Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 534/680 | < Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >

• Blackberry Keyboard Lock timeout

  - by Vernon

  I want this blackberry 9700 to "fully lock" as soon as I click the icon for the "Keyboard Lock" application. Currently I have to wait 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark after each time I click the "Keyboard Lock" icon. During that time if something touches the touch pad, then the 5-7 second timer resets and you have to wait another 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark and "fully lock" After it finally goes dark, touching the touch pad does not reset the timer. At that point it is "fully locked" and requires a key to be pressed. How can I get it to "fully lock" as soon as the lock icon is clicked? I want the screen to go dark immediately, and for it to require a key press to request an unlock. I have tried Options - Screen/Keyboard - Backlight Timeout ... etc ... none of that reduces the timeout for the "Keyboard Lock" application. And there does not seem to be an option screen for the "Keyboard Lock" application, that I can find. NOTE: This is occurring with BlackBerry 9700 v5.0.0.330 (Platform 5.1.0.91)

  Read the article

• echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

  - by ekrub

  When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

  Read the article

• Can I specify default value?

  - by atch

  Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

  Read the article

• stackoverflow tags and related tags

  - by parminder

  Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

  Read the article

• ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

  - by byte1918

  I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

  Read the article

• SQL: select rows with the same order as IN clause

  - by Andrea3000

  I know that this question has been asked several times and I've read all the answer but none of them seem to completely solve my problem. I'm switching from a mySQL database to a MS Access database with MS SQL. In both of the case I use a php script to connect to the database and perform SQL queries. I need to find a suitable replacement for a query I used to perform on mySQL. I want to: perform a first query and order records alphabetically based on one of the columns construct a list of IDs which reflects the previous alphabetical order perform a second query with the IN clause applied with the IDs' list and ordered by this list. In mySQL I used to perform the last query this way: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY FIND_IN_SET(id,'$name_ids') Since FIND_IN_SET is available only in mySQL and CHARINDEX and PATINDEX are not available from my php script, how can I achieve this? I know that I could write something like: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY CASE id WHEN ... THEN 1 WHEN ... THEN 2 WHEN ... THEN 3 WHEN ... THEN 4 END but you have to consider that: IDs' list has variable length and elements because it depends on the first query that list can easily contains thousands of elements Have you got any hint on this? Is there a way to programmatically construct the ORDER BY CASE ... WHEN ... statement? Is there a better approach since my list of IDs can be big?

  Read the article

• Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

  - by andrej351

  Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

  Read the article

• Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

  - by Nyxynyx

  I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

  Read the article

• How do i write task? (parallel code)

  - by acidzombie24

  I am impressed with intel thread building blocks. I like how i should write task and not thread code and i like how it works under the hood with my limited understanding (task are in a pool, there wont be 100 threads on 4cores, a task is not guaranteed to run because it isnt on its own thread and may be far into the pool. But it may be run with another related task so you cant do bad things like typical thread unsafe code). I wanted to know more about writing task. I like the 'Task-based Multithreading - How to Program for 100 cores' video here http://www.gdcvault.com/sponsor.php?sponsor_id=1 (currently second last link. WARNING it isnt 'great'). My fav part was 'solving the maze is better done in parallel' which is around the 48min mark (you can click the link on the left side). However i like to see more code examples and some API of how to write task. Does anyone have a good resource? I have no idea how a class or pieces of code may look after pushing it onto a pool or how weird code may look when you need to make a copy of everything and how much of everything is pushed onto a pool.

  Read the article

• In App Purchase Unique Identifying Data

  - by dageshi

  O.K so I'm writing a iPhone travel guide, you purchase a subscription to a travel guide for 3 months, it downloads a fairly hefty database and for 3 months that database gets updated weekly with new stuff. Now what I'd like to do is make the user enter their email address as a one off action before they purchase their first guide, for China say. The purpose for doing this is 1) To allow me to contact the user by email when they add a note/tip for a particular place (the app will allow them to send notes & information to me) 2) To Uniquely identify who has purchased the subscription so that if they wipe their device and reinstall the app they can plug the email address in and pickup their subscriptions again. Or so they can use the same subscription on another device they own. My concerns are 1) Will Apple allow the email method of restoring functionality to a second or restored device? 2) As long as I tell the user what I'm using their email address for (aka I won't sell it to anyone else and use it for X purposes) will it be o.k to ask for said email address? And as a side note, can I tack the devices unique id onto my server comms to track devices or is apple going to through a hissy fit about that as well?

  Read the article

• XmlDocument.Load() throws XmlSchemaValidationException

  - by Praetorian

  Hi, I'm trying to validate an XML document against a schema (which is embedded in my program as a resource). I got everything to work, so I tried to test for errors by adding a second sibling node in the XML at a location where the schema specifies maxOccurs="1". The problem is that my ValidationEventHandler is never getting called, also XmlDocument.Load() is throwing an XmlSchemaValidationException exception when I'd expected XmlDocument.Validate() to do that. This is the code I have: private void ValidateUserData( string xmlPath ) { var resInfo = Application.GetResourceStream( new Uri( @"MySchema.xsd", UriKind.Relative ) ); var schema = XmlSchema.Read( resInfo.Stream, SchemaValidationCallBack ); XmlSchemaSet schemaSet = new XmlSchemaSet(); schemaSet.Add( schema ); schemaSet.ValidationEventHandler += SchemaValidationCallBack; XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); settings.Schemas = schemaSet; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema; XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); using( XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create( xmlPath, settings ) ) { doc.Load( reader ); // <-- This line throws an exception if XML is ill-formed reader.Close(); } doc.Validate( SchemaValidationCallBack );// <-- This is never reached } private void SchemaValidationCallBack( object sender, ValidationEventArgs e ) { Console.WriteLine( "SchemaValidationCallBack: " + e.Message ); } How do I get the callback to be called so I can handle validation errors? Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• Research and replace Word Rtf

  - by Perello

  I'm working on an application which has a workflow for postal mails. These postal mails are generated according to my application business rules. Models are in html or Rtf and it works perfectly as long the user do not create the rtf with word. This is not within the specs, but my hierarchy would welcome a Word compatibility if it don't involve too much work, and it would please and ease the life of our customer. The Rtf models have tags which are replaced by application values. In most RTF, tags are not splitted, so the search and replace works perfectly. I wish to be handle word with few modifications. Example data : [[FooBuzz]] in most rtf it's not splited. In word 2003 : {\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 [[}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid2708730 FooBuzz}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 ]]} And their word (word 2007) splitted also Foo{garbage inside} Buzz. So i wish to be able to handle common RTF perfectly, and detect tags even if they are splitted. I have 2 constraints. First no regression, second it has to stay simple. Performance is not an issue here. I'm using symfony 1.4. The actual relevant research code part : $regExpression = '/\[\[([^\[\]]*)\]\]/'; preg_match_all($regExpression, $sTemplate, $outKeys);

  Read the article

• Single log file for multiple webapps

  - by Ashish Aggarwal

  In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

  Read the article

• Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

  - by drovani

  We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

  Read the article

• Prime Numbers in C?

  - by Ali Azam Rana

  FIRST PROGRAM #include<stdio.h> void main() { int n,c; printf("enter a numb"); scanf("%i",n); for(c=2;c<=n;c++) { if(n%c==0) break; } if(c==n) printf("\nprime\n"); else printf("\nnot prime\n"); getchar(); } SECOND PROGRAM #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Enter a Number\n"); int in,loop,rem,chk; scanf("%d",&in); for (loop = 1; loop <=in; loop++) { rem = in % loop; if(rem == 0) chk = chk +1; } if (chk == 2) printf("\nPRIME NUM ENTERED\n"); else printf("\nNUM ENTERED NOT PRIME\n"); getchar(); } the 2nd program works other was the one my friend wrote the program looks fine but on checking it by stepping into we found that the if condition in first program is coming true under every input so whats the logical error here please help me found out......

  Read the article

• Help with why my app crashed?

  - by Moshe

  I'm writing an iPad app that is a "kiosk" app. The iPad should be hanging on the wall and the app should just run. I did a test, starting the app last night (Friday, December 31) and letting it run. This morning, when I woke up, it was not running. I just checked the iPad's console and I can't figure out why it crashed. The iPad was plugged in and so the battery is not the issued. I did disable the idleTimer in my application delegate. The app was seen running as late as midnight last night. I would like to note that my app acts as a Bluetooth server through Game Kit and large portion of the console output is occupied by bluetooth status messages. When I opened the iPad, the app was paused and there was a system alert which prompted me to check an "Expiring Provisioning Profile". I tapped "dismiss" and the alert went away. The app crashed about a second after I dismissed the system alert. Any ideas how I can diagnose this problem? Why would my app crash? Here is my iPad's Console log, as copied from Xcode's organizer. Edit: A bit of Googling lead me to this site which says that alert views cause the app to lose focus. Could that be involved? What can I do to fix the problem? EDIT2: My Crash log describes the situation as: Application Specific Information: appname failed to resume in time Elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 10.010 (user 8.070, system 1.940), 100% CPU Elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 9.470, 95% CPU

  Read the article

• NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

  - by Sean

  I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

  Read the article

• Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

  - by lynxforest

  I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

  - by John Bartholomew

  While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

  Read the article

• Java - Thread problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

  Read the article

• User defined literal arguments are not constexpr?

  - by Pubby

  I'm testing out user defined literals. I want to make _fac return the factorial of the number. Having it call a constexpr function works, however it doesn't let me do it with templates as the compiler complains that the arguments are not and cannot be constexpr. I'm confused by this - aren't literals constant expressions? The 5 in 5_fac is always a literal that can be evaluated during compile time, so why can't I use it as such? First method: constexpr int factorial_function(int x) { return (x > 0) ? x * factorial_function(x - 1) : 1; } constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_function(x); // this works } Second method: template <int N> struct factorial { static const unsigned int value = N * factorial<N - 1>::value; }; template <> struct factorial<0> { static const unsigned int value = 1; }; constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_template<x>::value; // doesn't work - x is not a constexpr }

  Read the article

• Rate Limit Calls To Api Using Cache

  - by namtax

  Hi I am using coldfusion to call the last.fm api, using a cfc bundle sourced from here I am concerned about going over the request limit, which is 5 requests per originating IP address per second, averaged over a 5 minute period. The cfc bundle has a central component which calls all the other components, which are split up into sections like "artist", "track" etc...This central component "lastFmApi.cfc." is initiated in my application, and persisted for the lifespan of the application // Application.cfc example <cffunction name="onApplicationStart"> <cfset var apiKey = '[your api key here]' /> <cfset var apiSecret = '[your api secret here]' /> <cfset application.lastFm = CreateObject('component', 'org.FrankFusion.lastFm.lastFmApi').init(apiKey, apiSecret) /> </cffunction> Now if I want to call the api through a handler/controller, for example my artist handler...I can do this <cffunction name="artistPage" cache="5 mins"> <cfset qAlbums = application.lastFm.user.getArtist(url.artistName) /> </cffunction> I am a bit confused towards caching, but am caching each call to the api in this handler for 5 mins, but does this make any difference, because each time someone hits a new artist page wont this still count as a fresh hit against the api? Wondering how best to tackle this Thanks

  Read the article

• Inject runtime exception to pthread sometime fails. How to fix that?

  - by lionbest

  I try to inject the exception to thread using signals, but some times the exception is not get caught. For example the following code: void _sigthrow(int sig) { throw runtime_error(strsignal(sig)); } struct sigaction sigthrow = {{&_sigthrow}}; void* thread1(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1) usleep(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread1 catched " << e.what() << endl; } }; void* thread2(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread2 catched " << e.what() << endl; //never goes here } }; If I try to execute like: int main() { pthread_t p1,p2; pthread_create( &p1, NULL, &thread1, NULL ); pthread_create( &p2, NULL, &thread2, NULL ); sleep(1); pthread_kill( p1, SIGINT); pthread_kill( p2, SIGINT); sleep(1); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } I get the following output: Thread1 catched Interrupt terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): Interrupt Aborted How can I make second threat catch exception? Is there better idea about injecting exceptions?

  Read the article

• Core-Plot crash only in Release Configuration

  - by denbec

  Hey everyone, I really don't know a solution or even an idea to get around the following failure. It only happens in Release Configuration on the Device - Simulator and Debug Configuration work fine. It also only appears on the second launch. So if I have the phone connected to my mac, build the application and run it, everything works fine. If I then close the app and restart, it crashes. After long search, it seems that the error comes from the following line: x.majorIntervalLength = CPDecimalFromFloat(2.0f); The code before: CPLayerHostingView *chartView = [[CPLayerHostingView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 160)]; [self addSubview:chartView]; // create an CPXYGraph and host it inside the view CPTheme *theme = [CPTheme themeNamed:kCPPlainWhiteTheme]; CPXYGraph *graph = (CPXYGraph *)[theme newGraph]; chartView.hostedLayer = graph; graph.paddingLeft = 20.0; graph.paddingTop = 10.0; graph.paddingRight = 10.0; graph.paddingBottom = 20.0; CPXYPlotSpace *plotSpace = (CPXYPlotSpace *)graph.defaultPlotSpace; plotSpace.xRange = [CPPlotRange plotRangeWithLocation:CPDecimalFromFloat(0) length:CPDecimalFromFloat(100)]; plotSpace.yRange = [CPPlotRange plotRangeWithLocation:CPDecimalFromFloat(0) length:CPDecimalFromFloat(10)]; CPXYAxisSet *axisSet = (CPXYAxisSet *)graph.axisSet; CPXYAxis *x = axisSet.xAxis; x.majorIntervalLength = CPDecimalFromFloat(2.0f); If I comment the last line, everything works fine (off course the interval length is not correct). I would appreciate any help! Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Add items from one array to another

  - by Peterim

  I have two arrays: 1) The first array: array( [0] => array( [code] => code_1 [value] => xxx [1] => array( [code] => code_2 [value] => xxx [2] => array( [code] => code_3 [value] => xxx 2) The second array: array( [0] => array( [settingcode] => code_1 [value] => xxx [1] => array( [settingcode] => code_2 [value] => xxx [2] => array( [settingcode] => code_3 [value] => xxx [3] => array( [settingcode] => code_4 [value] => xxx [4] => array( [settingcode] => code_5 [value] => xxx How can add two missing items (code_4 and code_5) from array2 to array1? Thank you!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >