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  • nServiceBus - No all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • Window message procedures in Linux vs Windows

    - by mizipzor
    In Windows when you create a window, you must define a (c++) LRESULT CALLBACK message_proc(HWND Handle, UINT Message, WPARAM WParam, LPARAM LParam); to handle all the messages sent from the OS to the window, like keypresses and such. Im looking to do some reading on how the same system works in Linux. Maybe it is because I fall a bit short on the terminology but I fail to find anything on this through google (although Im sure there must be plenty!). Is it still just one single C function that handles all the communication? Does the function definition differ on different WMs (Gnome, KDE) or is it handled on a lower level in the OS? Edit: Ive looked into tools like QT and WxWidgets, but those frameworks seems to be geared more towards developing GUI extensive applications. Im rather looking for a way to create a basic window (restrict resize, borders/decorations) for my OGL graphics and retrieve input on more than one platform. And according to my initial research, this kind of function is the only way to retrieve that input. What would be the best route? Reading up, learning and then use QT or WxWidgets? Or learning how the systems work and implement those few basic features I want myself?

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • Java operator overloading

    - by nimcap
    Not using operators makes my code obscure. (aNumber / aNother) * count is better than aNumber.divideBy(aNother).times(count) After 6 months of not writing a single comment I had to write a comment to the simple operation above. Usually I refactor until I don't need comment. And this made me realize that it is easier to read and perceive math symbols and numbers than their written forms. For example TWENTY_THOUSAND_THIRTEEN.plus(FORTY_TWO.times(TWO_HUNDERED_SIXTY_ONE)) is more obscure than 20013 + 42*261 So do you know a way to get rid of obscurity while not using operator overloading in Java? Update: I did not think my exaggeration on comments would cause such trouble to me. I am admitting that I needed to write comment a couple of times in 6 months. But not more than 10 lines in total. Sorry for that. Update 2: Another example: budget.plus(bonusCoefficient.times(points)) is more obscure than budget + bonusCoefficient * points I have to stop and think on the first one, at first sight it looks like clutter of words, on the other hand, I get the meaning at first look for the second one, it is very clear and neat. I know this cannot be achieved in Java but I wanted to hear some ideas about my alternatives.

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  • Creating LINQ to SQL Data Models' Data Contexts with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC, mostly by reading ScottGu's tutorial. To create my database connections, I followed the steps he outlined, which were to create a LINQ-to-SQL dbml model, add in the database tables through the Server Explorer, and finally to create a DataContext class. That last part is the part I'm stuck on. In this class, I'm trying to create methods that work around the exposed data. Following the example in the tutorial, I created this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MySite.Models { public partial class MyDataContext { public List<Post> GetPosts() { return Posts.ToList(); } public Post GetPostById(int id) { return Posts.Single(p => p.ID == id); } } } As you can see, I'm trying to use my Post data table. However, it doesn't recognize the "Posts" part of my code. What am I doing wrong? I have a feeling that my problem is related to my not adding the data tables correctly, but I'm not sure. Thanks in advance.

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  • Email Tracking - GMail

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am creating my own email tracking system for email marketing tracking. I have been able to determine each persons email client they are using by using the http referrer but for some reason GMAIL does not send a HTTP_REFERRER at all! So I am trying to find another way of identifying when gmail requests a transparent image from my server. I get the following headers print_r($_SERVER);: DOCUMENT_ROOT = /usr/local/apache/htdocs GATEWAY_INTERFACE = CGI/1.1 HTTP_ACCEPT = */* HTTP_ACCEPT_CHARSET = ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING = gzip,deflate,sdch HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE = en-GB,en-US;q=0.8,en;q=0.6 HTTP_CONNECTION = keep-alive HTTP_COOKIE = __utmz=156230011.1290976484.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); __utma=156230011.422791272.1290976484.1293034866.1293050468.7 HTTP_HOST = xx.xxx.xx.xxx HTTP_USER_AGENT = Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/534.10 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/8.0.552.237 Safari/534.10 PATH = /bin:/usr/bin QUERY_STRING = i=MTA= REDIRECT_STATUS = 200 REMOTE_ADDR = xx.xxx.xx.xxx REMOTE_PORT = 61296 REQUEST_METHOD = GET Is there anything of use in that list? Or is there something else I can do to actually get the http referrer, if not how are other ESPs managing to find whether gmail was used to view an email? Btw, I appreciate it if we can hold back on whether this is ethical or not as many ESPs do this already, I just don't want to pay for their service and I want to do it internally. Thanks all for any implementation advice. Update Just thought I would update this question and make it clearer in light of the bounty. I would like to find out when a user opens my email when sent to a GMail inbox. Assume, I have the usual transparent image tracking and the user does not block images. I would like to do this with the single request and the header details I get when the transparent image is requested.

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  • JQuery UI Tabs: Apply opacity toggle to only specific inner element?

    - by Kerri
    I am using Jquery UI tabs, and have it set to toggle the opacity with each slide change. I'm wondering if there's a way to apply the opacity toggle to only a single element within each tab, instead of the entire tab. My understanding of jQuery is pretty basic, so bear with me. So, If I have something like this: <div id="tabs"> <ul id="tabs-nav><li></li></ul> <div id="tab-1"> <img /> <p /> </div> <div id="tab-2"> <img /> <p /> </div> ...etc </div> How could I set it so that only the <img> has an effect applied, and the rest just switches normally? Here are the basics of the call I have for UI tabs: var $tabs = $('#slides').tabs({fx: { opacity: 'toggle' } }); $(".ui-tabs-panel").each(function(i){ //stuff to create previous/next links }); $('.next-tab, .prev-tab').click(function() { $tabs.tabs('select', $(this).attr("rel")); return false; });

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  • Finding a picture in a picture with java?

    - by tarrasch
    what i want to to is analyse input from screen in form of pictures. I want to be able to identify a part of an image in a bigger image and get its coordinates within the bigger picture. Example: would have to be located in And the result would be the upper right corner of the picture in the big picture and the lower left of the part in the big picture. As you can see, the white part of the picture is irrelevant, what i basically need is just the green frame. Is there a library that can do something like this for me? Runtime is not really an issue. What i want to do with this is just generating a few random pixel coordinates and recognize the color in the big picture at that position, to recognize the green box fast later. And how would it decrease performance, if the white box in the middle is transparent? The question has been asked several times on SO as it seems without a single answer. I found i found a solution at http://werner.yellowcouch.org/Papers/subimg/index.html . Unfortunately its in C++ and i do not understand a thing. Would be nice to have a Java implementation on SO.

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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  • Javascript : Submitting a form outside the actual form doesn't work

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm trying to achieve a fairly easy triggering mechanism for deleting multiple items from a tablegrid. If a user has enough access he/she is able to delete multiple users from a table. In the table I have set up checkboxes, one per row/user. The name of the checkboxes is UsersToDeletep[], and the value per row is the unique UserID. When a user clicks the button 'Delete selected users' a simple validation takes place to make sure at least one checkbox is selected. After that I call my simple function Submit(form). The function works perfectly when called within the form-tags, where I also use it to delete a single user. The function: function Submit(form) { document.forms[form].submit(); } I've also alerted document.forms[form]. The result is, as expected [object HTMLFormElement]. But for some reason the form just won't submit and a pagereload takes place. I'm a bit confused and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance! Ben

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  • Simple code to expire Drupal cookie?

    - by user310594
    With a single click this simple script will do a multi-logout of: Moodle Elgg 2 MyBB's and (not) Drupal. <?php setcookie( 'Elgg', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', '.domain.com', false, false); // setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', 'domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/bb/', '.domain.com', false, false); // unset all 3 Moodle cookies, the lazy way if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE'])) { $cookies = explode(';', $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']); foreach($cookies as $cookie) { $parts = explode('=', $cookie); $name = trim($parts[0]); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000, '/'); } } ?> This works on four sites but the Drupal cookie won't quit. How can I do the same with Drupal? Note: Drupal uses 'host' instead of 'domain', neither with or without the '.' works so far. Thank you.

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  • Why does adding Crossover to my Genetic Algorithm gives me worse results?

    - by MahlerFive
    I have implemented a Genetic Algorithm to solve the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP). When I use only mutation, I find better solutions than when I add in crossover. I know that normal crossover methods do not work for TSP, so I implemented both the Ordered Crossover and the PMX Crossover methods, and both suffer from bad results. Here are the other parameters I'm using: Mutation: Single Swap Mutation or Inverted Subsequence Mutation (as described by Tiendil here) with mutation rates tested between 1% and 25%. Selection: Roulette Wheel Selection Fitness function: 1 / distance of tour Population size: Tested 100, 200, 500, I also run the GA 5 times so that I have a variety of starting populations. Stop Condition: 2500 generations With the same dataset of 26 points, I usually get results of about 500-600 distance using purely mutation with high mutation rates. When adding crossover my results are usually in the 800 distance range. The other confusing thing is that I have also implemented a very simple Hill-Climbing algorithm to solve the problem and when I run that 1000 times (faster than running the GA 5 times) I get results around 410-450 distance, and I would expect to get better results using a GA. Any ideas as to why my GA performing worse when I add crossover? And why is it performing much worse than a simple Hill-Climb algorithm which should get stuck on local maxima as it has no way of exploring once it finds a local max?

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  • conditional update records mysql query

    - by Shakti Singh
    Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • To what degree should I use Marshal.ReleaseComObject with Excel Interop objects?

    - by DanM
    I've seen several examples where Marshal.ReleaseComObject() is used with Excel Interop objects (i.e., objects from namespace Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel), but I've seen it used to various degrees. I'm wondering if I can get away with something like this: var application = new ApplicationClass(); try { // do work with application, workbooks, worksheets, cells, etc. } finally { Marashal.ReleaseComObject(application) } Or if I need to release every single object created, as in this method: public void CreateExcelWorkbookWithSingleSheet() { var application = new ApplicationClass(); var workbook = application.Workbooks.Add(_missing); var worksheets = workbook.Worksheets; for (var worksheetIndex = 1; worksheetIndex < worksheets.Count; worksheetIndex++) { var worksheet = (WorksheetClass)worksheets[worksheetIndex]; worksheet.Delete(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheet); } workbook.SaveAs( WorkbookPath, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, XlSaveAsAccessMode.xlExclusive, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing); workbook.Close(true, _missing, _missing); application.Quit(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheets); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(workbook); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(application); } What prompted me to ask this question is that, being the LINQ devotee I am, I really want to do something like this: var worksheetNames = worksheets.Cast<Worksheet>().Select(ws => ws.Name); ...but I'm concerned I'll end up with memory leaks or ghost processes if I don't release each worksheet (ws) object. Any insight on this would be appreciated.

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  • NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

    - by icerelic
    Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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