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  • Change Vimeo Video using JQuery

    - by Abs
    Hello all, How can I change the ID of the embedded vimeo video? Here is the embed code for example: <object width="578" height="325"> <param name="allowfullscreen" value="true" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp;color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" /> <embed src="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp; color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" allowscriptaccess="always" width="578" height="325"></embed></object> How can I change the clip_id in both the object value and the embed source using JQuery or just pure javascript? The effect this has is that it changes the video. I have tested this on Firefox, if this won't work on all browsers please let me know! Thanks all for any help

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  • LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

    - by Saurabh Kumar
    I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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  • Can this be done in 1 line?

    - by Angelo
    Can this be done in 1 line with PHP? Would be awesome if it could: $out = array("foo","bar"); echo $out[0]; Something such as: echo array("foo","bar")[0]; Unfortunately that's not possible. Would it be possible like this? So I can do this for example in 1 line: echo array(rand(1,100), rand(1000,2000))[rand(0,1)]; So let's say I have this code: switch($r){ case 1: $ext = "com"; break; case 2: $ext = "nl"; break; case 3: $ext = "co.uk"; break; case 4: $ext = "de"; break; case 5: $ext = "fr"; break; } That would be much more simplified to do it like this: $ext = array("com","nl","co.uk","de","fr")[rand(1,5)];

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  • Using capistrano to deploy from different git branches

    - by Toms Mikoss
    I am using capistrano to deploy a RoR application. The codebase is in a git repository, and branching is widely used in development. Capistrano uses deploy.rb file for it's settings, one of them being the branch to deploy from. My problem is this: let's say I create a new branch A from master. The deploy file will reference master branch. I edit that, so A can be deployed to test environment. I finish working on the feature, and merge branch A into master. Since the deploy.rb file from A is fresher, it gets merged in and now the deploy.rb in master branch references A. Time to edit again. That's a lot of seemingly unnecessary manual editing - the parameter should always match current branch name. On top of that, it is easy to forget to edit the settings each and every time. What would be the best way to automate this process? Edit: Turns out someone already had done exactly what I needed.

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Cassandra Batch_insert example in C#.net

    - by Sandeep
    Can any one please give me an example on how to work on Cassandra batch_insert in C# thrift client? If possible please let me know where am I going wrong in the following code. Dictionary dictionary = new Dictionary(); Dictionary subColumns = new Dictionary(); List listOfMutations = new List(); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("AA"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Answer Automation"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("CT"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Call Tracker"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add( new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("TL"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Track That Lead"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); SuperColumn superColumn = new SuperColumn() { Name=utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Indatus") }; subColumns.Add("Super1", listOfMutations); dictionary.Add("Indatus", subColumns); client.batch_mutate("Keyspace1",dictionary, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); I understand that SuperColumn struct expects List but I does not have a list of Columns. Rather I have List. Thanks in Advance.

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • Can I change the binding source to another source in XAML?

    - by No hay Problema
    Hi guys, I want to do a very simple thing, can you point me on the right direction? I want to change the source in XAML to another object source, let me put you an example: I have a Listview, bound to a "Model A", it has many properties, but one is called "Total". This property is not shown on the View Each ListviewItem has its own source (ItemsSource), BUT, one of the fields should show "Total" from "Model A" Caveat: I am implementing MVVM, so the "Model A" is assigned as a VM DataSource, XAML knows nothing about it. So, in my perfect world the XAML should look like this: <GridViewColumn Header="Total" Width="150"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Label Content="{Binding Source=<The source of LISTVIEW> Path=Total}"/> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> I have tried RelativeSource but that points me to the XAML object, I want the source of it, is it possible? Thanks

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  • How can I recurse up a DOM tree?

    - by smartdirt
    So I have a series of nested ul elements as part of a tree like below: <ul> <li> <ul> <li>1.1</li> <li>1.2</li> </ul> <ul> <li>2.1</li> <li> <ul> <li>2.2</li> </ul> </li> </ul> <ul> <li>3.1</li> <li>3.2</li> </ul> </li> </ul> Let's say when 3.1 is the selected node and when the user clicks previous the selected node should then be 2.2. The bad news is that there could be any number of levels deep. How can I find the previous node (li) in relationship to the currently selected node using jquery?

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  • Maven3 Issues with building a multi-module enterprise project

    - by Sujit K
    I just migrated from Maven2 to Maven3 and I'm able to build each module individually or all the modules in one shot by calling mvn clean install. However, in Maven2, since we have multi-module enterprise project, we build multiple ear's and each ear is built as its own module with its own child pom. To build an individual ear with its dependents, the below command works fine in Maven2 but not in Maven3. Let me explain the issue in Maven3 a bit later. mvn -pl ear_module -rf first_dependent_module -am clean install In Maven2 when the reactor lists the build order, I see first_dependent_module second_dependent_module ear_module End of the day I have my ear module also part of the reactor which is how it should be. The reason we call -rf is we don't want to delete the target folder at the main ${project.basedir} (so not to delete the output created in target from building the other ear modules). With Maven3, however, this is all I see when the reactor lists the build order: first_dependent_module second_dependent_module Maven3 totally ignores the argument (ear_module) set to -pl flag to be also built after its dependents have been. Not sure what I'm missing here. Any help/tips would be greatly appreciated. P.S: The build I'm making is similar to the one below.... Build specific module in multi-module project Thanks, SK

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  • How to remove the upper right close button

    - by tahdhaze09
    I need to kill the close 'x' button at the top of a jQuery UI modal dialog box. I have a modal that opens with an OK button that redirects to the site. The site behind the modal is in an iframe. When the user agrees to the statement in the dialog box and clicks the 'OK' button, it redirects to the site that is outside the iframe. If the user clicks on the 'x', it goes to the iframe site, which I do not want to have happen. I need the modal to work as a one-way to the site it goes to. It basically forces the user to accept the user agreement. I would post code, but its an intranet site. Thanks everyone for your help! EDIT: This site is a government intranet portal, not a commercial site. So the goal is NOT to trap a user into the site, but rather to let the user know that the use of this site is restricted and to make sure you understand and accept the user agreement or you cannot use the site.

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Do ORMs normally allow circular relations? If so, how would they handle it?

    - by SeanJA
    I was hacking around trying to make a basic orm that has support for the one => one and one => many relationships. I think I succeeded somewhat, but I am curious about how to handle circular relationships. Say you had something like this: user::hasOne('car'); car::hasMany('wheels'); car::property('type'); wheel::hasOne('car'); You could then do this (theoretically): $u = new user(); echo $u->car->wheels[0]->car->wheels[1]->car->wheels[2]->car->wheels[3]->type; #=> "monster truck" Now, I am not sure why you would want to do this. It seems like it wastes a whole pile of memory and time just to get to something that could have been done in a much shorter way. In my small ORM, I now have 4 copies of the wheel class, and 4 copies of the car class in memory, which causes a problem if I update one of them and save it back to the database, the rest get out of date, and could overwrite the changes that were already made. How do other ORMs handle circular references? Do they even allow it? Do they go back up the tree and create a pointer to one of the parents? DO they let the coder shoot themselves in the foot if they are silly enough to go around in circles?

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  • Swing JTable Scrolling not working properly

    - by Marko
    I'm doing an application, which uses Swing JTable. I used drag and drop in NetBeans, to add the JTable. When I add the JTable, JScrollPane is added automaticly. All the look is done with drag and drop. By pressing the first button, I set the number of rows in the table. This is the code to set my DataModel int size = 50; String[] colNames = {"Indeks", "Ime", "Priimek", "Drzava"}; DefaultTableModel model = new DefaultTableModel(size, colNames.length); model.setColumnIdentifiers(colNames); table.setModel(model); So if the size is, let's say 10, it works OK, since there is no scroll bar. When I add 50 empty rows, when trying to scroll for 5 seconds, it doesn't work properly and crashes in some time. I added the picture, for better understanding (this is what happens to the rows when I scroll up and down for a while). What could be wrong? Am I not using the DataModel as it is supposed to be used, should I .revalidate() or .repaint() the JTable?

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  • (RoR) How to: link multiple apps, multiple URLs, one database

    - by Samson
    Hello. I am currently developing a site using Ruby on Rails. I am still a beginner who just started around a month ago. I use InstantRails on Windows 7. Here's my question. Let's say app A is functional using MYSQL database A_development. The files such as views and controller are under folder 'A'. I now know how to, say for example, link www.app.com to this app by opening port 80 and changing some lines in the mySQL config. In this app, you can register your username, login, and post some messages. I now want to create some pretty identical apps say B and C. The only thing different will be the posts that shows, and the views. You can still log in with the same username, and everything is saved in the same database. I now want the URLs to look something like A.app.com leading to app A, B.app.com leading to app B, etc. Can that be achieved? How? I've been googling for a few days already and I'm still lost. As I'm new to this forum, I'm not quite sure what info do you guys need. Please list and I'll provide them asap. Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

    - by B Rivera
    Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

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  • What is the minimal licensable source code?

    - by Hernán Eche
    Let's suppose I want to "protect" this code about being used without attribution, patenting it, or through any open source licence... #include<stdio.h> int main (void) { int version=2; printf("\r\n.Hello world, ver:(%d).", version); return 0; } It's a little obvious or just a language definition example.. When a source stop being "trivial, banal, commonplace, obvious", and start to be something that you may claim "rights"? Perhaps it depends on who read it, something that could be great geniality for someone that have never programmed, could be just obvious for an expert. It's easy when watching two sources there are 10000 same lines of code, that's a theft.. but that's not always so obvious. How to measure amount of "ownness", it's about creativity? line numbers? complexity? I can't imagine objetive answers for that, only some patches. For example perhaps the complexity, It's not fair to replace "years of engeneering" with "copy and paste". But is there any objetive index for objetive determination of this subject? (In a funny way I imagine this criterion: If the licence is longer than the code, then there is no owner, just to punish not caring storage space and world resources =P)

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  • Low Level Console Input

    - by Soulseekah
    I'm trying to send commands to to the input of a cmd.exe application using the low level read/write console functions. I have no trouble reading the text (scraping) using the ReadConsole...() and WriteConsole() functions after having attached to the process console, but I've not figured out how to write for example "dir" and have the console interpret it as a sent command. Here's a bit of my code: CreateProcess(NULL, "cmd.exe", NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); AttachConsole(pi.dwProcessId); strcpy(buffer, "dir"); WriteConsole(GetStdHandle(STD_INPUT_HANDLE), buffer, strlen(buffer), &charRead, NULL); STARTUPINFO attributes of the process are all set to zero, except, of course, the .cb attribute. Nothing changes on the screen, however I'm getting an Error 6: Invalid Handle returned from WriteConsole to STD_INPUT_HANDLE. If I write to (STD_OUTPUT_HANDLE) I do get my dir written on the screen, but nothing of course happens. I'm guessing SetConsoleMode() might be of help, but I've tried many mode combinations, nothing helped. I've also created a quick console application that waits for input (scanf()) and echoes back whatever goes in, didn't work. I've also tried typing into the scanf() promp and then peek into the input buffer using PeekConsoleInput(), returns 0, but the INPUT_RECORD array is empty. I'm aware that there is another way around this using WriteConsoleInput() to directly inject INPUT_RECORD structured events into the console, but this would be way too long, I'll have to send each keypress into it. I hope the question is clear. Please let me know if you need any further information. Thanks for your help.

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  • What's the best way to transfer a large dataset over a .NET web service?

    - by Malvineous
    I've inherited a C# .NET application which talks to a web service, and the web service talks to an Oracle database. I need to add an export function to the UI, to produce an Excel spreadsheet of some of the data. I have created a web service function to run a database query, load the data into a DataTable and then return it, which works fine for a small number of rows. However there is enough data in the full run that the client application locks up for a few minutes and then returns a timeout error. Obviously this isn't the best way to retrieve such a large dataset. Before I go ahead and come up with some dodgy way of splitting the call, I'm wondering if there is already something in place that can handle this. At the moment I'm thinking of a startExport function then repeatedly calling a next50Rows function until there is no data left, but because web services are stateless this means I'm going to have to keep some sort of ID number around and deal with the associated permissions. It would mean that I don't have to load the entire data set into the web server's memory though, which is one good thing. So if anyone knows a better way to retrieve a large amount of data (in a table format) over a .NET web service, please let me know!

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  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

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  • C#, Can I check on a lock without trying to acquire it?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Hello, I have a lock in my c# web app that prevents users from running the update script once it has started. I was thinking I would put a notification in my master page to let the user know that the data isn't all there yet. Currently I do my locking like so. protected void butRefreshData_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(UpdateDatabase)); t.Start(this); //sleep for a bit to ensure that javascript has a chance to get rendered Thread.Sleep(100); } public static void UpdateDatabase(object con) { if (Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) { Updater.RepopulateDatabase(); Monitor.Exit(myLock); } else { Common.RegisterStartupScript(con, AlreadyLockedJavaScript); } } And I do not want to do if(Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) Monitor.Exit(myLock); else //show processing labal As I imagine there is a slight possibility that it might display the notification when it isn't actually running. Is there an alternative I can use? Edit: Hi Everyone, thanks a lot for your suggestions! Unfortunately I couldn't quite get them to work... However I combined the ideas on 2 answers and came up with my own solution.

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  • Is it possible to split HTML using DOMDocument?

    - by Lynn Adrianna
    Using DOMDocument, is it possible to split a block of HTML by text wrapped in tags and those that are not, while maintaining the order? Sorry, if this doesn't make sense. My example should make it clear. Let's say I have the following block of HTML: text1<b style="color:pink">text2</b>text3<b>text4</b> <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> Is it possible create an array as such: array( [0] => text1 [1] => <b style="color:pink">text2</b> [2] => text3 [3] => <b>text4</b> [4] => [5] => <b style="font-weight:bold">text5</b> ) Below is my current working solution, which uses a regular expression, to split the HTML. $tokens = preg_split('/(<b\b[^>]*>.*?<\/b>)/i', $html, null, PREG_SPLIT_DELIM_CAPTURE); However, I always read that it is a bad idea to parse HTML using regular expressions, so was just wondering if there is a better way.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • [OT a bit] Flex+JEE what is it good for?

    - by Zenzen
    Ok so sorry for being, I guess, a bit off topic but still I think this is the best place to ask. My new semester just started (don't worry I won't ask you to do my homework) and this time we have a rather cool subject about www programming in general where we have to do a web service, web abb - whatever as long as it's "web". Here's the problem though, my team and I want to do it with Flex and JEE but we don't have much experience about what are they actually used for. I mean we know you can do virtually anything with it, but we don't really want to lose time on doing something useless. My first idea was to do a "brainstorming" 3D room/service - a place where people could log in have a video conference, a whiteboard, a place to upload pictures everyone could see, some toolbars for google, youtube etc. plus some other features which would make real-time brainstorming easy when you can't get everyone in one place. But is Flex+JEE really suitable? I mean I'm 99% sure it's doable but is it really worth doing it in Flex+JEE or was the whole purpose of JEE completely different? @EDIT: well this was only one of our ideas obviously. I do know the basics of JSP, Servlets, JPA etc. of course but yeah the main goal of this project is to get some actual experience. The problem is we don't really know is it worth doing something like let's say a social network (something like extended facebook) for gamers (doesn't really matter if it already exists) in JEE or would it only look ridiculous (because PHP or whatever would be a far better choice)? Bottom line is that we are wondering are only large scale applications (for banks etc.) written in JEE or is it good for anything (even the smaller projects)?

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