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  • Use HTTP PUT to create new cache (ehCache) running on the same Tomcat?

    - by socal_javaguy
    I am trying to send a HTTP PUT (in order to create a new cache and populate it with my generated JSON) to ehCache using my webservice which is on the same local tomcat instance. Am new to RESTful Web Services and am using JDK 1.6, Tomcat 7, ehCache, and JSON. I have my POJOs defined like this: Person POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private List<House> houses; // Getters & Setters } House POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class House { private String address; private String city; private String state; // Getters & Setters } Using a PersonUtil class, I hardcoded the POJOs as follows: public class PersonUtil { public static Person getPerson() { Person person = new Person(); person.setFirstName("John"); person.setLastName("Doe"); List<House> houses = new ArrayList<House>(); House house = new House(); house.setAddress("1234 Elm Street"); house.setCity("Anytown"); house.setState("Maine"); houses.add(house); person.setHouses(houses); return person; } } Am able to create a JSON response per a GET request: @Path("") public class MyWebService{ @GET @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Person getPerson() { return PersonUtil.getPerson(); } } When deploying the war to tomcat and pointing the browser to http://localhost:8080/personservice/ Generated JSON: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So far, so good, however, I have a different app which is running on the same tomcat instance (and has support for REST): http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/ While tomcat is running, I can issue a PUT like this: echo "Hello World" | curl -S -T - http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 When I "GET" it like this: curl http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 Will yield: Hello World What I need to do is create a POST which will put my entire Person generated JSON and create a new cache: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person And when I do a "GET" on this previous URL, it should look like this: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So, far, this is what my PUT looks like: @PUT @Path("/ehcache/rest/person") @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Response createCache() { ResponseBuilder response = Response.ok(PersonUtil.getPerson(), MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); return response.build(); } Question(s): (1) Is this the correct way to write the PUT? (2) What should I write inside the createCache() method to have it PUT my generated JSON into: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person (3) What would the command line CURL comment look like to use the PUT? Thanks for taking the time to read this...

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  • Sending string to wcf service using jquery ajax. why can i only send strings of numbers?

    - by Robodude
    Hi Guys, For some reason, I'm only able to pass strings containing numbers to my web service when using jquery ajax. This hasn't been an issue so far because I was always just passing IDs to my wcf service. But I'm trying to do something more complex now but I can't figure it out. In my interface: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json); My webservice: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json) { DataTableOutput x = new DataTableOutput(); x.iTotalDisplayRecords = 9; x.iTotalRecords = 50; x.sColumns = "1"; x.sEcho = "1"; x.aaData = null; return x; } Javascript/Jquery: var x = "1"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "Services/Service1.svc/GetDataTableOutput", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: x, dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); The above code WORKS perfectly. But when I change x to "t" or even to "{'test':'test'}" I get a Error 400 Bad Request error in Firebug. Thanks, John EDIT: Making some progress! data: JSON.stringify("{'test':'test'}"), Sends the string to my function! EDIT2: var jsonAOData = JSON.stringify(aoData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{'Input':" + jsonAOData + "}", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); EDIT3: I modified the code block I put in EDIT2 up above. Swapping the " and ' did the trick! $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"Input":' + jsonAOData + '}', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); However, I have a new problem: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(DataTableInputOverview Input) { The input here is completely null. The values I passed from jsonAOData didn't get assigned to the DataTableInputOverview Input variable. :(

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  • Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

    - by visibleinvisibly
    I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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  • How can I improve my select query for storing large versioned data sets?

    - by Jason Francis
    At work, we build large multi-page web applications, consisting mostly of radio and check boxes. The primary purpose of each application is to gather data, but as users return to a page they have previously visited, we report back to them their previous responses. Worst-case scenario, we might have up to 900 distinct variables and around 1.5 million users. For several reasons, it makes sense to use an insert-only approach to storing the data (as opposed to update-in-place) so that we can capture historical data about repeated interactions with variables. The net result is that we might have several responses per user per variable. Our table to collect the responses looks something like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[results]( [id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NULL, [variable] [varchar](8) NULL, [value] [tinyint] NULL, [submitted] [smalldatetime] NULL) Where id serves as the primary key. Virtually every request results in a series of insert statements (one per variable submitted), and then we run a select to produce previous responses for the next page (something like this): SELECT t.id, t.variable, t.value FROM results t WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE t.userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') AND t.id IN (SELECT MAX(id) AS id FROM results WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') GROUP BY variable) Which, in this case, would return the most recent responses for the variables "internat", "veteran", and "athlete" for user 2111846. We have followed the advice of the database tuning tools in indexing the tables, and against our data, this is the best-performing version of the select query that we have been able to come up with. Even so, there seems to be significant performance degradation as the table approaches 1 million records (and we might have about 150x that). We have a fairly-elegant solution in place for sharding the data across multiple tables which has been working quite well, but I am open for any advice about how I might construct a better version of the select query. We use this structure frequently for storing lots of independent data points, and we like the benefits it provides. So the question is, how can I improve the performance of the select query? I assume the nested select statement is a bad idea, but I have yet to find an alternative that performs as well. Thanks in advance. NB: Since we emphasize creating over reading in this case, and since we never update in place, there doesn't seem to be any penalty (and some advantage) for using the NOLOCK directive in this case.

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  • A new MEF error I've not seen before -- "The export is not assignable to type..."

    - by Dave
    I was very surprised to get this error today, as it's one that I've never encountered before. Everything in the code looked okay, so I did some searches. The previous questions and their respective answers didn't help. This one was solved when the poster made sure his assembly references were consistent. I don't have this issue right now because I'm currently referencing another project in my solution. This one was solved when the poster was instructed to use ImportMany, but I am already using it (I think properly, too) to try to load multiple plugins This one was solved when the poster realized that there was a platform target mismatch. I've already gone through my projects to ensure that everything targets x86. So here's what I am trying to do. I have a plugin that owns a connection to a device. I might also need to be able to share that connection with another plugin. I decided that the cleanest way to do this was to create an interface that would allow the slave plugin to request its own connection to the device. Let's just call it IConnectionSharer. If the slave plugin does not need to borrow this connection and has its own, then it should use its own implementation of IConnectionSharer to connect to the device. My "master" plugin (the one that owns the connection to the device) implements IConnectionSharer. It also exports this via ExportAttribute. My "slave" plugin assembly defines a class that also implements and exports IConnectionSharer. When the application loads, the intent is for my slave plugin, via MEF, to enumerate all IConnectionSharers and store them in an IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer>. It does so like this: [ImportMany] public IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer> AllSharedConnections { get; set; } But during part composition, I get the error the export 'Company.MasterPlugin (ContractName="IConnectionSharer")' is not assignable to type 'IConnectionSharer'. The error message itself seems clear enough -- it's as if MEF thinks my master plugin doesn't inherit from IConnectionSharer... but it does! Can anyone suggest further debugging strategies? I'm going to start the painful process of single stepping through the MEF source.

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

    - by Matt
    I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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  • NSUrlconnection problem receiving data from some filehosts

    - by Tammo
    hello again, i am trying to develop an downloadmanager. i can now download files from almost anywhere on linkclick. in the - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView*)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest*)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType i check if the url is a url to a binaryfile like a zipfile. than i setup a nsurlconnection NSMutableURLRequest *urlRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringLocalCacheData timeoutInterval:20.0]; [urlRequest setValue:@"User-Agent" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X; en) AppleWebKit/418.9 (KHTML, like Gecko) Safari/419.3"]; NSURLConnection *mainConnection = [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:urlRequest delegate:self]; if (nil == mainConnection) { NSLog(@"Could not create the NSURLConnection object"); } (void)connection:(NSURLConnection )connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse)response { self.tabBarController.selectedIndex=1; [receivedData setLength:0]; percent = 0; localFilename = [[[url2 absoluteString] lastPathComponent] copy]; NSLog(localFilename); NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0] ; NSString *appFile = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:localFilename]; [[NSFileManager defaultManager] createFileAtPath:appFile contents:nil attributes:nil]; [downloadname setHidden:NO]; [downloadname setText:localFilename]; expectedBytes = [response expectedContentLength]; exp = [response expectedContentLength]; NSLog(@"content-length: %lli Bytes", expectedBytes); file = [[NSFileHandle fileHandleForUpdatingAtPath:appFile] retain]; if (file) { [file seekToEndOfFile]; } } (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { if (file) { [file seekToEndOfFile]; } [file writeData:data]; [receivedData appendData:data]; long long resourceLength = [receivedData length]; float res = [receivedData length]; percent = res/exp; [progress setHidden:NO]; [progress setProgress:percent]; NSLog(@"Remaining: %lli KB", (expectedBytes-resourceLength)/1024); [kbleft setHidden:NO]; [kbleft setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%lli / %lli KB", expectedBytes/1024 ,(resourceLength)/1024]]; } in the connectiondidfinish loading i close the file. all working fine for nearly every hoster except hosters wich have a capture procedure before like filedude.com in the uiwebview i can surf to the downloadpage enter the captcha and get the downloadlink. when i click on it the file will be created in the documentsdir with the filename and the download starts but he dont get any data. every file has 0kb and the NSLog(@"content-length: %lli Bytes", expectedBytes); gives out something like 100-400 byte . can somebody help me solve this problem? kind regards

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  • Ajax progress with PHP session

    - by FFish
    I have an app that processes images and use jQuery to display progress to the user. I done this with writing to a textfile each time and image is processed and than read this status with a setInterval. Because no images are actually written in the processing (I do it in PHP's memory) I thought a log.txt would be a solution, but I am not sure about all the fopen and fread's. Is this prone to issues? I tried also with PHP sessions, but can't seem to get it to work, I don't get why.. HTML: <a class="download" href="#">request download</a> <p class="message"></p> JS: $('a.download').click(function() { var queryData = {images : ["001.jpg", "002.jpg", "003.jpg"]}; $("p.message").html("initializing..."); var progressCheck = function() { $.get("dynamic-session-progress.php", function(data) { $("p.message").html(data); } ); }; $.post('dynamic-session-process.php', queryData, function(intvalId) { return function(data) { $("p.message").html(data); clearInterval(intvalId); } } (setInterval(progressCheck, 1000)) ); return false; }); process.php: // session_start(); $arr = $_POST['images']; $arr_cnt = count($arr); $filename = "log.txt"; for ($i = 1; $i <= $arr_cnt; $i++) { $content = "processing $val ($i/$arr_cnt)"; $handle = fopen($filename, 'w'); fwrite($handle, $content); fclose($handle); // $_SESSION['counter'] = $content; sleep(3); // to mimic image processing } echo "<a href='#'>download zip</a>"; progress.php: // session_start(); $filename = "log.txt"; $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $contents = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); fclose($handle); echo $contents; // echo $_SESSION['counter'];

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  • Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

    - by Chris
    I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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  • Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

    - by Jim Fell
    It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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  • Object relationships

    - by Hammerstein
    This stems from a recent couple of posts I've made on events and memory management in general. I'm making a new question as I don't think the software I'm using has anything to do with the overall problem and I'm trying to understand a little more about how to properly manage things. This is ASP.NET. I've been trying to understand the needs for Dispose/Finalize over the past few days and believe that I've got to a stage where I'm pretty happy with when I should/shouldn't implement the Dispose/Finalize. 'If I have members that implement IDisposable, put explicit calls to their dispose in my dispose method' seems to be my understanding. So, now I'm thinking maybe my understanding of object lifetimes and what holds on to what is just wrong! Rather than come up with some sample code that I think will illustrate my point, I'm going to describe as best I can actual code and see if someone can talk me through it. So, I have a repository class, in it I have a DataContext that I create when the repository is created. I implement IDisposable, and when my calling object is done, I call Dispose on my repository and explicitly call DataContext.Dispose( ). Now, one of the methods of this class creates and returns a list of objects that's handed back to my front end. Front End - Controller - Repository - Controller - Front End. (Using Redgate Memory Profiler, I take a snapshot of my software when the page is first loaded). My front end creates a controller object on page load and then makes a request to the repository sending back a list of items. When the page is finished loading, I call Dispose on the controller which in turn calls dispose on the context. In my mind, that should mean that my connection is closed and that I have no instances of my controller class. If I then refresh the page, it jumps to two 'Live' instances of the controller class. If I look at the object retention graph, the objects I created in my call to the list are being held onto ultimately by what looks like Linq. The controller/repository aside, if I create a list of objects somewhere, or I create an object and return it somewhere, am I safe to just assume that .NET will eventually come and clean things up for me or is there a best practice? The 'Live' instances suggest to me that these are still in memory and active objects, the fact that RMP apparently forces GC doesn't mean anything?

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  • Can I use WCF to replace my current Web Service and Window Service combination?

    - by gun_shy
    I need a little bit of advise regarding the situation I am faced with. The current arrangement I have been tasked with improving just doesn't sit well with me and I feel like there is a better way to do it. The more I read about WCF, the more I get the feeling that it might be what I am looking for. Right now, I have an asp.net client, a .net web service, a windows service, a ms sql database, and a third party application that is used for processing a group of 'project' files into a finalized file. Since the third party application can only handle processing one 'project' at a time, the combination of the web service, window service, and database have been arranged to create a job queue manager for the third party application. The client sends a zip 'project' file containing multiple sub files to the web service. The web service adds a new 'project' line to the database, generating a unique job id. The zip file is expanded to a folder location on the server using the job id as the folder name. The web service then returns the job id to the client. The client will use this id to poll the web service for the status of the job submitted. When the job is complete, the client will request the processed file. The windows service polls the database every x minutes. If a new job exists, the service will pull the oldest job and send it to the third party app for processing. If the processing succeeds, the window service updates the project line in the database, marking the job complete. The window service will continue to process any non complete jobs in the database until there are no more. When it stops finding any jobs, it will sleep x minutes and then poll the database again. I do not like the fact that the window service has to poll the database. If there is only one job submitted, the client will have to wait for the window service to poll and then wait while the 'project' is being processed. It seems like WCF could be used to combine the web and window services using a combination of the InstanceContextMode.Single and ConcurrencyMode.Multiple. So far, I have been unable to find any articles or examples that would point me in the right direction. Can WCF be utilized to accomplish the job queue logic of the current arrangement in a better way? As always, any help is more than appreciated.

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  • Router Alert options on IGMPv2 packets

    - by Scakko
    I'm trying to forge an IGMPv2 Membership Request packet and send it on a RAW socket. The RFC 3376 states: IGMP messages are encapsulated in IPv4 datagrams, with an IP protocol number of 2. Every IGMP message described in this document is sent with an IP Time-to-Live of 1, IP Precedence of Internetwork Control (e.g., Type of Service 0xc0), and carries an IP Router Alert option [RFC-2113] in its IP header So the IP_ROUTER_ALERT flag must be set. I'm trying to forge the strict necessary of the packet (e.g. only the IGMP header & payload), so i'm using the setsockopt to edit the IP options. some useful variables: #define C_IP_MULTICAST_TTL 1 #define C_IP_ROUTER_ALERT 1 int sockfd = 0; int ecsockopt = 0; int bytes_num = 0; int ip_multicast_ttl = C_IP_MULTICAST_TTL; int ip_router_alert = C_IP_ROUTER_ALERT; Here's how I open the RAW socket: sock_domain = AF_INET; sock_type = SOCK_RAW; sock_proto = IPPROTO_IGMP; if ((ecsockopt = socket(sock_domain,sock_type,sock_proto)) < 0) { printf("Error %d: Can't open socket.\n", errno); return 1; } else { printf("** Socket opened.\n"); } sockfd = ecsockopt; Then I set the TTL and Router Alert option: // Set the sent packets TTL if((ecsockopt = setsockopt(sockfd, IPPROTO_IP, IP_MULTICAST_TTL, &ip_multicast_ttl, sizeof(ip_multicast_ttl))) < 0) { printf("Error %d: Can't set TTL.\n", ecsockopt); return 1; } else { printf("** TTL set.\n"); } // Set the Router Alert if((ecsockopt = setsockopt(sockfd, IPPROTO_IP, IP_ROUTER_ALERT, &ip_router_alert, sizeof(ip_router_alert))) < 0) { printf("Error %d: Can't set Router Alert.\n", ecsockopt); return 1; } else { printf("** Router Alert set.\n"); } The setsockopt of IP_ROUTER_ALERT returns 0. After forging the packet, i send it with sendto in this way: // Send the packet if((bytes_num = sendto(sockfd, packet, packet_size, 0, (struct sockaddr*) &mgroup1_addr, sizeof(mgroup1_addr))) < 0) { printf("Error %d: Can't send Membership report message.\n", bytes_num); return 1; } else { printf("** Membership report message sent. (bytes=%d)\n",bytes_num); } The packet is sent, but the IP_ROUTER_ALERT option (checked with wireshark) is missing. Am i doing something wrong? is there some other methods to set the IP_ROUTER_ALERT option? Thanks in advance.

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  • PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

    - by bigstylee
    Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

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  • iOs receivedData from NSURLConnection is nil

    - by yhl
    I was wondering if anyone could point out why I'm not able to capture a web reply. My NSLog shows that my [NSMutableData receivedData] has a length of 0 the entire run of the connection. The script that I hit when I click my login button returns a string. My NSLog result is pasted below, and after that I've pasted both the .h and .m files that I have. NSLog Result 2012-11-28 23:35:22.083 [12548:c07] Clicked on button_login 2012-11-28 23:35:22.090 [12548:c07] theConnection is succesful 2012-11-28 23:35:22.289 [12548:c07] didReceiveResponse 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] didReceiveData 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] connectionDidFinishLoading 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 ViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ViewController : UIViewController // Create an Action for the button. - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender; // Add property declaration. @property (nonatomic,assign) NSMutableData *receivedData; @end ViewController.m #import ViewController.h @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize receivedData; - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"didReceiveData"); [receivedData appendData:data]; NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"connectionDidFinishLoading"); NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Clicked on button_login"); NSString *loginScriptURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.website.com/app/scripts/login.php?"]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:loginScriptURL]]; NSString *postString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&paramUsername=user&paramPassword=pass"]; NSData *postData = [postString dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:postData]; // Create the actual connection using the request. NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; // Capture the response if (theConnection) { NSLog(@"theConnection is succesful"); } else { NSLog(@"theConnection failed"); } } @end

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  • How to set Minimum and Maximum Character limitation to EditText in Android?

    - by nishitpatel
    I am new to android here i have very silly problem i want to set my Edit text box minimum and maximum input value. Here I am creating one Simple validation for Edit text it only take A-Z and 0-9 value with minimum 5 and Maximum 8 character. I set the Maximum and other validation as follow. <EditText android:id="@+id/edittextKode_Listing" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginRight="5dp" android:layout_marginLeft="5dp" android:layout_alignTop="@+id/textKode_listing" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/textKode_listing" android:maxLength="8" android:inputType="textCapCharacters" android:digits="0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTVUWXYZ" /> but not able to set Minimum requirement. My Edit text is in alert dialog and i also apply the following code to solve this problem ` private void openInboxDialog() { LayoutInflater inflater = this.getLayoutInflater(); // declare dialog view final View dialogView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.kirim_layout, null); final EditText edittextKode = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextKode_Listing); final EditText edittextalamat = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextAlamat); edittextKode.setOnFocusChangeListener(new OnFocusChangeListener() { @Override public void onFocusChange(View v, boolean hasFocus) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() > 0){ if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() < 5) { edittextKode.setError("Error"); Toast.makeText(GPSActivity.this, "Kode listing value not be less than 5", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); edittextKode.requestFocus(); } } } }); final AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(GPSActivity.this); builder.setTitle("Kirim").setView(dialogView) .setNeutralButton("OK", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub gpsCoordinates = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.text_GPS_Coordinates); kode = edittextKode.getText().toString(); alamat = edittextalamat.getText().toString(); catatan = edittextcatatan.getText().toString(); pengirim = edittextPengirim.getText().toString(); if (kode.length() > 0 && alamat.length() > 0 && catatan.length() > 0 && pengirim.length() > 0) { message = "Kode listing : " + kode + "\nAlamat : " + alamat + " \nCatatan : " + catatan + " \n Pengirim : " + pengirim + "\nKoordinat GPS : " + gpsCoordinates.getText().toString(); sendByGmail(); } else { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), "Please fill all three fields to send mail", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); builder.create(); builder.show(); }` in this alert dialog i have two edittext i want to apply my validation on first edittext i called the setOnFocusChangeListener to check its minimum length on focus change and if length is less than 5 request for focus but it still type in second edittext. please help me out.

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  • jquery .get/.post not working on ie 7 or 8, works fine in ff

    - by Samutz
    I have basically this on a page: <script type="text/javascript"> function refresh_context() { $("#ajax-context").html("Searching..."); $.get("/ajax/ldap_search.php", {cn: $("#username").val()}, function(xml) { $("#ajax-context").html($("display", xml).text()); $("#context").val($("context", xml).text()); }, 'xml'); } $(document).ready(function() { $("#username").blur(refresh_context); }); </script> <input type="text" name="username" id="username" maxlength="255" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="context" id="context" value=""/> <div id="ajax-context"></div> What it should do (and does fine on Firefox) is when you type a username in to the #username field, it will run /ajax/ldap_search.php?cn=$username, which searches our company's ldap for the username and returns it's raw context and a formatted version of the context like this: <result> <display>Staff -&gt; Accounting -&gt; John Smith</display> <context>cn=jsmith,ou=Accounting,ou=Staff,ou=Users,o=MyOrg</context> </result> The formatted version (display) goes to the div #ajax-context and goes to the hidden input #context. (Also, the - are actually - "& g t ;" (without spaces)). However, on IE the div stays stuck on "Searching..." and the hidden input value stays blank. I've tried both .get and .post and neither work. I'm sure it's failing on the .get because if I try this, I don't even get the alert: $.get("/ajax/ldap_search.php", {cn: $("#username").val()}, function() { alert("Check"); }); Also, IE doesn't give me any script errors. Edit: Added "$(document).ready(function() {", the .blur was already in it in my code, but I forgot to include that in my post. Edit 2: The request is being sent and apache2 is receiving it: 10.135.128.96 - - [01/May/2009:10:04:27 -0500] "GET /ajax/ldap_search.php?cn=i_typed_this_in_IE HTTP/1.1" 200 69

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  • Criticise/Recommendations for my code

    - by aLk
    Before i go any further it would be nice to know if there is any major design flaws in my program so far. Is there anything worth changing before i continue? Model package model; import java.sql.*; import java.util.*; public class MovieDatabase { @SuppressWarnings({ "rawtypes", "unchecked" }) public List queryMovies() throws SQLException { Connection connection = null; java.sql.Statement statement = null; ResultSet rs = null; List results = new ArrayList(); try { DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.mysql.jdbc.Driver()); connection = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test", "root", "password"); statement = connection.createStatement(); String query = "SELECT * FROM movie"; rs = statement.executeQuery(query); while(rs.next()) { MovieBean bean = new MovieBean(); bean.setMovieId(rs.getInt(1)); bean.setTitle(rs.getString(2)); bean.setYear(rs.getInt(3)); bean.setRating(rs.getInt(4)); results.add(bean); } } catch(SQLException e) { } return results; } } Servlet public class Service extends HttpServlet { @SuppressWarnings("rawtypes") protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("Movies!"); MovieDatabase movies = new MovieDatabase(); try { List results = movies.queryMovies(); Iterator it = results.iterator(); while(it.hasNext()) { MovieBean movie = new MovieBean(); movie = (MovieBean)it.next(); out.println(movie.getYear()); } } catch(SQLException e) { } } } Bean package model; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class MovieBean implements java.io.Serializable { protected int movieid; protected int rating; protected int year; protected String title; public MovieBean() { } public void setMovieId(int movieidVal) { movieid = movieidVal; } public void setRating(int ratingVal) { rating = ratingVal; } public void setYear(int yearVal) { year = yearVal; } public void setTitle(String titleVal) { title = titleVal; } public int getMovieId() { return movieid; } public int getRating() { return rating; } public int getYear() { return year; } public String getTitle() { return title; } }

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking (xmltask)

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something? EDIT Thanks to the answer from Dimitre Novatchev I was able to find a workaround: <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false"> <fileset dir="${src.gen}/" includes="**/*-deploy.wsdd" /> <copy path="//*[local-name()='service']" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" append="true" /> </xmltask> <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false" source="${basedir}/env/axis/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd" dest="${build.stage}/resources/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd"> <insert path="//*[local-name()='transport'][last()]" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" position="after" /> </xmltask> Binding namespaces with xmltask (which is the tool that gave me the headaches) seems not to be possible. The code above did the trick.

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  • PHP problems when transfering code from Windows to OS X

    - by Makka95
    I have recently bought a new MacBook Pro. Before I had my MacBook Pro I was working on a website on my desktop computer. And now I want to transfer this code to my new MacBook Pro. The problem is that when I transfered the code (I put it on Dropbox and simply downloaded it on my MacBook Pro) I started to see lots of error messages in my PHP code. The error message I”m receiving is: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /some/file.php:1) in /some/file.php on line 23 I have done some research on this and it seems that this error is most frequently caused by a new line, simple whitespace or any output before the <?php sign. I have looked through all the places where I have cookies that are being sent in the HTTP request and also where I'm using the header() function. I haven’t detected any output or whitespace that possibly could interfere and cause this problem. Noteworthy is that the error always says that the output is started at line 1. Which got me thinking if there is some kind of coding differences in the way that the Mac OS X and Windows operating systems handle new lines or white spaces? Or could the Dropbox transfer messed something up? The code on one of the sites(login.php) which produces the error: <?php include "mysql_database.php"; login(); $id = $_SESSION['Loggedin']; setcookie("login", $id, (time()+60*60*24*30)); header('Location: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']); ?> login function: function login() { $connection = connecttodatabase(); $pass = ""; $user = ""; $query = ""; if (isset($_POST['user']) && $_POST['user'] != null) { $user = $_POST['user']; if (isset($_POST['pass']) && $_POST['pass'] != null) { $pass = md5($_POST['pass']); $query = "SELECT ID FROM Anvandare WHERE Nickname='$user' AND Password ='$pass'"; } } if ($query != "") { $id = $connection->query($query); $id = mysqli_fetch_assoc($id); $id = $id['ID']; $_SESSION['Loggedin'] = $id; } closeconnection($connection); } Complete error: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Users/name/GitHub/website/login.php:1) in /Users/namn/GitHub/website/login.php on line 9

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  • Ajax gets nothing back from the php.

    - by ShaMun
    Jquery i dont have alert and firefox i dont have anything in return. The code was working before, database query have successfull records also. What i am missing??? Jquery ajax. $.ajax({ type : "POST", url : "include/add_edit_del.php?model=teksten_display", data : "oper=search&ids=" + _id , dataType: "json", success : function(msg){ alert(msg); } }); PHP case 'teksten_display': $id = $_REQUEST['ids']; $res = $_dclass-_query_sql( "select a,b,id,wat,c,d from tb1 where id='" . $id . "'" ); $_rows = array(); while ( $rows = mysql_fetch_array ($res) ) { $_rows = $rows; } //header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); //header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); header('Content-type: application/json'); echo utf8_encode( json_encode($_rows) ) ; //echo json_encode($_rows); //var_dump($_rows); //print_r ($res); break; Firefox response/request header Date Sat, 24 Apr 2010 22:34:55 GMT Server Apache/2.2.3 (CentOS) X-Powered-By PHP/5.1.6 Expires Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma no-cache Content-Length 0 Connection close Content-Type application/json Host www.xxxx.be User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-US; rv:1.9.1.9) Gecko/20100330 Fedora/3.5.9-2.fc12 Firefox/3.5.9 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://www.xxxx.be/xxxxx Content-Length 17 Cookie csdb=2; codb=5; csdbb=1; codca=1.4; csdca=3; PHPSESSID=benunvkpecqh3pmd8oep5b55t7; CAKEPHP=3t7hrlc89emvg1hfsc45gs2bl2

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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  • Guilty of unsound programming

    - by TelJanini
    I was reading Robert Rossney's entry on "What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?" found at: (What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?) when I realized that I had inadvertently developed a near-identical application! The app consists of an HTTPListener object that grabs incoming POST requests. Based on the information in the header, I pass the body of the request to SQL Server to perform the appropriate transaction. The requests look like: <InvoiceCreate Control="389> <Invoice> <CustomerNumber>5555</CustomerNumber> <Total>300.00</Total> <RushOrder>1</RushOrder> </Invoice> </InvoiceCreate> Once it's received by the HTTPListener object, I perform the required INSERT to the Invoice table using SQL Server's built-in XML handling functionality via a stored procedure: INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceNumber, CustomerNumber, Total, RushOrder) SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER, @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/CustomerNumber)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)') I then use another SELECT statement in the same stored procedure to return the value of the new Invoice Number that was inserted into the Invoices table: SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER FOR XML PATH 'InvoiceCreateAck' I then read the generated XML using a SQL data reader object in C# and use it as the response of the HTTPListener object. My issue is, I'm noticing that Robert is indeed correct. All of my application logic exists inside the stored procedure, so I find myself having to do a lot of error-checking (i.e. validating the customer number and invoicenumber values) inside the stored procedure. I'm still a midlevel developer, and as such, am looking to improve. Given the original post, and my current architecture, what could I have done differently to improve the application? Are there any patterns or best practices that I could refer to? What approach would you have taken? I'm open to any and all criticism, as I'd like to do my part to reduce the amount of "unsound programming" in the world.

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  • fieldWithErrors not wrapping every error field

    - by Teef L
    Notice the following result when I submit blank :title and :description fields The validations are in the controller: class Question < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description And, the form is generated with those names: -form_for(@question) do |f| = f.error_messages = f.label :title = f.text_field :title, :size => 50, :onchange => remote_function(:url => {:action => :display_tag_suggestions}, :with => 'Form.Element.serialize(this)') #suggestions = f.label :description = f.text_area :description ... But, for some reason, only :title gets wrapped in the error div tags: <form action="/questions" class="new_question" id="new_question" method="post"> <div style="margin:0;padding:0"><input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="6HQaiu1D0gBQcKw2pLeZP6Jvn0FSClPD5Sk9HwegzPg=" /></div> <div class="errorExplanation" id="errorExplanation"> <h2>2 errors prohibited this question from being saved</h2> <p>There were problems with the following fields:</p> <ul> <li>Title can't be blank</li> <li>Description can't be blank</li> </ul> </div> <label for="question_title">Title</label> <div class="fieldWithErrors"><input id="question_title" name="question[title]" onchange="new Ajax.Request('/questions/display_tag_suggestions', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.Element.serialize(this) + '&amp;authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('6HQaiu1D0gBQcKw2pLeZP6Jvn0FSClPD5Sk9HwegzPg=')})" size="50" type="text" value="" /></div> <label for="question_description">Description</label> <textarea cols="40" id="question_description" name="question[description]" rows="20"></textarea> ... I don't think that behavior is expected. The problem most people have is that it's wrapping things with divs, which won't display properly. My problem is that fields aren't being wrapped with divs to begin with! I haven't made any (conscious) changes to how errors are handled, so I'm not sure why it's not working properly.

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