Search Results

Search found 19157 results on 767 pages for 'shared folder'.

Page 596/767 | < Previous Page | 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603  | Next Page >

• Is there a reason why SSIS significantly slows down after a few minutes?

  - by Mark

  I'm running a fairly substantial SSIS package against SQL 2008 - and I'm getting the same results both in my dev environment (Win7-x64 + SQL-x64-Developer) and the production environment (Server 2008 x64 + SQL Std x64). The symptom is that initial data loading screams at between 50K - 500K records per second, but after a few minutes the speed drops off dramatically and eventually crawls embarrasingly slowly. The database is in Simple recovery model, the target tables are empty, and all of the prerequisites for minimally logged bulk inserts are being met. The data flow is a simple load from a RAW input file to a schema-matched table (i.e. no complex transforms of data, no sorting, no lookups, no SCDs, etc.) The problem has the following qualities and resiliences: Problem persists no matter what the target table is. RAM usage is lowish (45%) - there's plenty of spare RAM available for SSIS buffers or SQL Server to use. Perfmon shows buffers are not spooling, disk response times are normal, disk availability is high. CPU usage is low (hovers around 25% shared between sqlserver.exe and DtsDebugHost.exe) Disk activity primarily on TempDB.mdf, but I/O is very low (< 600 Kb/s) OLE DB destination and SQL Server Destination both exhibit this problem. To sum it up, I expect either disk, CPU or RAM to be exhausted before the package slows down, but instead its as if the SSIS package is taking an afternoon nap. SQL server remains responsive to other queries, and I can't find any performance counters or logged events that betray the cause of the problem. I'll gratefully reward any reasonable answers / suggestions.

  Read the article

• What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

  - by Rafael Szuminski

  Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

  Read the article

• Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

  - by Alexandros Gezerlis

  Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• PHP - file uploads and ways to prevent viruses from being uploaded in zip/rar archives

  - by Joe

  I am trying to provide a service on my website to allow users to upload files so others can download them. The issue is, since some of these files I will allow to upload will be .zip/.rar files, I am curious as to what ideas exist to help prevent the uploading of archives with Viruses/trojans etc. included. Some .zip files will include legitimate .exe files,though I am not sure what options I have. I thought about it and I don't have a method for verifying with a virus scanner on the server, since I am on shared hosting w/o the option to run a service like that... nor do I have the knowledge on how to do that. I am also aware there is no php class or database to scan the files for viruses. This means, my only options are to rely on: a). manual approval <-- not an acceptable option for me as it might become a busy site with thousands of uploads b). get the users to somehow point out it if has viruses through voting or "flagging", etc.... anyway, regarding "b" - what ideas would you suggest?

  Read the article

• Rails : can't write unknown attribute `url'

  - by user2954789

  I am new to ruby on rails,and I am learning by creating a blog. I am not able to save to my blogs table and I get this error "can't write unknown attribute url" Blogs migration :db/migrate/ class CreateBlogs < ActiveRecord::Migration --def change --- create_table :blogs do |t| ---- t.string :title ---- t.text :description ---- t.string :slug ---- t.timestamps --- end --end end Blogs Model :/app/models/blogs.rb class Blogs < ActiveRecord::Base --acts_as_url :title --def to_param ---url --end --validates :title, presence:true end Blogs Controller : /app/controllers/blogs_controller.rb class BlogsController < ApplicationController before_action :require_login --def new --- @blogs = Blogs.new --end --def show ---@blogs = Blogs.find(params[:id]) --end --def create ---@blogs = Blogs.new(blogs_params) --if @blogs.save ---flash[:success] = "Your Blog has been created." ---redirect_to home_path --else ---render 'new' --end -end --def blogs_params ---params.require(:blogs).permit(:title,:description) --end private --def require_login ---unless signed_in? ----flash[:error] = "You must be logged in to create a new Blog" ----redirect_to signin_path ---end --end end Blogs Form:/app/views/blogs/new.html.erb Blockquote <%= form_for @blogs, url: blogs_path do |f| %><br/> <%= render 'shared/error_messages_blogs' %><br/> <%= f.label :title %><br/> <%= f.text_field :title %><br/> <%= f.label :description %><br/> <%= f.text_area :description %><br/> <%= f.submit "Submit Blog", class: "btn btn-large btn-primary" %><br/> <% end %><br/> and I have also added "resources :blogs" to my routes.rb file. I get this error in controller at if @blogs.save

  Read the article

• Sharing NSMutableArray

  - by Lucas Veiga

  Hey everbody, im trying to share a NSMutableArray to another xib. The cartList.codigo is a NSMutableArray from a shared class, according to James Brannan's tutorial (http://www.vimeo.com/12164589). When i count it, it gives me 1. But when i load the another view, gives me 0. Whats wrong? View that adds: self.produtoCodigo = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; [self.produtoCodigo addObject:@"aa"]; CartViewController *carrinho = [[CartViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"CartViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; CartList *lista = [[CartList alloc] init]; carrinho.cartList = lista; carrinho.cartList.codigo = self.produtoCodigo; NSLog(@"QTD %i", [carrinho.cartList.codigo count]); View that wants to load the item added: - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.produtoCodigo = self.cartList.codigo; NSLog(@"%i", [self.produtoCodigo count]); [super viewDidLoad]; } Im loading the CartList class in both. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Tips for submitting a library to Boost?

  - by AraK

  Hi everyone, Summer is coming, and a group of friends and I are getting ready for it :) We decided to build a compile-time Arbitrary precision Unsigned Integers. We would like to provide a set of integers algorithms(functions) with the library. We have seen a number of requests for such a library(SoC2010, C++0x Standard Library wishlist). Also, a regular run-time bigint is requested usually with that, but we don't want to go into the hassle of memory management. The idea came to me from a library called TTMath, unfortunately this library works only on specific platforms because Assembly was used extensively in the library. We would like to write a standard library, depending on the C++ standard library and Boost. Also, we would like to use the available C++0x facilities in current compilers like user-defined literals and others. This would technically make the library non-standard for a while, but we think that it is a matter of time the new standards will be official. Your hints on the whole process including design, implementation, documentation, maintainable of the library are more than welcom. We are a group of students and fresh graduates who are looking for something interesting in the summer, but we see that Boost is full of gurus and we don't want to forget something too obvious. We are communicating on-line, so there is no shared white-boards :( Thanks,

  Read the article

• Scalability 101: How can I design a scalable web application using PHP?

  - by Legend

  I am building a web-application and have a couple of quick questions. From what I learnt, one should not worry about scalability when initially building the app and should only start worrying when the traffic increases. However, this being my first web-application, I am not quite sure if I should take an approach where I design things in an ad-hoc manner and later "fix" them. I have been reading stories about how people start off with an app that gets millions of users in a week or two. Not that I will face the same situation but I can't help but wonder, how do these people do it? Currently, I bought a shared hosting account on Lunarpages and that got me started in building and testing the application. However, I am interested in learning how to build the same application in a scalable-manner using the cloud, for instance, Amazon's EC2. From my understanding, I can see a couple of components: There is a load balancer that first receives requests and then decides where to route each request This request is then handled by a server replica that then processes the request and updates (if required) the database and sends back the response to the client If a similar request comes in, then a caching mechanism like memcached kicks into picture and returns objects from the cache A blackbox that handles database replication Specifically, I am trying to do the following: Setting up a load balancer (my homework revealed that HAProxy is one such load balancer) Setting up replication so that databases can be synchronized Using memcached Configuring Apache to work with multiple web servers Partitioning application to use Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 (my application is something that will need great deal of storage) Finally, how can I avoid burning myself when using Amazon services? Because this is just a learning phase, I can probably do with 2-3 servers with a simple load balancer and replication but until I want to avoid paying loads of money accidentally. I am able to find resources on individual topics but am unable to find something that starts off from the big picture. Can someone please help me get started?

  Read the article

• There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

  - by Shekhar_Pro

  I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

  Read the article

• How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

  - by user247245

  Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

  Read the article

• How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

  - by Chip D

  Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

  Read the article

• WordPress issues with htaccess causing 500 server error

  - by Scott B

  I have a few customers of my custom wordpress theme that are reporting that their sites have went down over the past few weeks due to a 500 internal server error. In each case, it appears that the htaccess file has been to blame. In one case, the user's hosting company found a "_pvt/service.pwd" line in there that was apparently causing the problem. In another instance, the hosting company indicated that a chron job appeared to be causing the issue and sent the user the following as evidence... root@cherry [/home/login/public_html]# stat .htaccess File: `.htaccess.orig' Size: 587 Blocks: 8 IO Block: 4096 regular file Device: 811h/2065d Inode: 590021607 Links: 1 Access: (0644/-rw-r--r--) Uid: ( 2234/login) Gid: ( 2231/login) Access: 2010-03-07 16:42:01.000000000 -0600 Modify: 2010-03-26 09:15:15.000000000 -0500 Change: 2010-03-26 09:45:05.000000000 -0500 In yet another instance, the user reported this as the cause... The permissions on my .index file somehow got changed to 777 instead of 644 I'm just seeking to help these users understand what's going on, the likely cause and how to prevent it. I also want to eliminate my theme as a potential contributing factor. I have two areas in which I want to submit here to make sure that they are not likely to cause such an issue. They are my permalink rewrite code as well as my upgrade script (which sets 755 on the destination folder (my theme folder). Here's the permalink rewrite code... if (file_exists(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php')) { require_once(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php'); if(get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks') !=="/%postname%/") { $mycustomtheme_permalinks = get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure($mycustomtheme_permalinks); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } if(!get_cat_ID('topMenu')){wp_create_category('topMenu');} if(!get_cat_ID('hidden')){wp_create_category('hidden');} if(!get_cat_ID('noads')){wp_create_category('noads');} } if (!is_dir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads')) { mkdir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads'); } And here is the relevant lines from my uploader script... // permission settings for newly created folders $chmod = 0755; // Ensures that the correct file was chosen $accepted_types = array('application/zip', 'application/x-zip-compressed', 'multipart/x-zip', 'application/s-compressed'); foreach($accepted_types as $mime_type) { if($mime_type == $type) { $okay = true; break; } } //Safari and Chrome don't register zip mime types. Something better could be used here. $okay = strtolower($name[1]) == 'zip' ? true: false; if(!$okay) { die("This upgrader requires a zip file. Please make sure your file is a valid zip file with a .zip extension"); } //mkdir($target); $saved_file_location = $target . $filename; if(move_uploaded_file($source, $saved_file_location)) { openZip($saved_file_location); } else { die("There was a problem. Sorry!"); }

  Read the article

• How do I post a link to the feed of a page via the Facebook Graph API *as* the page?

  - by jsdalton

  I'm working on a plugin for a Wordpress blog that posts a link to every article published to a Facebook Page associated with the blog. I'm using the Graph API and I have authenticated myself, for the time being, via OAuth. I can successfully post a message to the page using curl via a POST request to https://graph.facebook.com/mypageid/feed with e.g. message = "This is a test" and it published the message. The problem is that the message is "from" my user account. I'm an admin on this test page, and when I go to Facebook and post an update from the web, the link comes "from" my page. That's how I'd like this to be set up, because it looks silly if all the shared links are coming from a user account. Is there a way to authenticate myself as a page? Or is there an alternate way to POST to a page feed that doesn't end up being interpreted as a comment from a user? Thanks for any thoughts or suggestions.

  Read the article

• XML Doc to JSP to TIFF

  - by SPD

  We have around 100 word templates, every time user gets a business request he goes into shared folder select the template he/she wants and enter information and save it as tiff, these tiffs later processed by some batch program. I am trying to automate this process. So I defined an XML which has Template information like <Template id="1"> <Section id="1"> <fieldName id="1">Date</fieldName> <fieldValue></fieldValue> <fieldtype></fieldType> <fieldProperty>textField</fieldProperty> </Section> <Section id="2"> <fieldName id="2">Claim#</fieldName> <fieldValue></fieldValue> <fieldtype></fieldType> <fieldProperty>textField</fieldProperty> </Section> </Template> Based on the template values I generate the JSP on fly. Now I would like to generate a TIFF file out of it in specified format. I am not sure how to handle this requirement. *edited the original question.

  Read the article

• Best practices for creating a logger library using log4net. Is

  - by VolleyBall Player

  My goal is to create a log4net library that can be shared across multiple projects. In my solution which is in .net 4.0, I created a class library called Logger and referenced it from web project. Now I created a logger.config in the class library and put all the configuration in the logger.config file. I then used [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true, ConfigFile = "Logger.config")] When I run the web app nothing is getting logged. So I added this line of code in web.config <add key="log4net.Internal.Debug" value="true"/> which gave me debugging info and error information Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the and elements. The configuration section should look like: I moved the configuration from logger.config to web.config and everything seems to work fine. I don't want the log4net configuration in web.config but have it logger.config as a cleaner approach. The goal is to make other projects use this library and not have to worry about configuration in every project. Now the question is, How do I do this? What am I doing wrong? Any suggestion with code example will be beneficial to everyone. FYI, I am using structure map IOC to reslove the logger before logging to it.

  Read the article

• File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

  - by Nikkelmann

  These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

  Read the article

• Thread mutex behaviour

  - by Alberteddu

  Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

  Read the article

• C Programming. How to deep copy a struct?

  - by user69514

  I have the following two structs where "child struct" has a "rusage struct" as an element. Then I create two structs of type "child" let's call them childA and childB How do I copy just the rusage struct from childA to childB? typedef struct{ int numb; char *name; pid_t pid; long userT; long systemT; struct rusage usage; }child; typedef struct{ struct timeval ru_utime; /* user time used */ struct timeval ru_stime; /* system time used */ long ru_maxrss; /* maximum resident set size */ long ru_ixrss; /* integral shared memory size */ long ru_idrss; /* integral unshared data size */ long ru_isrss; /* integral unshared stack size */ long ru_minflt; /* page reclaims */ long ru_majflt; /* page faults */ long ru_nswap; /* swaps */ long ru_inblock; /* block input operations */ long ru_oublock; /* block output operations */ long ru_msgsnd; /* messages sent */ long ru_msgrcv; /* messages received */ long ru_nsignals; /* signals received */ long ru_nvcsw; /* voluntary context switches */ long ru_nivcsw; /* involuntary context switches */ }rusage; I did the following, but I guess it copies the memory location, because if I changed the value of usage in childA, it also changes in childB. memcpy(&childA,&childB, sizeof(rusage)); I know that gives childB all the values from childA. I have already taken care of the others fields in childB, I just need to be able to copy the rusage struct called usage that resides in the "child" struct.

  Read the article

• JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

  - by Omar

  Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

  Read the article

• Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

  - by Drew

  I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

  Read the article

• Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

  - by user555937

  Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

  Read the article

• How do I prevent a branch from being pushed to another branch in BZR?

  - by cabbey

  We use a dev-test-prod branching scheme with bzr 2. I'd like to setup a bzr hook on the prod branch that will reject a push from the test branch. Looking at the bzr docs, this looks doable, but I'm kinda surprised that my searches don't turn up any one having done it, at least not via any of the keywords I've thought to search by. I'm hoping someone has already gotten this working and can share their path to success. My current thought is to use the pre_change_branch_tip hook to check for the presence of a file on the test branch. If it's present, fail the commit. You may ask, why test for a file, why not just test the branch name? Because I actually need to handle the case where our developers have branched their devel branch, pulled in the shared test branch and are now (erroneously) pushing that test branch to production instead of pushing their feature branch to production. And it seems a billion times easier to look for a file in the new branch than to try to interrogate the sending branch's lineage. So has someone done this? seen it done? or do I get to venture out into the uncharted wasteland that is hook development with bzr? :)

  Read the article

• Is it bad practise to initialise fields outside of an explicit constructor

  - by MrTortoise

  So its monday and we are arguing about coding practises. The examples here are a litttle too simple, but the real deal has several constructors. In order to initialise the simple values (eg dates to their min value) I have moved the code out of the constructors and into the field definitions. public class ConstructorExample { string _string = "John"; } public class ConstructorExample2 { string _string; public ConstructorExample2() { _string = "John"; } } How should it be done by the book. I tend to be very case by case and so am maybe a little lax abotu this kind of thing. However i feel that accams razor tells me to move the initialisation out of multiple constructors. Of course I could always move this shared initialisation into a private method. The question is essentially ... is initialising fields where they are defined as opposed to the constructor bad in any way? The argument I am facing is one of error handling, but i do not feel it is relevant as there are no possible exceptions that won't be picked up at compile time.

  Read the article

• Concrete examples of state sharing between multiple viewmodels (WPF MVVM)

  - by JohnMetta

  I have a WPF/Entity Framework (4.0) project with many objects. I'd like to build the application so that that I can have object selection state shared across viewmodels. For Example: We have Cars, Drivers, Passengers, and Cargo classes. We also have UserControls for CarList, DriverList, etc. and editor windows for CarEditor, DriverEditor, etc. Furthermore, we have viewmodels for all of these (CarListViewModel, DriverListViewModel, CargoEditorViewModel, etc). This all composes a dockable interface where the user can have multiple object lists, editors, and viewers open. What I want is a concrete code example of how to wireup multiple viewmodels so that selecting a car in the CarList will cause that car to go live in the CarEditorView, but also be selected in any other view for which the context is valid (such as a DriverByCarView- or just DriverList if there is a filter predicate). There are a number of suggestions and discussions based on this question. The two methods that seem to dominate are: 3018307: Discusses state sharing by mentioning a messaging subsystem 1159035: Discusses state sharing by using an enclosing viewmodel Is one of these approaches better than the other? Does anyone have a concrete example of either/both of these methods in the form of a write-up or small code project? I'm still learning WPF, so pointers to entry points for reading API fundamentals are appreciated, but looking at code examples is where I usually go. Thanks In case anyone is interested, here are some other similar discussions: 3816961: Discusses returning multiple viewmodels depending on object type (i.e. a collection of arbitrary types adhering to a specific interface) 1928130: Discusses whether it is a good idea to aggregate viewmodels as properties of other viewmodels (e.g. a MainWindow viewmodel composed of panel viewmodels) 1120061: Essentially discusses whether to have use a viewmodel-per-model strategy or a viewmodel-per-view-element strategy. 4244222: Discusses whether or not to nest the viewmodels when using a nested object hierarchy. 4429708: Discusses sharing collections between viewmodels directly, but doesn't go into detail. List item: Discusses managing multiple selections within a single viewmodel.

  Read the article

• iPhone Custom CA certificate for an application which uses NSURLConnection?

  - by jr

  I have an application which is communicating with many different sites and each site has its own SSL certificate signed by our own internal CA. Doing this prevents us the need from purchasing SSL certificates for each site (hundreds or thousands) and is more secure then using a wildcard certificate with a shared key on each of those sites. So, basically using a CA certificate is the only way. Right now, I have a mobileprovision file which will install the CA certificate as a profile on the phone. When our iPhone application launches if it gets an SSL Certificate error it redirects to a this mobile provision file via Safari and the user will be prompted to install the CA. The problem is that I am concerned that the Apple AppStore might deny my app for doing this (Just some feedback from other developers at this point), and I wanted to research other ways to accomplish this. Basically what I need to accomplish is allow an SSL connection which will verify against a custom CA certificate which will be embedded in my application. This will make the CA certificate active for only the calls I make. I am using the standard NSURLConnection methods in order to communicate with the service. Is this possible? Can someone show me how to load the CA (what form PEM?) and add it to the list of trusted CA certificates for my application? If that is not possible what other options do I have? Just trusting all certificates isn't really any option, we want to prevent man in the middle attacks and only trust our CA issued certificates. Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603  | Next Page >