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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • COCOA: Programatically creating new windows and accessing window objects

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I'm having an issue with creating new windows in Cocoa. Hypothetically speaking, lets say I have "WindowA" and has a button called "myButton". When you click on "myButton", it runs this code in the following class file: -(void)openFile2:(id)sender { myNextWindow = [[TestWindowController alloc] initWithWindowNibName:@"MainMenu"]; NSString *testString = @"foo"; [myNextWindow showWindow:self]; [myNextWindow setButtonText:testString]; } The code in a nutshell makes a duplicate "WindowA" and shows it. As you can see, this code also runs a method called 'setButtonText', which is this: - (void)setButtonText:(NSString *)passedText { [myButton setTitle:passedText]; } The problem is that when I call this method locally, in the original window - the button text changes (e.g., [self setButtonText:testString]) it works. However, it does not work in the newly created window (e.g., [myNextWindow setButtonText:testString];) When I debug the newly created window, step by step, the 'myButton' value it gives is 0x0. Do I have to manually assign controllers/delegates to the new window? I think the 'myButton' in the code isn't associated to the 'myButton' in the newly created window. How would I fix this problem?

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  • MemoryStream instance timing help

    - by rod
    Hi All, Is it ok to instance a MemoryStream at the top of my method, do a bunch of stuff to it, and then use it? For instance: public static byte[] TestCode() { MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream(); ... ... whole bunch of stuff in between ... ... //finally using(m) { return m.ToArray(); } } Updated code public static byte[] GetSamplePDF() { using (MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream()) { Document document = new Document(); PdfWriter.GetInstance(document, m); document.Open(); PopulateTheDocument(document); document.Close(); return m.ToArray(); } } private static void PopulateTheDocument(Document document) { Table aTable = new Table(2, 2); aTable.AddCell("0.0"); aTable.AddCell("0.1"); aTable.AddCell("1.0"); aTable.AddCell("1.1"); document.Add(aTable); for (int i = 0; i < 20; i++) { document.Add(new Phrase("Hello World, Hello Sun, Hello Moon, Hello Stars, Hello Sea, Hello Land, Hello People. ")); } } My point was to try to reuse building the byte code. In other words, build up any kind of document and then send it to TestCode() method.

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  • Asynchronous URL connection objective C

    - by tweety
    I created an asynchronous URL connection to call a web service using HTTP POST method. after I am pinging the web i set an NSTimerInterval in the completion handler. my problem is when I'm trying to display the time on the view controller it is not doing promptly. I know block is stored in the heap and gets executed later on anytime and probably that's why i'm not getting prompt answer. I was wondering is there any other way to do this? Thanks in advance. my code: __block NSDate *start= [NSDate date]; __block NSDate *end; __block double miliseconds; __block NSTimeInterval time; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:queue completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error) { if([data length]==0 && error==nil){ end=[NSDate date]; time=[end timeIntervalSinceDate:start]; NSLog(@"Successfully Pinged"); miliseconds = time; // calling a method to display ping time [self label:miliseconds]; } -(void) label:(double) mili{ double miliseconds=mili*1000; self.timeDisplay.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Time: %.3f ms", miliseconds];

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  • Deleting list items via ProcessBatchData()

    - by q-tuyen
    You can build a batch string to delete all of the items from a SharePoint list like this: 1: //create new StringBuilder 2: StringBuilder batchString= new StringBuilder(); 3: 4: //add the main text to the stringbuilder 5: batchString.Append(""); 6: 7: //add each item to the batch string and give it a command Delete 8: foreach (SPListItem item in itemCollection) 9: { 10: //create a new method section 11: batchString.Append(""); 12: //insert the listid to know where to delete from 13: batchString.Append("" + Convert.ToString(item.ParentList.ID) + ""); 14: //the item to delete 15: batchString.Append("" + Convert.ToString(item.ID) + ""); 16: //set the action you would like to preform 17: batchString.Append("Delete"); 18: //close the method section 19: batchString.Append(""); 20: } 21: 22: //close the batch section 23: batchString.Append(""); 24: 25: //preform the batch 26: SPContext.Current.Web.ProcessBatchData(batchString.ToString()); The only disadvantage that I can think of right know is that all the items you delete will be put in the recycle bin. How can I prevent that? I also found the solution like below: // web is a the SPWeb object your lists belong to // Before starting your deletion web.Site.WebApplication.RecycleBinEnabled = false; // When your are finished re-enable it web.Site.WebApplication.RecycleBinEnabled = true; Ref [Here](http://www.entwicklungsgedanken.de/2008/04/02/how-to-speed-up-the-deletion-of-large-amounts-of-list-items-within-sharepoint/) But the disadvantage of that solution is that only future deletion will not be sent to the Recycle Bins but it will delete all existing items as well which user do not want. Any idea to prevent not to delete existing items? Many thanks in advance, TQT

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  • C# Casting system.__comobject to class type

    - by ijrufus
    I have an Excel Add-In that I'm currently trying to set up a unit test framework for. For the unit tests I've followed this guide: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/varsha/archive/2010/08/17/writing-automated-test-cases-for-vsto-application.aspx It seems to work fine, until I want to return a class object from my interface. Specifying the class object as the return type throws a "return argument has an invalid type" exception when calling the method. Changing the return type from the class to an object allows me to call the method and get the object, but now I'm unable to cast it as the class and use it as intended, getting this exception message when I try: > Unable to cast COM object of type 'System.__ComObject' to class type > 'anaplan.Utility.XYCoordinates'. Instances of types that represent COM > components cannot be cast to types that do not represent COM > components; however they can be cast to interfaces as long as the > underlying COM component supports QueryInterface calls for the IID of > the interface. I've retrieved the Type name using VisualBasic.Information.TypeName and it's showing it as the class I expect. Is there any way to get the comobject cast back to the class? Or another way to access the properties it has? Or am I just being a bit stupid here?

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  • C++, using one byte to store two variables

    - by 2di
    Hi All I am working on representation of the chess board, and I am planning to store it in 32 bytes array, where each byte will be used to store two pieces. (That way only 4 bits are needed per piece) Doing it in that way, results in a overhead for accessing particular index of the board. Do you think that, this code can be optimised or completely different method of accessing indexes can be used? c++ char getPosition(unsigned char* c, int index){ //moving pointer c+=(index>>1); //odd number if (index & 1){ //taking right part return *c & 0xF; }else { //taking left part return *c>>4; } } void setValue(unsigned char* board, char value, int index){ //moving pointer board+=(index>>1); //odd number if (index & 1){ //replace right part //save left value only 4 bits *board = (*board & 0xF0) + value; }else { //replacing left part *board = (*board & 0xF) + (value<<4); } } int main() { char* c = (char*)malloc(32); for (int i = 0; i < 64 ; i++){ setValue((unsigned char*)c, i % 8,i); } for (int i = 0; i < 64 ; i++){ cout<<(int)getPosition((unsigned char*)c, i)<<" "; if (((i+1) % 8 == 0) && (i > 0)){ cout<<endl; } } return 0; } I am equally interested in your opinions regarding chess representations, and optimisation of the method above, as a stand alone problem. Thanks a lot

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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver When run jar file

    - by user1024858
    Hi all, Connection conn = null; String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/"; String dbName = "test"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String userName = "root"; String password = "admin"; try { Class.forName(driver).newInstance(); conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url+dbName,userName,password); System.out.println("Connected to the database"); conn.close(); System.out.println("Disconnected from database"); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace();} I run in eclipse it's ok, but i built to jar file and run on command line java -jar Test.jar i get this error: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) Please help me how to fix it. Thanks!!!

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  • search a listview in Persian

    - by user3641353
    I have listview with textview which I use textview for search items in listview. It works true but just in English. I can not change the keyboard to Persian. Do you have any solution? this is my code: ArrayAdapter<String> adapter; String[] allMovesStr = {"??? ???? ????","?? ???? ????","?? ???? ????? ???????"}; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.all_moves); adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, allMovesStr); setListAdapter(adapter); EditText ed = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.inputSearch); ListView lv = (ListView) findViewById(android.R.id.list); lv.setTextFilterEnabled(true); ed.addTextChangedListener(new TextWatcher() { public void onTextChanged(CharSequence arg0, int arg1, int arg2, int arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void beforeTextChanged(CharSequence arg0, int arg1, int arg2, int arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void afterTextChanged(Editable arg0) { // vaghti kar bar harfi vared kard josteju mikone : AllMoves.this.adapter.getFilter().filter(arg0); } }); }

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  • Array of Arrays - writing to File problem

    - by iFloh
    Hi, and again my array of arrays ... I try to improve my app performance by buffering arrays on file for later reuse. I have an NSMutableArray that contains about 30 NSMutableArrays with NSNumber, NSDate and NSString Objects. I try to write the file using this call: bool result = [myArray writeToFile:[fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]] atomically:NO]; = result = FALSE. The Path method is: + (NSString *) getFullPath:(NSString *)forFileName { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:forFileName]; } and the aDate call returns a shortDateString with ddMMyy. The NSLog NSLog(@"%@", [fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]]); on the path generation returns: /Users/me/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/86729620-EC1D-4C10-A799-0C638BB27933/Documents/iEts010510.arr FURTHER: It must have something to do with the Array of Arrays, since I also write 3 further simple arrays (containing NSStrings) that all succeed. The Array of Arrays gets generated using the addObject method Any ideas what could cause the trouble?

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  • Getting a type for a template instantiation?

    - by ebo
    I have the following situation: I have a object of type MyClass, which has a method to cast itself to it's base class. The class includes a typedef for it's base class and a method to do the downcast. template <class T, class B> class BaseClass; template <class T> class NoAccess; template <class T> class MyClass : public BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > { private: typedef BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > base; public: base &to_base(); }; I need to pass the result of a base call to a functor Operator: template <class Y> class Operator { Operator(Y &x); }; Operator<???> op(myobject.to_base()); Is there a easy way to fill the ??? provided that I do not want to use NoAccess?

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  • DRY jQuery for RESTful PUT/DELETE links

    - by Aupajo
    I'm putting together PUT/DELETE links, a la Rails, which when clicked create a POST form with an hidden input labelled _method that sends the intended request type. I want to make it DRYer, but my jQuery knowledge isn't up to it. HTML: <a href="/articles/1" class="delete">Destroy Article 1</a> <a href="/articles/1/publish" class="put">Publish Article 1</a> jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('.delete').click(function() { if(confirm('Are you sure?')) { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="DELETE" />')); $(f).submit(); } return false; }); $('.put').click(function() { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="PUT" />')); $(f).submit(); return false; }); });

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  • Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

    - by Timbo
    Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

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  • Ensure that my C# desktop application is making requests to my ASP .NET MVC action?

    - by Mathias Lykkegaard Lorenzen
    I've seen questions that are almost identical to this one, except minor but important differences that I would like to get detailed. Let's say that I have a controller and an action method in MVC which therefore accepts requests on the following URL: http://example.com/api/myapimethod?data=some-data-here. This URL is then being called regularly by 1000 clients or more spread out in the public. The reason for this is crowdsourcing. The clients around the globe help feed a global cache on my server, which makes it faster for the rest of the clients to fetch the data. Now, if I'm sneaky (and I am), I can go into Fiddler, Ethereal, Wireshark or any other packet sniffing tool and figure out which requests the program is making. By figuring that out, I can also replicate them, and fill the service with false corrupted data. What is the best approach to ensuring that the data received in my ASP .NET MVC action method is actually from the desktop client application, and not some falsely generated data that the user invented? Since it is all based on crowdsourcing, would it be a good idea for my users to be able to "vote" if some data is falsified, and then let an automatic cleanup commence if there are enough votes? I do not have access to a tool like SmartAssembly, so unfortunately my .NET program is fully decompilable. I realize this might be impossible to accomplish in an error-proof manner, but I would like to know where my best chances are.

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  • C# : How to round-off hours based on Minutes(hours+0 if min<30, hours+1 otherwise) ?

    - by infant programmer
    I need to round-off the hours based on the minutes in a dateTime variable. The condition is : if minutes are less than 30, then minutes must be set to zero and no changes to hours, Else if minutes =30, then hours must be set to hours+1 and minutes are again set to zero. Seconds are ignored. example: 11/08/2008 04:30:49 should become 11/08/2008 05:00:00 and 11/08/2008 04:29:49 should become 11/08/2008 04:00:00 I have written a Code which works perfectly fine, but just wanted to know a better method if could be written and also would appreciate alternative method(s). string date1 = "11/08/2008 04:30:49"; DateTime startTime; DateTime.TryParseExact(date1, "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss", null, System.Globalization.DateTimeStyles.None, out startTime); if (Convert.ToInt32((startTime.Minute.ToString())) > 29) { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); startTime = startTime.Add(TimeSpan.Parse("01:00:00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); } else { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); }

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  • Java: Comparing a class with another within that class using a my own .equals

    - by user1670252
    I am making a method .equals replacing the equals method used. It accepts a object. I want it to check if that object equals the class that runs the .equals class. I know I want to compare all the private methods I have to that object. Is there a way to do this without making another private class to get the private variables from the object? How do I do this to compare equality not identity? I am stuck on this. Do i have to use == to compare? Also looking online i see others use recursion. If this is the way i have to do it can you show and explain it to me? so an example i have public boolean equals(Object o) { this is in a class we will call bobtheBuilder (first thing to pop in my head) I want to check if the object o is equal to the class he has private object array and a private int. I assume I want to check if the array and int of this class equal the array and int of the object.

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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • Multiple forms + HAML + jQuery + Javascript submit

    - by Jay Godse
    Hi. I have a HAML page that lists some links to delete "things" that looks like this %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 1 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_1', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'1'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 22 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_22', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'22'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} The intention is to have a link "Delete XX" which will delete something specific. A page could have a number of these links, and each link is for a specific "thing". I also have a piece of (unobtrusive) jQuery javascript that adds a click handler to each form as follows: $('a.form_submit').click(function(event) { $('form').submit(); event.preventDefauilt(); }); This works when there is one form on a page. However, if I have more than one form on a page, how do I ensure that clicking "Delete Thing 1" will trigger a submit() event only on the form with id='comment_1'?

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  • calling same function on different buttons not loaded yet

    - by Jordan Faust
    I can not get this to work for every button and I cannot find anything explaining why. I guessing it is something small that I am missing $(document).ready(function() { // delete the selected row from the database $(document).on('click', '#business-area-delete-button', { model: "BusinessArea" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#business-type-delete-button', { model: "BusinessType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-delete-button', { model: "Client" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-type-delete-button', { model: "ClientType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#communication-channel-type', { model: "CommunicationChannelType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#parameter-type-delete-button', { model: "ParameterType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#validation-method-delete-button', { model: "ValidationMethod" }, deleteRow); } the event function deleteRow(event){ $.ajax( { type:'POST', data: { id: $(".delete-row").attr("id") }, url:"/mysite/admin/delete" + event.data.model, success:function(data,textStatus){ $('#main-content').html(data); }, error:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus,errorThrown){ jQuery('#alerts').html(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); }, complete:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus){ placeAlerts() } } ); return false }; This works only for a the button with id validation-method-delete-button. I use document and not the button its self because the button is contained in a template that is loaded later via ajax. I have this working for a similar function that is selecting a row in a table however I am not attempting to pass data in that scenario.

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  • Doesn't (didn't) Scala have automatically generated setters?

    - by Malvolio
    Google and my failing memory are both giving me hints that it does, but every attempt is coming up dry. class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_(3) error: value y_ is not a member of Y Please tell me I am doing something wrong. (Also: please tell me what it is I am doing wrong.) EDIT The thing I am not doing wrong, or at least not the only thing I am doing wrong, is the way I am invoking the setter. The following things also fail, all with the same error message: m.y_ // should be a function valued expression m.y_ = (3) // suggested by Google and by Mchl f(m.y_) // where f takes Int => Unit as an argument f(m.y) // complains that I am passing in Int not a function I am doing this all through SimplyScala, because I'm too lazy and impatient to set up Scala on my tiny home machine. Hope it isn't that... And the winner is ... Fabian, who pointed out that I can't have a space between the _ and the =. I thought out why this should be and then it occurred to me: The name of the setter for y is not y_, it is y_= ! Observe: class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_=(3) m.y res1: Int = 3 m.y_= error: missing arguments for method y_= in class Y; follow this method with `_` if you want to treat it as a partially applied function m.y_= ^ m.y_=_ res2: (Int) => Unit = def four(f : Int => Unit) = f(4) four(m.y_=) m.y res3: Int = 4 Another successful day on StackExchange.

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  • Why Is the sender type null when dealing with events

    - by ChloeRadshaw
    From C# Via CLR: Note A lot of people wonder why the event pattern requires the sender parameter to always be of type Object After all, since the MailManager will be the only type raising an event with a NewMail EventArgs object, it makes more sense for the callback method to be prototyped like this: void MethodName(Mai l Manager sender, NewMail EventArgs e); The pattern requires the sender parameter to be of type Object mostly because of inheritance What if Mai lManager were used as a base class for SmtpMailManager? In this case, the callback method should have the sender parameter prototyped as SmtpMailManager instead of Mail Manager, but this can’t happen because SmtpMai lManager just inherited the NewMai l event So the code that was expecting SmtpMail Manager to raise the event must still have to cast the sender argument to SmtpMailManager In other words, the cast is still required, so the sender parameter might as well be typed as Obj ect The next reason for typing the sender parameter as Obj ect is just fexibility It allows the delegate to be used by multiple types that offer an event that passes a NewMail EventArgs object For example, a PopMai lManager class could use the delegate even if this class were not derived from Mail Manager I just simply cannot understand why the sender is an object - Why can it not be generified? so most of the time we do not need to do generic casts

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  • How to use accessors within the same class in Objective C?

    - by Azeworai
    Hi, I have a few properties defined in my header file like so @property (assign) bool connectivity_N; @property (assign) bool isConnected_N; In my implementation file I have an init and the synthesized properties like so @implementation Map @synthesize connectivity_N; @synthesize isConnected_N; a init to set the initial values like so -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { //initialise default properties self.connectivity_N=NO; self.isConnected_N=NO; } return self; } I'm running into an error that states Error: accessing unknown 'connectivity_N' class method. In this public method within the class +(bool) isConnectable:(directions) theDirection{ bool isTheDirectionConnectable= NO; switch (theDirection) { case north: isTheDirectionConnectable= self.connectivity_N; break; I'm not sure why is this so as I'm trying to grab the value of the property. According to the apple developer documentation "The default names for the getter and setter methods associated with a property are propertyName and setPropertyName: respectively—for example, given a property “foo”, the accessors would be foo and setFoo:" That has given me a clue that I've done something wrong here, I'm fairly new to objective C so would appreciate anyone who spends the time to explain this to me. Thanks!

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  • LINQ - Splitting up a string with maximum length, but not chopping words apart.

    - by Stacey
    I have a simple LINQ Extension Method... public static IEnumerable<string> SplitOnLength(this string input, int length) { int index = 0; while (index < input.Length) { if (index + length < input.Length) yield return input.Substring(index, length); else yield return input.Substring(index); index += length; } } This takes a string, and it chops it up into a collection of strings that do not exceed the given length. This works well - however I'd like to go further. It chops words in half. I don't need it to understand anything complicated, I just want it to be able to chop a string off 'early' if cutting it at the length would be cutting in the middle of text (basically anything that isn't whitespace). However I suck at LINQ, so I was wondering if anyone had an idea on how to go about this. I know what I am trying to do, but I'm not sure how to approach it. So let's say I have the following text. This is a sample block of text that I would pass through the string splitter. I call this method SplitOnLength(6) I would get the following. This i s a sa mple b lock o f text that I would pass t hrough the s tring splitt er. I would rather it be smart enough to stop and look more like .. This is a sample // bad example, since the single word exceeds maximum length, but the length would be larger numbers in real scenarios, closer to 200. Can anyone help me?

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • Error in Android's clearCheck() for RadioGroup?

    - by Manuel R. Ciosici
    I'm having an issue with RadioGroup's clearChecked(). I'm displaying a multiple choice question to the user and after the user selects an answer I check the answer, give him some feedback and then move to the next question. In the process of moving to the next question I clearCheck on the RadioGroup. Can anyone explain to me why the onCheckedChanged method is called 3 times? Once when the change actually occurs (with the user changes), once when I clearCheck(with -1 as the selected id) and once in between (with the user changes again)? As far as I could tell the second trigger is provoked by clearCheck. Code below: private void checkAnswer(RadioGroup group, int checkedId){ // this makes sure it doesn't blow up when the check is cleared // also we don't check the answer when there is no answer if (checkedId == -1) return; if (group.getCheckedRadioButtonId() == -1) return; // check if correct answer if (checkedId == validAnswerId){ score++; this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.GOOD); } else { this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.BAD); } // allow for user to see feedback and move to next question h.postDelayed(this, 800); } private void changeToQuestion(int questionNumber){ if (questionNumber >= this.questionSet.size()){ // means we are past the question set // we're going to the score activity this.goToScoreActivity(); return; } //clearing the check gr.clearCheck(); // give change the feedback back to question imgFeedback.setImageResource(R.drawable.question_mark); //OTHER CODE HERE } and the run method looks like this public void run() { questionNumber++; changeToQuestion(questionNumber); }

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