntelliJ (this strikes me as a good fit for Structural Search and Replace, if I could figure out how to use it), and I could track down an Eclipse install, if that would help. I just want to make absolutely sure I've found all the possible problems. UPDATE: Sorry for the confusion. I don't have a problem finding places where the old constructor was being called. What I'm looking for is a "bullet-proof" why to search all 100+ service classes for any sort of internal state. The most obvious one I could think of (and the only one I've really found so far) is cases where we use memoization in the classes, so they have instance variables that get initialized internally instead of via Spring. This means that when the same Springleton gets used for different requests, data can leak between them. Thanks.

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  • Anyone NOT using a Web Framework? Why?

    - by tom
    I'm well aware of the many reasons to use a web framework. I'm just wondering whether anyone out there is using absolutely no web framework whatsoever to develop their web projects. I would really love to know the reason(s) why you're not using a web framework. For the sake of this discussion, your programming language of choice does not matter. Some possibilities for discussion: You don't hide behind an ORM. You don't rely on any sort of templating system. You think MVC is a really nice TLA but lacks an essential vowel or two. No need for any additional javascript framework tomfoolery. You just write as much code as possible in your native programming language(s). Summary of reasons thus far: Language learning opportunities. Specific performance reasons (write-intensive transaction processing). Seeking more nuanced control over your data and applications (less abstraction). You're building your own framework! Prove to yourself that you can succeed (or fail) just like the big framework-building gurus. Integration issues with unpopular/legacy technologies (exotic databases or protocols come to mind). Big company, lots of code, no talent nor buy-in present to move to a web framework. Some frameworks really lock you in and cannot perpetually grow along with your needs. These few black sheep don't make it easy to jump outside of the framework, write some custom code, and easily jump back in. When you finally escape the asylum, you'll never look back.

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  • Mysql query in drupal database - groupwise maximum with duplicate data

    - by nselikoff
    I'm working on a mysql query in a Drupal database that pulls together users and two different cck content types. I know people ask for help with groupwise maximum queries all the time... I've done my best but I need help. This is what I have so far: # the artists SELECT users.uid, users.name AS username, n1.title AS artist_name FROM users LEFT JOIN users_roles ur ON users.uid=ur.uid INNER JOIN role r ON ur.rid=r.rid AND r.name='artist' LEFT JOIN node n1 ON n1.uid = users.uid AND n1.type = 'submission' WHERE users.status = 1 ORDER BY users.name; This gives me data that looks like: uid username artist_name 1 foo Joe the Plumber 2 bar Jane Doe 3 baz The Tooth Fairy Also, I've got this query: # artwork SELECT n.nid, n.uid, a.field_order_value FROM node n LEFT JOIN content_type_artwork a ON n.nid = a.nid WHERE n.type = 'artwork' ORDER BY n.uid, a.field_order_value; Which gives me data like this: nid uid field_order_value 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 NULL 5 3 1 6 3 1 Additional relevant info: nid is the primary key for an Artwork every Artist has one or more Artworks valid data for field_order_value is NULL, 1, 2, 3, or 4 field_order_value is not necessarily unique per Artist - an Artist could have 4 Artworks all with field_order_value = 1. What I want is the row with the minimum field_order_value from my second query joined with the artist information from the first query. In cases where the field_order_value is not valuable information (either because the Artist has used duplicate values among their Artworks or left that field NULL), I would like the row with the minimum nid from the second query.

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  • How do I stop Chrome from yellowing my site's input boxes?

    - by davebug
    Among other text and visual aids on a form submission, post-validation, I'm coloring my input boxes red to signify the interactive area needing attention. On Chrome (and for Google Toolbar users) the auto-fill feature re-colors my input forms yellow. Here's the complex issue: I want auto-complete allowed on my forms, as it speeds users logging in. I am going to check into the ability to turn the autocomplete attribute to off if/when there's an error triggered, but it is a complex bit of coding to programmatically turn off the auto-complete for the single effected input on a page. This, to put it simply, would be a major headache. So to try to avoid that issue, is there any simpler method of stopping Chrome from re-coloring the input boxes? [edit] I tried the !important suggestion below and it had no effect. I have not yet checked Google Toolbar to see if the !important attribute woudl work for that. As far as I can tell, there isn't any means other than using the autocomplete attribute (which does appear to work).

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  • MEF Import Composition Issues

    - by Tim
    I've read all the questions I can find regarding the issues of composing imports without exporting the containing class but I can't find a solution to my problem. Does anybody know a way to achieve what I'm trying to do? My module assemblies have forms and classes which they use internally. These forms need access to some of the exported contracts but imports are not loaded as they are not in the MEF 'composition tree' Host assembly: public class Host { public Host() { /* Compose parts here... */ } [Export(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } [Export(typeof(IModule))] public List<IModule> LoadedModules { get; set; } } Module assembly: [Export(typeof(IModule))] public class Module : IModule { public Module() { } public void DoSomething() { SubForm sub = new SubForm(); sub.ShowDialog(); } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This works here } public class SubForm : Form { public SubForm () { } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This doesn't work in here } As far as I can see, my options are: Pass parameters to constructors (pain) Use a dummy export on the classes that need imports satisfying? Any others?

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  • Any utility to test expand C/C++ #define macros?

    - by Randy
    It seems I often spend way too much time trying to get a #define macro to do exactly what i want. I'll post my current delemia below and any help is appreciated. But really the bigger question is whether there is any utility someone could reccomend, to quickly display what a macro is actually doing? It seems like even the slow trial and error process would go much faster if I could see what is wrong. Currently, I'm dynamically loading a long list of functions from a DLL I made. The way I've set things up, the function pointers have the same nanes as the exported functions, and the typedef(s) used to prototyp them have the same names, but with a prepended underscor. So I want to use a define to simplfy assignments of a long long list of function pointers. For example, In the code statement below, 'hexdump' is the name of a typdef'd function point, and is also the name of the function, while _hexdump is the name of the typedef. If GetProcAddress() fails, a failure counter in incremented. if (!(hexdump = (_hexdump)GetProcAddress(h, "hexdump"))) --iFail; So lets say I'd like to rplace each line like the above with a macro, like this... GETADDR_FOR(hexdump ) Well this is the best I've come up with so far. It doesn't work (my // comment is just to prevent text formatting in the message)... // #define GETADDR_FOR(a) if (!(a = (#_#a)GetProcAddress(h, "/""#a"/""))) --iFail; And again, while I'd APPRECIATE an insight into what silly mistake I've made, it would make my day to have a utility that would show me the error of my ways, by simply plugging in my macro

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  • How can I create photo effects in Android?

    - by PaulH
    I'd like to make an Android app that lets a user apply cool effects to photos taken with the camera. There are already a few out there, I know, but I'd like to try my own hand at one. I'm trying to figure out the best way to implement these effects. Here are some examples from the excellent Vignette app (which I own): http://www.flickr.com/groups/vignetteforandroid/pool/ I have been googling and stack-overflowing, but so far I've mostly found some references to published papers or books. I am ordering this one from Amazon presently - Digital Image Processing: An Algorithmic Introduction using Java After some reading, I think I have a basic understanding of manipulating the RGB values for all the pixels in the image. My main question is how do I come up with a transformation that produces cool effects? By cool effects I mean some like those in the Vignette app or IPhone apps: ToyCamera Polarize I already have quite a bit of experience with Java, and I've made my first app for android already. Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

    - by Alex
    So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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  • What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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  • How do you search a document for a string in c++?

    - by Jeff
    Here's my code so far: #include<iostream> #include<string> #include<fstream> using namespace std; int main() { int count = 0; string fileName; string keyWord; string word; cout << "Please make sure the document is in the same file as the program, thank you!" << endl << "Please input document name: " ; getline(cin, fileName); cout << endl; cout << "Please input the word you'd like to search for: " << endl; cin >> keyWord; cout << endl; ifstream infile(fileName.c_str()); while(infile.is_open()) { getline(cin,word); if(word == keyWord) { cout << word << endl; count++; } if(infile.eof()) { infile.close(); } } cout << count; } I'm not sure how to go to the next word, currently this infinite loops...any recommendation? Also...how do I tell it to print out the line that that word was on? Thanks in advance!

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  • ignoring elements order in xml validation against xsd

    - by segolas
    Hi, Ia processing an email and saving some header inside a xml document. I also need to validate the document against a xml schema. As the subject suggest, I need to validate ignoring the elements order but, as far as I read this seems to be impossible. Am I correct? If I put the headers in a<xsd:sequence>, the order obviously matter. If I us the order is ignored but for some strange reason this imply that the elements must occur at least once. My xml is something like this: <headers> <subject>bla bla bla</subject> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> <recipient>rcp02domain.com</recipient> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> </headers> but I think the final document is valid even if subject and recipient elements are swapped. There is really nothing to do?

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  • Creating a method for wrapping a loaded image in a UIImageView

    - by eco_bach
    I have the following un my applicationDidFinishLaunching method UIImage *image2 = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"image2.jpg" ofType:nil]]; view2 = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image2]; view2.hidden = YES; [containerView addSubview:view2]; I'm simply adding an image to a view. But because I need to add 30-40 images I need to wrap the above in a function (which returns a UIImageView) and then call it from a loop. This is my first attempt at creating the function -(UIImageView)wrapImageInView:(NSString *)imagePath { UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:imagePath ofType:nil]]; UIImageView *view = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; view.hidden = YES; } And then to invoke it I have the following so far, for simplicity I am only wrapping 3 images //Create an array and add elements to it NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [anArray addObject:@"image1.jpg"]; [anArray addObject:@"image2.jpg"]; [anArray addObject:@"image3.jpg"]; //Use a for each loop to iterate through the array for (NSString *s in anArray) { UIImageView *wrappedImgInView=[self wrapImage:s]; [containerView addSubview:wrappedImgInView]; NSLog(s); } //Release the array [anArray release]; I have 2 general questions 1-Is my approach correct?, ie following best practices, for what I am trying to do (load a multiple number of images(jpgs, pngs, etc.) and adding them to a container view) 2-For this to work properly with a large number of images, do I need to keep my array creation separate from my method invocation? Any other suggestions welcome!

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  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

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  • Java - Removing duplicates in an ArrayList

    - by Will
    I'm working on a program that uses an ArrayList to store Strings. The program prompts the user with a menu and allows the user to choose an operation to perform. Such operations are adding Strings to the List, printing the entries etc. What I want to be able to do is create a method called removeDuplicates().This method will search the ArrayList and remove any duplicated values. I want to leave one instance of the duplicated value(s) within the list. I also want this method to return the total number of duplicates removed. I've been trying to use nested loops to accomplish this but I've been running into trouble because when entries get deleted, the indexing of the ArrayList gets altered and things don't work as they should. I know conceptually what I need to do but I'm having trouble implementing this idea in code. Here is some pseudo code: start with first entry; check each subsequent entry in the list and see if it matches the first entry; remove each subsequent entry in the list that matches the first entry; after all entries have been examined, move on to the second entry; check each entry in the list and see if it matches the second entry; remove each entry in the list that matches the second entry; repeat for entry in the list Here's the code I have so far: public int removeDuplicates() { int duplicates = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < strings.size(); i++ ) { for ( int j = 0; j < strings.size(); j++ ) { if ( i == j ) { // i & j refer to same entry so do nothing } else if ( strings.get( j ).equals( strings.get( i ) ) ) { strings.remove( j ); duplicates++; } } } return duplicates; }

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  • Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

    - by OverClocked
    The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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  • Looping through covariates in regression using R

    - by Kyle Peyton
    I'm trying to run 96 regressions and save the results as 96 different objects. To complicate things, I want the subscript on one of the covariates in the model to also change 96 times. I've almost solved the problem but I've unfortunately hit a wall. The code so far is, for(i in 1:96){ assign(paste("z.out", i,sep=""), lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_i+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies)) } This works on the object creation side (e.g. I have z.out1 - z.out96) but I can't seem to get the subscript on the covariate to change as well. I have 96 variables called TE_1, TE_2 ... TE_96 in the dataset. As such, the subscript on TE_, the "i" needs to change to correspond to each of the objects I create. That is, z.out1 should hold the results from this model: z.out1 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_1 + Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) And z.out96 should be: z.out96 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_96+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) Hopefully this makes sense. I'm grateful for any tips/advice. cheers, kyle

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  • Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

    - by cc0
    Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

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  • Uploading multiple files asynchronously by blueimp jquery-fileupload

    - by Ryo
    I'm using jQuery File Upload library (http://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload), and I've been stuck figuring out how to use the library satisfying the following conditions. The page has multiple file input fields surrounded by a form tag. Users can attach multiple files to each input field All files are sent to a server when the button is clicked, not when files are attached to the input fields. Upload is done asynchronously Say the page has 3 input fields with their name attributes being "file1[]", "file2[]" and "file3[]", the request payload should be like {file1: [ array of files on file1[] ], file2: [ array of files on file2[] ], ...} Here's jsFiddle, it's behaving weird so far in that it sends post request twice and the first one is cancelled. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/24/ The core part of js code looks like this. $(document).ready(function(){ var filesList = [] var elem = $("form") file_upload = elem.fileupload({ formData:{extra:1}, autoUpload: false, fileInput: $("input:file"), }).on("fileuploadadd", function(e, data){ filesList.push(data.files[0]) }); $("button").click(function(){ file_upload.fileupload('send', {files:filesList} ) }) }) Anybody have idea how to get this to work? Updates Now thanks to @CBroe 's comment, the issue that request is sent twice is fixed. However the keys of request parameter is not correctly set. Here's updated jsFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/27/

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  • List modification in Python

    - by user2945143
    We are given an algorithm to modify a list of numbers from 1 to 28. There are 5 steps in the algorithm. We have written functions for each step (all correct). We need to write a function that combines all 5 steps. The algorithm modifies the list to get a value. Each time you get a new value, you use the list created by the algorithm from the previous step. This is what we have gotten so far for the code: get_card_at_top_index(insert_top_to_bottom(triple_cut((move_joker_2( move_joker_1(deck)))))) When we run the code to generate the get_card_at_top_index, the first answer is correct. However, the rest are not. Instead of using from the new list, python uses the value that it generated from the last step. What did we do wrong? UPDATE: The other 5 codes passed the tests, they are correct. Code 1 (List) = list1 Code 2 (list1) = list2 Code 3 (list2) = list3 Code 4 (list3) = list4 Code 5 (list4) = list5 we generate a number from 5. We need to run the algorithm again to generate 25 more numbers. We will use list 5 start from step 1

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  • Syncing two AS3 NetStreams

    - by Lowgain
    I'm writing an app that requires an audio stream to be recording while a backing track is played. I have this working, but there is an inconsistent gap in between playback and record starting. I don't know if I can do anything to make the sync perfect every time, so I've been trying to track what time each stream starts so I can calculate the delay and trim it server-side. This also has proved to be a challenge as no events seem to be sent when a connection starts (as far as I know). I've tried using various properties like the streams' buffer sizes, etc. I'm thinking now that as my recorded audio is only mono, I may be able to put some kind of 'control signal' on the second stereo track which I could use to determine exactly when a sound starts recording (or stick the whole backing track in that channel so I can sync them that way). This leaves me with the new problem of properly injecting this sound into the NetStream. If anyone has any idea whether or not any of these ideas will work, how to execute them, or some alternatives, that would be extremely helpful! Been working on this issue for awhile

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