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  • Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

    - by suszterpatt
    I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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  • How to develop for iphone application about "retrieving database file on web"?

    - by coverboy
    Hi...all experts! I'm a newbie to iphone developer. Well, currently, I'm developing iphone for Location Based Service. That application need to have these functions. 1. hierarchical tree-view on navigation bar. 2. list up page 3. detail page for example, Let's say. I have top category like "Restaurant, Hotel, Gift Shop" Second level "New York, LA, London,....." Third Level displays all Data with 1 photo. Fourth Level displays Detail of that "Restaurant or Hotel, Gift shop, ..." So, My Only Interest is "How to retrieve the data from remote database server. not using iphone local one." Because, that locations, and shops should be updated frequently, (you know some shops closed, new shops opens.) So, till now, I figured out that using XML to retrieve data. However, using XML is the most effective way to implement? Is there any other way to accomplish this work? You know, transferring XML data via 3G Network is really slow. XML file have more bytes than plist file. I'm currently a beginner of iphone development. So, please help me find a right way!! And, one more question, if I use xml way. Is it possible to Paging? (First page 10 lists up, below that more button...) well, you might guess each category have hundreds of shops!!

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  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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  • Correct Delphi compiler switches to stop in the user's code, not my component's

    - by Jeremy Mullin
    I'm modifying our VCL components so the end user's application links to our dcu files, instead of building our source code each time. We have everything working, but I want the debugger to stop on the user's code when an exception is raised. At first it would stop in our dcu and open the CPU window. I was able to prevent that by removing debug info from the dcu files. But now it still doesn't stop in the users code (like DevExpress libraries and others do). The following screencast is a short example. The first time I cause an exception in the DevExpress code, and the debugger correctly stops in my button event. The second time I cause an exception in my components, but the debugger doesn't have my button event on the call stack, and doesn't show me where the problem was. Any ideas why? http://screencast.com/t/NjhlOTRk Currently building the DCU's with these options: -$W+ -$D- -h -w -q Update: The TDataSet methods in between my component and the button event seem to cause this behavior. If I instead call a direct method of my table, I get the expected behavior. I'm guessing there isn't anything I can do about this, but I'm still curious why it happens.

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  • Calling button in Action Script 3.0

    - by Meko
    I am trying to make button panel. each button have two type btn_home and btn_home_white I am trying to reach those buttons.It is work if I write for each button their own methods like btn_home.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER,overEffect); btn_home_white.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT,outEffect); function overEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween( btn_home,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"alpha",Strong.easeOut,0,1,2,true); } function outEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween btn_home,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"alpha",Strong.easeOut,1,0,2,true); } But I have 10 buttons as btn_buttonname and btn_buttonname_white . I tryed to create Event listener on stage for all.It works for firts type buttons btn_buttonname but How can I get second type buttons? I tryed e.target["_white"] but it does not work . stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER , overEffect); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT , outEffect); function overEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween(e.target,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); trace("height"); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"alpha",Strong.easeOut,0,1,2,true); } function outEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween(e.target,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"alpha",Strong.easeOut,1,0,2,true); }

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  • Cache data in SQL CE database

    - by user93422
    Background I have an SQL CE database, that is constantly updated (every second). I have a (web) application that allows a user to look at the data in real-time. At some point a user can click "take a snapshot" button, and it will open the snapshot in a different window. And then on that form, there is "print" and "download" buttons that will either generate a page for printing, or will stream the data as CSV file - but same data snapshot has to be used, i.e. I can't go to the DB to get latest data for that. Details SQL CE dabatase is exposed through WCF web service. Snapshot consists of up to 500 records, 10 columns each. Expiration time on the snapshot of 2 hours is sufficient. It is a low-traffic application, so I don't expect more than few (5) connections at the same time. Loosing snapshot is not a big deal, user can simply generate new one. database is accessed by self-hosted WCF web service using Linq-to-SQL. Web site is ASP.NET MVC hosted on UltiDev Cassini. database, and web site are most likely be on the same box, when deployed. The entire app is intranet bound. Problem I need to cache the snapshot of the data at the moment user pressed "take a snapshot" button, so that I can use same data to generate print page, or generate a file for download. Solution 1: Each time there is a need to generate a snapshot, I will create a table in the database. Since there are no temp tables in SQL CE, I will need to clean it up myself. Solution 2: Cache the snapshot in-memory on either DB server, or web server. Question: Is there anything wrong with proposed solutions? Any different solution suggestions?

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  • prolog - infinite rule

    - by Tom
    I have the next rules % Signature: natural_number(N)/1 % Purpose: N is a natural number. natural_number(0). natural_number(s(X)) :- natural_number(X) ackermann(0, N, s(N)). //rule 1 ackermann(s(M),0,Result):- ackermann(M,s(0),Result). //rule 2 ackermann(s(M),s(N),Result):-ackermann(M,Result1,Result),ackermann(s(M),N,Result1). //rule 3 The query is: ackermann (M,N,s(s(0))). Now, as I understood, In the third calculation, we got an infinite search (failture branch). I check it, and I got a finite search (failture branch). I'll explain: In the first, we got a substitue of M=0, N=s(0) (rule 1 - succsess!). In the second, we got a substitue of M=s(0),N=0 (rule 2 - sucsses!). But what now? I try to match M=s(s(0)) N=0, But it got a finite search - failture branch. Why the comipler doesn't write me "fail". Thank you.

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  • Exposed onsite vs IFD deployments for MS Dynamics CRM

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I'm working for the first time on a MS Dyanmics CRM 4.0 project. Our company has a high number of remote employees and even more remote consultants. As such it will be necessary to make the CRM solution available over the internet. As near as I can tell, I have three options: Have everyone use a VPN to access an intranet site (typical onsite deployment). However, we have found that VPNs are far from trouble free and cause many support issues. We avoid them like the plague. Use IFD to expose the CRM on the internet. I don't know much about this except that the URL will be different than the onsite URL, which could cause some headaches (see below). Expose the CRM site by opening the site to the internet, using SSL to encrypt traffic. We currently do this with our MS sharepoint sites. I'm not sure how secure this would be (one of the reasons for this question). I'd like to avoid using both the onsite intranet deployment and the IFD together for a couple of reasons. One of the requests for the solution is use email to notify users that they've been assigned a task, and include the URL to the task within the email. For this reason. If both deployments are used, then I'll need to include two URLs and the user would need to know which to use. Which leads to the second reason, the main users of the solution split time between being in the office and being remote. Thus they would need to access the solution two different ways, and know when to use which. Bad. So, what are the advantages/disadvantages of any of these methods? Any other options? Is there any issue using IFD from within the intranet? Security issues? Thanks!

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  • Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

    - by drovani
    We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

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  • Get :first-letter of :hover element with CSS

    - by Rudie
    Is it possible to get the first letter of an element while in 'hover mode'? This is how it would look - I think - but it's not working in Chrome 10: a:hover:first-letter or a:first-letter:hover Technically (imho) they're not the same. The first takes the first letter of the hovering element. The second takes the entire element if the first letter is hovering. I require the first. As you can see on http://css4.hotblocks.nl (if you have a 1900px screen and a dom inspector) if you uncomment the CSS, both don't work. I want only the first letter of the element to color red, when the entire element is in :hover mode. Is it possible without additional HTML tags? Thanks. -- edit I've changed my online example for the better. CSS is now divided in separate <style> blocks. Makes for easier turning on and off try-outs. Conclusion - so far!? - is this: In Firefox 3.6/4 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:hover:first-letter works perfectly (good!). In Chrome 10 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:first-letter:hover breaks the previous CSS 'statement'. (In my example it breaks nothing because it's in a separate <style> block.) Which brings us to: once again Google Chrome lags behind Firefox =( --edit

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  • Concept of WNDCLASSEX, good programming habits and WndProc for system classes

    - by luiscubal
    I understand that the Windows API uses "classes", relying to the WNDCLASS/WNDCLASSEX structures. I have successfully gone through windows API Hello World applications and understand that this class is used by our own windows, but also by Windows core controls, such as "EDIT", "BUTTON", etc. I also understand that it is somehow related to WndProc(it allows me to define a function for it) Although I can find documentation about this class, I can't find anything explaining the concept. So far, the only thing I found about it was this: A Window Class has NOTHING to do with C++ classes. Which really doesn't help(it tells me what it isn't but doesn't tellme what it is). In fact, this only confuses me more, since I'd be tempted to associate WNDCLASSEX to C++ classes and think that "WNDCLASSEX" represents a control type . So, my first question is What is it? In second place, I understand that one can define a WndProc in a class. However, a window can also get messages from the child controls(or windows, or whatever they are called in the Windows API). How can this be? Finally, when is it a good programming practise to define a new class? Per application(for the main frame), per frame, one per control I define(if I create my own progress bar class, for example)? I know Java/Swing, C#/Windows.Form, C/GTK+ and C++/wxWidgets, so I'll probably understand comparisons with these toolkits.

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  • Generic callbacks

    - by bobobobo
    Extends So, I'm trying to learn template metaprogramming better and I figure this is a good exercise for it. I'm trying to write code that can callback a function with any number of arguments I like passed to it. // First function to call int add( int x, int y ) ; // Second function to call double square( double x ) ; // Third func to call void go() ; The callback creation code should look like: // Write a callback object that // will be executed after 42ms for "add" Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; c1.func = add ; c1.args.push_back( 2 ); // these are the 2 args c1.args.push_back( 5 ); // to pass to the "add" function // when it is called Callback<double, double> c2 ; c2.func = square ; c2.args.push_back( 52.2 ) ; What I'm thinking is, using template metaprogramming I want to be able to declare callbacks like, write a struct like this (please keep in mind this is VERY PSEUDOcode) <TEMPLATING ACTION <<ANY NUMBER OF TYPES GO HERE>> > struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute TYPE1 (*func)( TYPE2 a, TYPE3 b ) ; void* argList ; // a stored list of arguments // to plug in when it is time to call __func__ } ; So for when called with Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; You would automatically get constructed for you by < HARDCORE TEMPLATING ACTION > a struct like struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute int (*func)( int a, int b ) ; void* argList ; // this would still be void*, // but I somehow need to remember // the types of the args.. } ; Any pointers in the right direction to get started on writing this?

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  • Alloy MVC Framework Titanium Network (Model)

    - by flyingDuck
    I'm trying to authenticate using the Model in Alloy. I have been trying to figure this problem out since yesterday. If anybody could help me, I'd really appreciate it. So, I have a view login.xml, then a controller login.js. The login.js contains the following function: var user = Alloy.Models.user; //my user.js model function login(e) { if($.username.value !== '' && $.password.value !== ''){ if(user.login($.username.value, $.password.value)){ Alloy.createController('home').getView().open(); $.login.close(); } }else{ alert('Username and/or Password required!'); } } Then in my user.js model, it's like this: extendModel : function(Model) { _.extend(Model.prototype, { login: function(username, password) { var first_name, last_name, email; var _this = this; var url = 'http://myurl.com/test.php'; var auth = Ti.Network.createHTTPClient({ onerror: function(e){ alert(e.error); }, onload: function(){ var json = this.responseText; var response = JSON.parse(json); if(response.logged == true){ first_name = response.f_name; last_name = response.l_name; email = response.email; _this.set({ loggedIn: 1, username: email, realname: first_name + ' ' + last_name, email: email, }); _this.save(); }else{ alert(response.message); } }, }); auth.open('POST', url); var params = { usernames: username, passwords: password, }; auth.send(params); alert(_this.get('email')); //alert email }, }); When I click on login in login.xml it calls the function login in index.js. So, now my problem is that, when I click the button for the first time, I get an empty alert from alert(_this.get('email')), but then when I click the button the second time, everything works fine, it alerts the email. I have no idea what's going on. Thank you for the help.

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • Objective-C subclass and base class casting

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

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  • ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

    - by byte1918
    I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

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  • jQuery AJAX Loading Page Content Only After I Press Shift Key

    - by Cosmin
    My ajax + jquery loading page only after holding shift key and duplicate new empty window. If I press the loading button nothing hapen, only after I press shift key I get to load the page correctly... this is my ajax script: $(document).ready(function () { $(".getUsersA").click(function () { $.ajax({ beforeSend: function () { $(".gridD").html(spinner) }, url: 'lib/some_url.php', type: 'POST', data: ({ data1:'2013-09-01' }), success: function (results) {$(".gridD").html(results);} }); }); }); I have a second js file with just this line of code for spinner var spinner = "<img src='images/spinner.gif' border='0'>"; html code: <html> <head> <title>Title</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.10.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/ajax.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/general.js"></script> </head> <body> <h1>Putting it all tugether ... with jQuery</h1> <div class="thedivD"><a href="" class="buttonA getUsersA">Get Users</a></div> <h3>jQuery results</h3> <div class="gridD"></div> </body> </html>

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  • Java - Thread problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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  • Using django and django-voting app, how can I order a queryset according to the votes of each item?

    - by snz3
    (I'm new to python and django so please bear with me for a second. I apologise if this has been answered elsewhere and couldn't find it) Let's say I have a Link model and through the django-voting application users can vote on link instances. How can I order those link instances according to their score, eg. display those with the higher score first. I assume I could use the get_top manager of django-voting, but that would only give me the top scoring link instances and wouldn't take into consideration other parameters I would like to add (for example, those links that belong to a specific user or paging or whatever). My guess would be to write a custom manager for my Link model where by I can filter a queryset according to each item's score. If I understand correctly that will require me to loop through each item, check its score, and then place it a list (or dictionary) which will then be sorted according to the score of each item. That wouldn't return a queryset but a dictionary with each item. Am I missing something here?

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  • Adapter for circle page indicator in android

    - by Charles LAU
    I am currently working on an android application which have multiple pages. I am trying to use Circle page indicator to allow users view multiple pages by flipping over the screen. Each page has seperate XML file for the view and each page has a button which is bind to a java method in the Activity. I would like to know how to initalise all the buttons in the Activity for multiple pages. Because at the moment, I can only initalise the button for the first page of the views. I cannot initalise the button for second and third page. Does anyone know how to achieve this. I have placed all the jobs to be done for all the buttons in a single activity. I am currently using this indicator : http://viewpagerindicator.com/ Here is my adapter for the circle page indicator: @Override public Object instantiateItem(View collection, int position) { inflater = (LayoutInflater) collection.getContext().getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); int resid = 0; //View v = null;// inflater.inflate( R.layout.gaugescreen, (ViewPager)collection, false ); switch( position ) { case 0: resid = R.layout.gaugescreen; break; case 1: resid= R.layout.liveworkoutstatisticsscreen; break; case 2: resid = R.layout.mapscreen; break; default: resid = R.layout.gaugescreen; break; } View view = inflater.inflate(resid, null); ((ViewPager) collection).addView(view,0); return view; } Does anyone know how to achieve this? Thanks for any help in advance

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  • In App Purchase Unique Identifying Data

    - by dageshi
    O.K so I'm writing a iPhone travel guide, you purchase a subscription to a travel guide for 3 months, it downloads a fairly hefty database and for 3 months that database gets updated weekly with new stuff. Now what I'd like to do is make the user enter their email address as a one off action before they purchase their first guide, for China say. The purpose for doing this is 1) To allow me to contact the user by email when they add a note/tip for a particular place (the app will allow them to send notes & information to me) 2) To Uniquely identify who has purchased the subscription so that if they wipe their device and reinstall the app they can plug the email address in and pickup their subscriptions again. Or so they can use the same subscription on another device they own. My concerns are 1) Will Apple allow the email method of restoring functionality to a second or restored device? 2) As long as I tell the user what I'm using their email address for (aka I won't sell it to anyone else and use it for X purposes) will it be o.k to ask for said email address? And as a side note, can I tack the devices unique id onto my server comms to track devices or is apple going to through a hissy fit about that as well?

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • questions on nfa and dfa..

    - by Loop
    Hi Guys... Hope you help me with this one.... I have a main question which is ''how to judge whether a regular expression will be accepted by NFA and/or DFA? For eg. My question says that which of the regular expressions are equivalent? explain... 1.(a+b)*b(a+b)*b(a+b)* 2.a*ba*ba* 3.a*ba*b(a+b)* do we have to draw the NFA and DFA and then find through minimisation algorithm? if we do then how do we come to know that which regular expression is accepted by NFA/DFA so that we can begin with the answer? its so confusing.... Second is a very similar one, the question asks me to show that the language (a^nb^n|n1} is not accepted by DFA...grrrrr...how do i know this? (BTW this is a set of all strings of where a number of a's is followed by the same number of b's).... I hope I explained clearly well....

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