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  • How to keep confirmation messages after POST while doing a post-submit redirect?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm looking for advise on how to share certain bits of data (i.e. post-submit confirmation messages) between individual requests in a web application. Let me explain: Current approach: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, user is shown a confirmation with links to: submit a new resource (for "add" form) view the submitted/edited resource view all resources (one step above in hierarchy) user then has to click on one of the three links to proceed (i.e. to the page "above") Progmatically, the form and its confirmation page are one set of classes. The page above that is another. They can technically share code, but at the moment they are both independent during processing of individual requests. We would like to amend the above as follows: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, the user is redirected to the page with all resources (one step above in hierarchy) with one or more confirmation messages displayed at the top of the page (i.e. success message, to whom was the request assigned, etc) This will: save users one click (they have to go through a lot of these add/edit forms) the post-submit redirect will address common problems with browser refresh / back-buttons What approach would you recommend for sharing data needed for the confirmation messages between the two requests, please? I'm not sure if it helps, it's a PHP application backed by a RESTful API, but I think that this is a language-agnostic question. A few simple solutions that come to mind are to share the data via cookies or in the session, this however breaks statelessness and would pose a significant problem for users who work in several tabs (the data could clash together). Passing the data as GET parameters is not suitable as we are talking about several messages which are dynamic (e.g. changing actors, dates). Thanks, M.

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  • question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

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  • Android - Looping Activity to Repeat MediaPlayer

    - by Austin Anderson
    I'm trying to create a soundboard for longer audio files and can't figure out how to stop an audio file and start it again without closing the activity. Let's say each audio file is one minute long. If I play the first audio file for 20 seconds and start the next audio file, the first stops playing and the second starts playing. However, if I click the first audio file again, the second stops playing and the first does not. I need help. This is driving me insane. bAudio1 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio1); bAudio2 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio2); mpAudio1 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio1); mpAudio2 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio2); bAudio1.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } mpAudio1.start(); } } }); bAudio2.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } mpAudio2.start(); } } }); Thanks.

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  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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  • entity framework vNext wish list

    - by Fred Yang
    I have been intensively studying and use ef4 in my project. I do feel the improvement that it has over version 1. But I found that I have something I cannot get around easily. Here is a list I want it to be better in ef vNext. the model designer should allow multiple view of the same model, so that I don't need cram all my entity into a single view. respect user's manual edit of edmx. Currently, the some database view object simply can not be imported to the model because the designer "smartly" think that the view does not have a primary key, so that I have to manually edit the edmx to correct designer's behavior. But in the next "update from database" task, designer will revert my customization. For now, I simply fallback to manually edit the edmx file at all, or I have to use compare tool to keep the new update, and rollback and put the new update into my old edmx file manually. Designer should be improved to allow default behavior and user's manual control. I want control not to let the designer refresh the change of imported object. support user defined table function. linq is about Composability, stored proc dos not support composability. I wish I could use user defined table function which support this. What are you wishes for EF vNext?

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  • How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

    - by user1521587
    I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

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  • Best practice to test a web application, regarding domain name and integration with external service

    - by ycseattle
    I have run into these problems several times and was never able to find a comfortable solution. Let's say my website has the domain name MyDomain.com. When I run the tests on the test machine (a continuous integration server), I will modify the HOSTS file on this machine so the MyDomain.com is mapped to this local machine instead of the real production server. This doesn't work very well for many situations. For example, my application will create subdomain names user1.MyDomain.com dynamically but this is difficult to keep the testing flexible. Another problem is my web application will interact with Amazon S3, and sometimes other service like Amazon Simple Message Queue. I am only comfortable to include these interaction in my tests but I am never happy with my solution for mixing testing and production on Amazon services. Could somebody offer some tips on these issues? I would like to make my testing framework clean and flexible. I am sure this is a common question for all web applications and there must be a mature way to deal with these. Thanks!

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  • What would be the best way to install (distribute) dynamic libraries in Mac OSX using CMake/Cpack ?

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I have a project whose artifacts are two dynamic libraries, let's say libX.dylib and libY.dylib (or .so for linux distributions). There are no executables. Now I would like to distribute these libraries. Since I already use CMake to compile it, I looked at CPack and successfully generated .tgz and .deb packages for Linux. However, for Mac OSX I have no idea and the CPack Wiki about its generators did not help me much. I managed to generate a PackageMaker package, but as clearly stated at this packagemaker howto, there is no uninstall option when using this util. I then read a bit about Bundles, but I feel lost specially since I have no executable. Question: What is the correct way to generate a package for Mac OSX using CPack? My ideal scenario would be either something that installs as easily as a bundle or as a deb file in debian/ubuntu. Thanks for your help Edit One more detail: the code to one of these libraries is not open, so I can't expect the users to do a cmake; make; make install That's why I want a .deb, .tar.gz, bundle or whatsoever.

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

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  • Is DB logging more secure than file logging for my PHP web app?

    - by iama
    I would like to log errors/informational and warning messages from within my web application to a log. I was initially thinking of logging all of these onto a text file. However, my PHP web app will need write access to the log files and the folder housing this log file may also need write access if log file rotation is desired which my web app currently does not have. The alternative is for me to log the messages to the MySQL database since my web app is already using the MySQL database for all its data storage needs. However, this got me thinking that going with the MySQL option is much better than the file option since I already have a configuration file with the database access information protected using file system permissions. If I now go with the log file option I need to tinker the file and folder access permissions and this will only make my application less secure and defeats the whole purpose of logging. Is this correct? I am using XAMPP for development and am a newbie to LAMP. Please let me know your recommendations for logging. Thanks.

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  • (RoR) How to: link multiple apps, multiple URLs, one database

    - by Samson
    Hello. I am currently developing a site using Ruby on Rails. I am still a beginner who just started around a month ago. I use InstantRails on Windows 7. Here's my question. Let's say app A is functional using MYSQL database A_development. The files such as views and controller are under folder 'A'. I now know how to, say for example, link www.app.com to this app by opening port 80 and changing some lines in the mySQL config. In this app, you can register your username, login, and post some messages. I now want to create some pretty identical apps say B and C. The only thing different will be the posts that shows, and the views. You can still log in with the same username, and everything is saved in the same database. I now want the URLs to look something like A.app.com leading to app A, B.app.com leading to app B, etc. Can that be achieved? How? I've been googling for a few days already and I'm still lost. As I'm new to this forum, I'm not quite sure what info do you guys need. Please list and I'll provide them asap. Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.

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  • JSP/Struts2/Hibernate: loop through a self-referencing table.

    - by TBW
    Hello everyone, Let's say we have a self-referencing table called PERSON, with the following columns: ID, PARENT, where PARENT is a foreign key to the ID column of another element in the PERSON table. Of course, many persons can have the same parent. I use Hibernate 3 in lazy fetching mode to deal with the database. Hibernate fetches a person element from the database, which is then put in the ValueStack by the Struts2 action, to be used on the result JSP page. Now the question is : In JSP, how can I do to display all the child (and the child's child, and so on, like a family tree) of this person element? Of course, for the n+1 children I can use the < s:iterator tag over the person.person. I can also nest another < s:iterator tag over person.person.person to get the n+2 children. But what if I want to do this in an automated manner, up to the last n+p child, displaying in the process all the children of all the n+1..n+p elements? I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you all for your time. -- TBW.

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  • Storing header and data sections in a CSV file

    - by morpheous
    This should be relatively easy to do, but after several hours straight programming my mind seems a bit frazzled and could do with some help. I have a C++ class which I am currently using to store read/write data to file. I was initially using binary data, but have decided to store the data as CSV in order to let programs written in other languages be able to load the data. The C++ class looks a bit like this: class BinaryData { public: BinaryData(); void serialize(std::ostream& output) const; void deserialize(std::istream& input); private: Header m_hdr; std::vector<Row> m_rows; }; I am simply rewriting the serialize/deserialize methods to write to a CSV file. I am not sure on the "best" way to store a header section and a "data" section in a "flat" CSV file though - any suggestions on the most sensible way to do this?

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  • Can this be done in 1 line?

    - by Angelo
    Can this be done in 1 line with PHP? Would be awesome if it could: $out = array("foo","bar"); echo $out[0]; Something such as: echo array("foo","bar")[0]; Unfortunately that's not possible. Would it be possible like this? So I can do this for example in 1 line: echo array(rand(1,100), rand(1000,2000))[rand(0,1)]; So let's say I have this code: switch($r){ case 1: $ext = "com"; break; case 2: $ext = "nl"; break; case 3: $ext = "co.uk"; break; case 4: $ext = "de"; break; case 5: $ext = "fr"; break; } That would be much more simplified to do it like this: $ext = array("com","nl","co.uk","de","fr")[rand(1,5)];

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  • [Adobe Air] Can I catch a mouseUp event of an mx:Window that did not fire hte mouseDown?

    - by Irene
    Hi, In an AIR application, I have one mx:TileList with several images. What I need to do is let the user drag and drop one of the images on the desktop, giving a feeling of a desktop widget. Firstly I tried to implement this using dragStart etc, but in the end I think it is easier to handle mouseDown and mouseUp on the TileList. In general the whole setup works as desired. When a mouseDown is detected on the TileList, I create a transparent mx:Window containing the corresponding image, and call the startMove() on the Window to simulate a dragging behavior. If I release the mouse, the Window stops moving as desired. My problem is that now I want some visual feedback during dragging. It works while the Window is moving, however I can't find a way to stop it when the user releases the mouse. The mouseUp is not fired from the TileList, nor from the s:WindowedApplication. I also tried to add a listener to the Window itself, but still with no luck. Some code: private function onMouseDown(e:MouseEvent):void { trace ("down " + e.target); if (e.target is TileListItemRenderer) { // first create a dragWindow dragWindow.startGlow(); // then show some visual feedback dragWindow.moveWindow(e); // and start dragging } } private function onMouseUp(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("up " + e.target); dragWindow.stopGlow(); // <--------- Not called! } <mx:TileList id="photoTileList" mouseDown="onMouseDown(event)" mouseUp="onMouseUp(event)">

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • How to enter text into the "Write something..." box on Facebook and click Submit

    - by Peter Payne
    Hello, I am trying to manipulate Facebook pages in various ways, using Javascript browser elements. I'd need to be able to insert some text into the top "Type something..." box that shows on my site's fan page (or alternately, "click into" the field and I can type the text using GUI scripting), then click the "submit" button as if i'd done it by hand. It's tricky since the page is very Ajax heavy and I can't find the names of the elements I need to manipulate, let alone how to manipulate them as they're not using traditional form fields I'm used to. Can anyone help me figure out how to do this with javascript commands, which I'd be calling from Applescript on the Mac? Many thanks in advance. UPDATE Thanks for the comments below. Believe me, I am not trying to do anything spammy or douchy, mainly posting links to products that have gone live on page facebook page, but do it during the business day when people are on rather than at strange hours of the day. I am located in Japan so my sleep period is right when people are using FB. The solution I came up with for clicking the button was got using UI Browser, an outstanding tool if you're trying to script on the Mac. The script that clicked the button for me was: tell application "Safari" activate set thename to name of (get current tab of window 1) delay 3 tell application "System Events" tell process "Safari" try click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 3 of window thename -- this one works on the mini? on error click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 2 of window thename -- did not work end try end tell end tell end tell Hope this is useful to anyone.

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  • How to add second JOIN clause in Linq To Sql?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am having a lot of trouble coming up with the Linq equivalent of this legacy stored procedure. The biggest hurdle is it doesn't seem to want to let me add a second 'clause' on the join with tblAddress. I am getting a Cannot resolve method... error. Can anyone point out what I am doing wrong? Below is, first, the SPROC I need to convert and, second, my LINQ attempt so far; which is FULL OF FAIL! Thanks SELECT dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.Priority, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName AS CoverageCategory, dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessName, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.TypeName AS TypeName, CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 IS NULL THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.CityName IS NULL THEN '' ELSE '<BR>' + dbo.tblAddress.CityName END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID IS NULL THEN '' WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID = 'ns' THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.StateID END AS Address FROM dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblInsuranceCompany ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblBusiness ON dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.BusinessID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAddress ON dbo.tblAddress.BusinessID = dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID and tblAddress.AddressTypeID = 'b' LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.InsuranceCompanyTypeID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.InsuranceTypeID WHERE tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonID = @PersonID var coverage = from insuranceCoverage in context.tblPersonInsuranceCoverages where insuranceCoverage.PersonID == personID join insuranceCompany in context.tblInsuranceCompanies on insuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID equals insuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID join address in context.tblAddresses on insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessID equals address.BusinessID where address.AddressTypeID = 'b' select new { insuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, insuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, insuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, insuranceCoverage.Priority, CoverageCategory = insuranceCompany.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName, insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessName, TypeName = insuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID, Address = };

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  • How safe and reliable are C++ String Literals?

    - by DoctorT
    So, I'm wanting to get a better grasp on how string literals in C++ work. I'm mostly concerned with situations where you're assigning the address of a string literal to a pointer, and passing it around. For example: char* advice = "Don't stick your hands in the toaster."; Now lets say I just pass this string around by copying pointers for the duration of the program. Sure, it's probably not a good idea, but I'm curious what would actually be going on behind the scenes. For another example, let's say we make a function that returns a string literal: char* foo() { // function does does stuff return "Yikes!"; // somebody's feeble attempt at an error message } Now lets say this function is called very often, and the string literal is only used about half the time it's called: // situation #1: it's just randomly called without heed to the return value foo(); // situation #2: the returned string is kept and used for who knows how long char* retVal = foo(); In the first situation, what's actually happening? Is the string just created but not used, and never deallocated? In the second situation, is the string going to be maintained as long as the user finds need for it? What happens when it isn't needed anymore... will that memory be freed up then (assuming nothing points to that space anymore)? Don't get me wrong, I'm not planning on using string literals like this. I'm planning on using a container to keep my strings in check (probably std::string). I'm mostly just wanting to know if these situations could cause problems either for memory management or corrupted data.

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  • Python: Created nested dictionary from list of paths

    - by sberry2A
    I have a list of tuples the looks similar to this (simplified here, there are over 14,000 of these tuples with more complicated paths than Obj.part) [ (Obj1.part1, {<SPEC>}), (Obj1.partN, {<SPEC>}), (ObjK.partN, {<SPEC>}) ] Where Obj goes from 1 - 1000, part from 0 - 2000. These "keys" all have a dictionary of specs associated with them which act as a lookup reference for inspecting another binary file. The specs dict contains information such as the bit offset, bit size, and C type of the data pointed to by the path ObjK.partN. For example: Obj4.part500 might have this spec, {'size':32, 'offset':128, 'type':'int'} which would let me know that to access Obj4.part500 in the binary file I must unpack 32 bits from offset 128. So, now I want to take my list of strings and create a nested dictionary which in the simplified case will look like this data = { 'Obj1' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} }, 'ObjK' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} } } To do this I am currently doing two things, 1. I am using a dotdict class to be able to use dot notation for dictionary get / set. That class looks like this: class dotdict(dict): def __getattr__(self, attr): return self.get(attr, None) __setattr__ = dict.__setitem__ __delattr__ = dict.__delitem__ The method for creating the nested "dotdict"s looks like this: def addPath(self, spec, parts, base): if len(parts) > 1: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], dotdict()) self.addPath(spec, parts[1:], item) else: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], spec) return base Then I just do something like: for path, spec in paths: self.lookup = dotdict() self.addPath(spec, path.split("."), self.lookup) So, in the end self.lookup.Obj4.part500 points to the spec. Is there a better (more pythonic) way to do this?

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  • Two Applications using the same index file with Hibernate Search

    - by Dominik Obermaier
    Hi, I want to know if it is possible to use the same index file for an entity in two applications. Let me be more specific: We have an online Application with a frondend for the users and an application for the backend tasks (= administrator interface). Both are running on the same JBOSS AS. Both Applications are using the same database, so they are using the same entities. Of course the package names are not the same in both applications for the entities. So this is our usecase: A user should be able to search via the frondend. The user is only allowed to see results which are tagged with "visible". This tagging happens in our admin interface, so the index for the frontend should be updated every time an entity is tagged as "visible" in the backend. Of course both applications do have the same index root folder. In my index folder there are 2 index files: de.x.x.admin.model.Product de.x.x.frondend.model.Product How to "merge" this via Hibernate Search Configuration? I just did not get it via the documentation... Thanks for any help!

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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

    - by Ryan_Pitts
    I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

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  • What Getters and Setters should and shouldn't do.

    - by cyclotis04
    I've run into a lot of differing opinions on Getters and Setters lately, so I figured I should make it into it's own question. A previous question of mine received an immediate comment (later deleted) that stated setters shouldn't have any side effects, and a SetProperty method would be a better choice. Indeed, this seems to be Microsoft's opinion as well. However, their properties often raise events, such as Resized when a form's Width or Height property is set. OwenP also states "you shouldn't let a property throw exceptions, properties shouldn't have side effects, order shouldn't matter, and properties should return relatively quickly." Yet Michael Stum states that exceptions should be thrown while validating data within a setter. If your setter doesn't throw an exception, how could you effectively validate data, as so many of the answers to this question suggest? What about when you need to raise an event, like nearly all of Microsoft's Control's do? Aren't you then at the mercy of whomever subscribed to your event? If their handler performs a massive amount of information, or throws an error itself, what happens to your setter? Finally, what about lazy loading within the getter? This too could violate the previous guidelines. What is acceptable to place in a getter or setter, and what should be kept in only accessor methods?

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