Search Results

Search found 18096 results on 724 pages for 'let'.

Page 566/724 | < Previous Page | 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573  | Next Page >

  • Idiomatic way to build a custom structure from XML zipper in Clojure

    - by Checkers
    Say, I'm parsing an RSS feed and want to extract a subset of information from it. (def feed (-> "http://..." clojure.zip/xml-zip clojure.xml/parse)) I can get links and titles separately: (xml-> feed :channel :item :link text) (xml-> feed :channel :item :title text) However I can't figure out the way to extract them at the same time without traversing the zipper more than once, e.g. (let [feed (-> "http://..." clojure.zip/xml-zip clojure.xml/parse)] (zipmap (xml-> feed :channel :item :link text) (xml-> feed :channel :item :title text))) ...or a variation of thereof, involving mapping multiple sequences to a function that incrementally builds a map with, say, assoc. Not only I have to traverse the sequence multiple times, the sequences also have separate states, so elements must be "aligned", so to speak. That is, in a more complex case than RSS, a sub-element may be missing in particular element, making one of sequences shorter by one (there are no gaps). So the result may actually be incorrect. Is there a better way or is it, in fact, the way you do it in Clojure?

    Read the article

  • Custom view transition in OpenGL ES

    - by melfar
    I'm trying to create a custom transition, to serve as a replacement for a default transition you would get here, for example: [self.navigationController pushViewController:someController animated:YES]; I have prepared an OpenGL-based view that performs an effect on some static texture mapped to a plane (let's say it's a copy of the flip effect in Core Animation). What I don't know how to do is: grab current view content and make a texture out of it (I remember seeing a function that does just that, but can't find it) how to do the same for the view that is currently offscreen and is going to replace current view are there some APIs I can hook to in order to make my transition class as native as possible (make it a kind of Core Animation effect)? Any thoughts or links are greatly appreciated! UPDATE Jeffrey Forbes's answer works great as a solution to capture the content of a view. What I haven't figured out yet is how to capture the content of the view I want to transition to, which should be invisible until the transition is done. Also, which method should I use to present the OpenGL view? For demonstration purposes I used pushViewController. That affects the navbar, though, which I actually want to go one item back, with animation, check this vid for explanation: http://vimeo.com/4649397. Another option would be to go with presentViewController, but that shows fullscreen. Do you think maybe creating another window (or view?) could be useful?

    Read the article

  • PHP import functions

    - by ninuhadida
    Hi, I'm trying to find the best pragmatic approach to import functions on the fly... let me explain. Say I have a directory called functions which has these files: array_select.func.php stat_mediam.func.php stat_mean.func.php ..... I would like to: load each individual file (which has a function defined inside) and use it just like an internal php function.. such as array_pop(), array_shift(), etc. Once I stumbled on a tutorial (which I can't find again now) that compiled user defined functions as part of a PHP installation.. Although that's not a very good solution because on shared/reseller hosting you can't recompile the PHP installation. I don't want to have conflicts with future versions of PHP / other extensions, i.e. if a function named X by me, is suddenly part of the internal php functions (even though it might not have the same functionality per se) I don't want PHP to throw a fatal error because of this and fail miserably. So the best method that I can think of is to check if a function is defined, using function_exists(), if so throw a notice so that it's easy to track in the log files, otherwise define the function. However that will probably translate to having a lot of include/require statement in other files where I need such a function, which I don't really like. Or possibly, read the directory and loop over each *.func.php file and include_once. Though I find this a bit ugly. The question is, have you ever stumbled upon some source code which handled such a case? How was it implemented? Did you ever do something similar? I need as much ideas as possible! :)

    Read the article

  • SAML Identity Provider based on Active Directory

    - by Jarret
    I have a 3rd party program that supports web SSO using SAML 1.1 (it is ready to serve as the Service Provider, in other words). We would like to implement this SSO for our intranet users based on their Active Directory credentials. In other words, they've already logged on to their system, so let's simply use those credentials to facilitate an SSO. I am a little overwhelmed at where to begin, though. My initial thought is that IIS / Active Directory could easily serve as the Identity Provider since IIS gives us "Integrated Windows Authentication" abilities. I would think we could just create a .NET web app that requires Integrated Authentication which simply extracts the current user ID, builds the SAML response, and re-directs the user back to the Service Provider with this SAML response to complete the SSO. But then, my problem is that I simply have no real idea of how to go about creating this SAML response, the X.509 certs involved, etc... I am wondering if I am in over my head on this, or if creating this SAML response should be relatively easy. Note this SSO is to be used by intranet users only, so no need to worry about federating with other companies / domains.

    Read the article

  • Why qry.post executed with asynchronous mode?

    - by Ryan
    Recently I met a strange problem, see code snips as below: var sqlCommand: string; connection: TADOConnection; qry: TADOQuery; begin connection := TADOConnection.Create(nil); try connection.ConnectionString := 'Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Test.MDB;Persist Security Info=False'; connection.Open(); qry := TADOQuery.Create(nil); try qry.Connection := connection; qry.SQL.Text := 'Select * from aaa'; qry.Open; qry.Append; qry.FieldByName('TestField1').AsString := 'test'; qry.Post; beep; finally qry.Free; end; finally connection.Free; end; end; First, Create a new access database named test.mdb and put it under the directory of this test project, we can create a new table named aaa in it which has only one text type field named TestField1. We set a breakpoint at line of "beep", then lunch the test application under ide debug mode, when ide stops at the breakpoint line (qry.post has been executed), at this time we use microsoft access to open test.mdb and open table aaa you will find there are no any changes in table aaa, if you let the ide continue running after pressing f9 you can find a new record is inserted in to table aaa, but if you press ctrl+f2 to terminate the application at the breakpoint, you will find the table aaa has no record been inserted, but in normal circumstance, a new record should be inserted in to the table aaa after qry.post executed. who can explain this problem , it troubles me so long time. thanks !!! BTW, the ide is delphi 2010, and the access mdb file is created by microsoft access 2007 under windows 7

    Read the article

  • not able to register sip user on red5server, using red5phone

    - by sunil221
    I start the red5, and then i start red5phone i try to register sip user , details i provide are username = 999999 password = **** ip = asteriskserverip and i got --- Registering contact -- sip:[email protected]:5072 the right contact could be --- sip :99999@asteriskserverip this is the log: SipUserAgent - listen -> Init... Red5SIP register [SIPUser] register RegisterAgent: Registering contact <sip:[email protected]:5072> (it expires in 3600 secs) RegisterAgent: Registration failure: No response from server. [SIPUser] SIP Registration failure Timeout RegisterAgent: Failed Registration stop try. Red5SIP Client leaving app 1 Red5SIP Client closing client 35C1B495-E084-1651-0C40-559437CAC7E1 Release ports: sip port 5072 audio port 3002 Release port number:5072 Release port number:3002 [SIPUser] close1 [SIPUser] hangup [SIPUser] closeStreams RTMPUser stopStream [SIPUser] unregister RegisterAgent: Unregistering contact <sip:[email protected]:5072> SipUserAgent - hangup -> Init... SipUserAgent - closeMediaApplication -> Init... [SIPUser] provider.halt RegisterAgent: Registration failure: No response from server. [SIPUser] SIP Registration failure Timeout please let me know if i am doing anything wrong. regards Sunil

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

    - by Thomas
    This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC unit testing

    - by Simon Lomax
    Hi, I'm getting started with unit testing and trying to do some TDD. I've read a fair bit about the subject and written a few tests. I just want to know if the following is the right approach. I want to add the usual "contact us" facility on my web site. You know the thing, the user fills out a form with their email address, enters a brief message and hits a button to post the form back. The model binders do their stuff and my action method accepts the posted data as a model. The action method would then parse the model and use smtp to send an email to the web site administrator infoming him/her that somebody filled out the contact form on their site. Now for the question .... In order to test this, would I be right in creating an interface IDeliver that has a method Send(emailAddress, message) to accept the email address and message body. Implement the inteface in a concrete class and let that class deal with smtp stuff and actually send the mail. If I add the inteface as a parameter to my controller constructor I can then use DI and IoC to inject the concrete class into the controller. But when unit testing I can create a fake or mock version of my IDeliver and do assertions on that. The reason I ask is that I've seen other examples of people generating interfaces for SmtpClient and then mocking that. Is there really any need to go that far or am I not understanding this stuff?

    Read the article

  • Ajax long polling (comet) + php on lighttpd v1.4.22 multiple instances problem.

    - by fibonacci
    Hi, I am new to this site, so I really hope I will provide all the necessary information regarding my question. I've been trying to create a "new message arrived notification" using long polling. Currently I am initiating the polling request by window.onLoad event of each page in my site. On the server side I have an infinite loop: while(1){ if(NewMessageArrived($current_user))break; sleep(10); } echo $newMessageCount; On the client side I have the following (simplified) ajax functions: poll_new_messages(){ xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); //... xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=got_new_message_count; //... xmlhttp.send(); } got_new_message_count(){ if (xmlhttp.readyState==4){ updateMessageCount(xmlhttp.responseText); //... poll_new_messages(); } } The problem is that with each page load, the above loop starts again. The result is multiple infinite loops for each user that eventually make my server hang. *The NewMessageArived() function queries MySQL DB for new unread messages. *At the beginning of the php script I run start_session() in order to obtain the $current_user value. I am currently the only user of this site so it is easy for me to debug this behavior by writing time() to a file inside this loop. What I see is that the file is being written more often than once in 10 seconds, but it starts only when I go from page to page. Please let me know if any additional information might help. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Data synchronization using XMPP

    - by Jason
    Hi: I'm looking for some insight/advice on synchronizing data over XMPP. I've never developed anything for XMPP before so excuse me if some of my questions seem ridiculous. Basically, what I have is a decentralized social network. Each person has it's own Web site (or server) with a unique URI (one domain could host many servers). Each of these servers can have many clients. E.g., a desktop application, mobile application, etc. What I would like to accomplish is near real-time synchronization/communication between client and server, e.g., I update something on my desktop application, I see it change on my Web site. My server and client code is Python. So, I would like to make use of SleekXMPP if possible (it's license seems to have changed to MIT). I was thinking, and here is where I need advice, that each server would register an account at a dedicated XMPP server, e.g., [email protected]. and then I could use different resources for clients [email protected]/client1, [email protected]/client2, etc. If anyone can register any username, then maybe I also need some intermediate service (since it's decentralized, i'm not sure how to control registrations). Another option, I guess, is that each server runs it's own xmpp server. Assuming, that was all worked out, if I want to broadcast messages to all my resources (except the sending one), how do I do that? Do I have to subscribe to myself? This also seems like a good candidate for publish-subscribe, let me know if you think that could work and what the design/flow of that process would be. thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Take Current Snapshot of DB and send it to FTP in same PHP Scripts: Advice Needed

    - by Rachel
    Not sure if I can do it this way. I want to get current snapshot of the database and send it via FTP Server, both of this functionality should be implemented in PHP scripts. Here are the steps I am thinking on right now. In my php scripts(basically am extending an PDO into my Dao class and then preparing the query), $qry = SELECT * FROM MyTablename; $stmt = $this->prepare($qry); $stmt = $this->execute(); Now I will store $stmt in csv file using fputcsv or I will execute the sql command from the script itself and than try to store the result in the $file(csv file) note here that I do not have any csv file with me at this point to basically I will have to create one and let's say its $file, so then $file = fputcsv($stmt); or $file = exec("Select * from MyTablename"); Will this put all records in the file ? If yes, then I will use FTP Functionality to transfer file to the FTP Folder. I am not sure if this approach would work and also have concerns regarding the need of preparing the $qry Any suggestions or different approach advised would be highly appreciated. Thanks !!!

    Read the article

  • How to implement custom JSF component for drawing chart?

    - by Roman
    I want to create a component which can be used like: <mc:chart data="#{bean.data}" width="200" height="300" /> where #{bean.data} returns a collection of some objects or chart model object or something else what can be represented as a chart (to put it simple, let's assume it returns a collection of integers). I want this component to generate html like this: <img src="someimg123.png" width="200" height="300"/> The problem is that I have some method which can receive data and return image, like: public RenderedImage getChartImage (Collection<Integer> data) { ... } and I also have a component for drawing dynamic image: <o:dynamicImage width="200" height="300" data="#{bean.readyChartImage}/> This component generates html just as I need but it's parameter is array of bytes or RenderedImage i.e. it needs method in bean like this: public RenderedImage getReadyChartImage () { ... } So, one approach is to use propertyChangedListener on submit to set data (Collection<Integer>) for drawing chart and then use <o:dynamicImage /> component. But I'd like to create my own component which receives data and draws chart. I'm using facelets but it's not so important indeed. Any ideas how to create the desired component? P.S. One solution I was thinking about is not to use <o:dynamicImage/> and use some servlet to stream image. But I don't know how to implement that correctly and how to tie jsf component with servlet and how to save already built chart images (generating new same image for each request can cause performance problems imho) and so on..

    Read the article

  • How can I find out if two arguments are instances of the same, but unknown class?

    - by Ingmar
    Let us say we have a method which accepts two arguments o1 and o2 of type Object and returns a boolean value. I want this method to return true only when the arguments are instances of the same class, e.g.: foo(new Integer(4),new Integer(5)); Should return true, however: foo(new SomeClass(), new SubtypeSomeClass()); should return false and also: foo(new Integer(3),"zoo"); should return false. I believe one way is to compare the fully qualified class names: public boolean foo(Object o1, Object o2){ Class<? extends Object> c1 = o1.getClass(); Class<? extends Object> c2 = o2.getClass(); if(c1.getName().equals(c2.getName()){ return true;} return false; } An alternative conditional statement would be : if (c1.isAssignableFrom(c2) && c2.isAssignableFrom(c1)){ return true; } The latter alternative is rather slow. Are there other alternatives to this problem?

    Read the article

  • django class with an array of "parent" foreignkeys issue

    - by user298032
    Let's say I have a class called Fruit with child classes of the different kinds of Fruit with their own specific attributes, and I want to collect them in a FruitBasket: class Fruit(models.Model):     type = models.CharField(max_length=120,default='banana',choices=FRUIT_TYPES)     ... class Banana(Fruit):     """banana (fruit type)"""     length = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class Orange(Fruit):     """orange (fruit type)"""     diameter = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class FruitBasket(models.Model):     fruits = models.ManyToManyField(Fruit)     ... The problem I seem to be having is when I retrieve and inspect the Fruits in a FruitBasket, I only retrieve the Fruit base class and can't get at the Fruit child class attributes. I think I understand what is happening--when the array is retrieved from the database, the only fields that are retrieved are the Fruit base class fields. But is there some way to get the child class attributes as well without multiple expensive database transactions? (For example, I could get the array, then retrieve the child Fruit classes by the id of each array element). thanks in advance, Chuck

    Read the article

  • problems doing the Django tutorial on Dreamhost using Passengers

    - by Pietro Speroni
    I have looked and I could not find this question before, and it surprises me. I am reasonably proficient in Python, and I used Dreamhost for a number of years. Now I would like to learn Django. They are finally supporting it using Passenger. Which I do not know what is. Following the instructions on Dreamhost I installed Django. Then I started following the tutorial 01. This went well, except that I could not start the server (this in the tutorial) since the code was live on dreamhost. At the time this did not seem to make any difference. Then when I went on the second part of the tutorial I had to access the admin site. And it worked well going to myurl/admin/ , as it should. But here the problems started. According to the tutorial (here) I have to add a file in the poll application and then restart the server. But I never started the server in the first place, my code is running live on the web... but when I add a file the website the admin acts as if it does not see it. Probably dreamhost has started its own server, and I don't know how to restart it. But I assume this is going to be a common problem when you run django on dreamhost. Every time you add a file you will have to tell the server to consider it. So what should I do to let the server know about it? Thanks, Pietro

    Read the article

  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

    Read the article

  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

    Read the article

  • Can a C# method chain be "too long"?

    - by ccornet
    Not in terms of readability, naturally, since you can always arrange the separate methods into separate lines. Rather, is it dangerous, for any reason, to chain an excessively large number of methods together? I use method chaining primarily to save space on declaring individual one-use variables, and traditionally using return methods instead of methods that modify the caller. Except for string methods, those I kinda chain mercilessly. In any case, I worry sometimes about the impact of using exceptionally long method chains all in one line. Let's say I need to update the value of one item based on someone's username. Unfortunately, the shortest method to retrieve the correct user looks something like the following. SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); SPList list2 = web.Lists["Wars"]; SPListItem item2 = list2.GetItemById(3); SPListItem item3 = item2.GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army"); SPUser user2 = item2.GetSPUser("Commander"); SPUser user3 = user2.GetAssociate("Spouse"); string username2 = user3.Name; item1["Contact"] = username2; Everything with a 2 or 3 lasts for only one call, so I might condense it as the following (which also lets me get rid of a would-be-superfluous 1): SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); item["Contact"] = web.Lists["Armies"] .GetItemById(3) .GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army") .GetSPUser("Commander") .GetAssociate("Spouse") .Name; Admittedly, it looks a lot longer when it is all in one line and when you have int.Parse(ddlArmy.SelectedValue.CutBefore(";#", false)) instead of 3. Nevertheless, this is one of the average lengths of these chains, and I can easily foresee some of exceptionally longer counts. Excluding readability, is there anything I should be worried about for these 10+ method chains? Or is there no harm in using really really long method chains?

    Read the article

  • PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Second Thread Holding Up Entire Program in C# Windows Form Application

    - by Brandon
    In my windows form application, I'm trying to test the user's ability to access a remote machine's shared folder. The way I'm doing this (and I'm sure that there are better ways...but I don't know of them) is to check for the existence of a specific directory on the remote machine (I'm doing this because of firewall/other security restrictions that I'm confronted with in my organization). If the user has rights to access the shared folder, then it returns in no time at all, but if they don't, it hangs forever. To solve this, I threw the check into another thread and wait only 1000 milliseconds before determining that the share can't be hit by the user. However, when I do this, it still hangs as if it was never run in the same thread. What is making it hang and how do I fix it? I would think that the fact that it is in a separate thread would allow me to just let the thread finish on it's own in the background. Here is my code: bool canHitInstallPath = false; Thread thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => { canHitInstallPath = Directory.Exists(compInfo.InstallPath); })); thread.Start(); thread.Join(1000); if (canHitInstallPath == false) { throw new Exception("Cannot hit folder: " + compInfo.InstallPath); }

    Read the article

  • Can PHP dissect its own syntax?

    - by Nathan Long
    Can PHP dissect its own syntax? For example, I'd like to write a function that takes in an input like $object->attribute and says to itself: OK, he's giving me $foo->bar, which means he must think that $foo is an object that has a property called bar. Before I try accessing bar and potentially get a 'Trying to get property of non-object' error, let me check whether $foo is even an object. The end goal is to echo a value if it is set, and fail silently if not. I want to avoid repetition like this: <input value="<? if(is_object($foo) && is_set($foo->bar)){ echo $foo->bar; }?> "/> ...and to avoid writing a function that does the above, but has to have the object and attribute passed in separately, like this: <input value="<? echoAttribute($foo,'bar') ?>" /> ...but to instead write something which: preserves the object-attribute syntax is flexible: can also handle array keys or regular variables Like this: <input value="<? echoIfSet($foo->bar); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($baz['buzz']); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($moo); ?> /> But this all depends on PHP being able to tell me "what kind of thing am I asking for when I say $object->attribute or $array[$key]", so that my function can handle each according to its own type. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Protocol specific channel handlers

    - by Mickael Marrache
    I'm writing an application server that will receive SIP and DNS messages from the network. When I receive a message from the network, I understand from the documentation that at first, I get a ChannelBuffer. I would like to determine which kind of message has been received (SIP or DNS) and to decode it. To determine the message type, I can dedicate port to each type of message, but I would be interested to know if there exist another solution for that. My question is more about how to decode the ChannelBuffer. Is there a ChannelHandler provided by Netty to decode SIP or DNS messages? If not, what would be the right place in the type hierarchy to write my custom ChannelHandler? To illustrate my question, let's take as example the HttpRequestDecoder, the hierarchy is: java.lang.Object org.jboss.netty.channel.SimpleChannelUpstreamHandler org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.frame.FrameDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.replay.ReplayingDecoder<HttpMessageDecoder.State> org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpMessageDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpRequestDecoder Also, do I need to use two different ChannelHandler for decoding and encoding, or is there a possibility to use a single ChannelHandler for both? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I write an XSLT that will recursively include other files?

    - by Eric
    Let's say I have a series of xml files in this format: A.xml: <page> <header>Page A</header> <content>blAh blAh blAh</content> </page> B.xml: <page also-include="A.xml"> <header>Page B</header> <content>Blah Blah Blah</content> </page> Using this XSLT: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/page"> <h1> <xsl:value-of select="header" /> </h1> <p> <xsl:value-of select="content" /> </p> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I can turn A.xml into this: <h1> Page A </h1> <p> blAh blAh blAh </p> But how would I make it also turn B.xml into this? <h1> Page B </h1> <p> Blah Blah Blah </p> <p> blAh blAh blAh </p> I know that I need to use document(concat(@also-include,'.xml')) somewhere, but I'm not sure where. Oh, and the catch is, I need this to still work if B were to be included in a third file, C.xml. Any idea as to how to do this?

    Read the article

  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573  | Next Page >