Search Results

Search found 19480 results on 780 pages for 'do your own homework'.

Page 612/780 | < Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >

• Best full text search for mysql?

  - by ConroyP

  We're currently running MySQL on a LAMP stack and have been looking at implementing a more thorough, full-text search on our site. We've looked at MySQL's own freetext search, but it doesn't seem to cope well with large databases, which makes it far too slow for our needs. Our main requirements are: speed returning results simple updating of index In addition to the above, our "nice to have"s are: ideally not something that requires adding a module to MySQL plays nicely with PHP (majority of our dev work done using PHP) There seems to be quite a few healthy open-source projects to add fast, reliable full-text search to MySQL, so I'm basically looking for recommendations/suggestions on what you've found to be the most useful product out there, easiest to set up, etc. So far, the list of ones we've been starting to play around with are: Sphinx, C++ based, used by craigslist, thepiratebay Lucene, Java-based Apache project, powers zeoh.com and zoomf.com Solr, Java-based offshoot of Lucene, used to power searches on Digg, CNet & AOL Channels Are there any better ones out there that we haven't come across yet? Can you recommend / suggest against any of the options we've gathered so far? Thanks for your help! Update @Cletus suggested Google's Custom Search Engine. We recently trialled this on a couple of projects, and it's an almost-perfect fit for our needs. The problem is that entries on our site are updated quite regularly, and unfortunately the speed at which entries go in/get updated in Google's index was just too slow and erratic for us to rely on, even with the addition of sitemaps and requested crawl rate changes.

  Read the article

• How to get aspnet_Users.UserId for an anonymous user in ASP.NET membership ?

  - by Simon_Weaver

  I am trying to get the aspnet membership UserId field from an anonymous user. I have enabled anonymous identification in web.config : <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" /> I have also created a profile: <profile> <providers> <clear /> <add name="AspNetSqlProfileProvider" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> <properties> <add name="Email" type="System.String" allowAnonymous="true"/> <add name="SomethingElse" type="System.Int32" allowAnonymous="true"/> </properties> </profile> I see data in my aspnetdb\aspnet_Users table for anonymous users that have had profile information set. Userid PropertyNames PropertyValuesString 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5 Email:S:0:17: [email protected] I just need to find how to get the 'Userid' value. It is not possible to use : Membership.Provider.GetUser(Request.AnonymousID, false); The Request.AnonymousID is a different GUID and not equal to 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5. Is there any way to get this Userid. I want to associate it with incomplete activity for an anonymous user. Using the primary key of aspnet_Users is preferable to having to create my own GUID (which I could do and store in the profile). This is basically a dupe of this question but the question was never actually answered.

  Read the article

• Implementing Struts 2 Interceptors using Struts 1

  - by Andriy Zakharchuk

  Hello all, I have a legacy application written with Struts 1. The only feature I was asked to add is to protect some actions. Currently any user can do whatever he/she wants. The idea is to allows all user see the data, but block modification operation, i.e. to modify data a user should log in. I know Struts2 has interceptors, so I could attach them to required actions and forward users to log in page when needed. But how can I do similar thing in Struts 1 application? My first idea was to create my own abstract Action class: public class AuthenticatedAction { public ActionForward execute( ActionMapping mapping, ActionForm form, HttpServletRequest theRequest, HttpServletResponse theResponse) { if (!logged) { // forward to log in form } else { doExecute(mapping, form, request, response); } } public abstract ActionForward doExecute( ActionMapping mapping, ActionForm form, HttpServletRequest theRequest, HttpServletResponse theResponse); } Then change all actions that require authentication from extends Action to extends AuthenticatedAction then add login form, login action (which performs authentications and puts this status into the session) and change JSP header tile to display authentication block, e.g., "You are (not logged in)/", Login/Logout. As I guess this should solve the problem. If this doesn't solve the problem, please explain me why. Is there any better (more elegant like interceptors are) way to do this? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• how to create and track multiple pairs "View-ViewModel"?

  - by Gianluca Colucci

  Hi! I am building an application that is based on MVVM-Light. I am in the need of creating multiple instances of the same View, and each one should bind to its own ViewModel. The default ViewModelLocator implements ViewModels as singletons, therefore different instances of the same View will bind to the same ViewModel. I could create the ViewModel in the VMLocator as a non-static object (as simple as returning new VM()...), but that would only partially help me. In fact, I still need to keep track of the opened windows. Nevertheless, each window might open several other windows (of a different kind, though). In this situation I might need to execute some operation on the parent View and all its children. For example before closing the View P, I might want to close all its children (view C1, view C2, etc.). Hence, is there any simple and easy way to achieve this? Or is there any best practice you would advice me to follow? Thanks in advance for your precious help. Cheers, Gianluca.

  Read the article

• In JQGrid I want to add a row button that doesnt post back.

  - by snyder

  The buttons I have added to the rows still post back even if I specifiy not to do so in the onclick method of the button (onclick=' return false;'). I supose its the grid doing the post back? I am tring to prevent the postback and show my own custom popup forms. gridComplete: function(){ var ids = $('#jqGridControl1').jqGrid('getDataIDs'); for(var i=0;i < ids.length;i++){ var rowid = ids[i]; de = "<input type='image' title='Delete this record.' src='../images/icn_delete.gif' onclick=' return false;' style='border-width:0px;'/>"; ee = "<input type='image' title='Edit this record.' src='../images/icn_edit.gif' onclick=' return false;' style='border-width:0px;' />"; ve = "<input type='image' title='View related information.' src='../images/house.gif' onclick='return false;' style='border-width:0px;' />"; pe = "<input type='image' title='Print' src='../images/icn_printer.gif' onclick=' return false;' style='border-width:0px;' />"; je = "<input type='image' title='Appointment' src='../images/icn_journal.gif' onclick=' return false;' style='border-width:0px;' />"; se = "<input type='image' title='Select' src='../images/icn_select.gif' onclick=' return false;' style='border-width:0px;' />"; jQuery('#jqGridControl1').jqGrid('setRowData',ids[i],{act:de+ee+ve+pe+je+se}); }

  Read the article

• How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

  - by jpierson

  To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

  Read the article

• How to eliminate Unhandled Exception dialog produced by 3rd party application

  - by Tappen

  I'm working with a 3rd party executable that I can't recompile (vendor is no longer available). It was originally written under .Net 1.1 but seems to work fine under later versions as well. I launch it using Process.Start from my own application (I've tried p/invoke CreateProcess as well with the same results so that's not relevant) Unfortunately this 3rd party app now throws an unhandled exception as it exits. The Microsoft dialog box has a title like "Exception thrown from v2.0 ... Broadcast Window" with the version number relating to the version of .Net it's running under (I can use a .exe.config file to target different .Net versions, doesn't help). The unhandled exception dialog box on exit doesn't cause any real problems, but is troubling to my users who have to click OK to dismiss it every time. Is there any way (a config file option perhaps) to disable this dialog from showing for an app I don't have the source code to? I've considered loading it in a new AppDomain which would give me access to the UnhandledException event but there's no indication I could change the appearence of the dialog. Maybe someone knows what causes the exception and I can fix this some other way?

  Read the article

• Using IsolatedStorage on a IIS server

  - by JoeBilly

  I'am a bit confusing about the use of Isolated Storage on an IIS server. I understand the goal of Isolated Storage : provides a safe place to store data with no worry about how and where is this place. Since Isolated Storage has a by-user and by-assembly approach, I'am not to wild about using it on a IIS server where applications have almost their own identity. I haven't really seen the interest of impersonating a web application and almost never seen impersonated web applications myself but this is my point of view. Using Isolated Storage on a server mean : Using Isolated stores in \Documents and Settings\<user>\ Which mean \Documents and Settings\Default User\ when the application pool is owned by Local System or Network Services I guess Which also mean Write rights on this folder for Local System or Network Services Using of impersonation Regarding a web application (logic), these ideas are confusing me... Document and Settings ? Default User ? Enable impersonation just for storage ? No control about storage on server ? Uh ? And then I'am a front of a dilema : use System.IO.Packaging (with Isolated Storage inside) on web applications or find an alternative ? Am I wrong in my approach ? Did I miss something ? Any point of view is appreciated and an explanation about the Isolated Storage with IIS philosophy could be an anwser. Thanks !

  Read the article

• How to use Object.GetHashCode() on a type that overrides GetHashCode()

  - by Jimmy

  Hi, I have a class A that implements IEquatable<, using its fields (say, A.b and A.c) for implementing/overriding Equals() and overriding GetHashCode(), and everything works fine, 99% of the time. Class A is part of a hierarchy (class B, C) that all inherit from interface D; they can all be stored together in a dictionary Dictionary, thus it's convenient when they all carry their own default Equals()/GetHashCode(). However, while constructing A I sometime need to do some work to get the values for A.b and A.c; while that's happening, I want to store a reference to the instance that's being built. In that case, I don't want to use the default Equals()/GetHashCode() overrides provided by A. Thus, I was thinking of implementing a ReferenceEqualityComparer, that's meant to force the use of Object's Equals()/GetHashCode(): private class ReferenceEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return System.Object.ReferenceEquals(x, y); } public int GetHashCode(T obj) { // what goes here? I want to do something like System.Object.GetHashCode(obj); } #endregion } The question is, since A overrides Object.GetHashCode(), how can I (outside of A) call Object.GetHashCode() for an instance of A? One way of course would be for A to not implement IEquatable< and always supply an IEqualityComparer< to any dictionary that I create, but I'm hoping for a different answer. Thanks

  Read the article

• VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

  - by clawson

  Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Passing object(s) to a Controller Action

  - by Nicholas H

  I'm attempting to use jQuery to do a $.post() to an MVC controller action. Here's the jQuery calls: var _authTicket = { username: 'testingu', password: 'testingp' }; function DoPost() { var inputObj = { authTicket: _authTicket, dateRange: 'ThisWeek' }; $.post('/MyController/MyAction', inputObj, PostResult); } function PostResult(data) { alert(JSON.stringify(data)); } Here's the controller action: <HttpPost()> _ Function MyAction(ByVal authTicket As AuthTicket, ByVal dateRange As String) As ActionResult Dim u = ValidateUser(authTicket) If u Is Nothing Then Throw New Exception("User not valid") ' etc.. End Function The problem is, MyAction's "authTicket" parameter is all empty. The second "dateRange" parameter gets populated just fine. I'm pretty sure that the issue stems from jQuery turning the data into key/value pairs to POST to the action. MVC must not understand the format, at least when it's an object with it's own properties. The name/value pair format that jQuery is converting to is like: authTicket[username] = "testingu" authTicket[password] = "testingp" Which in turn gets made into x-www-form-urlencoded'd data: authTicket%5Busername%5D=testingu &authTicket%5Bpassword%5D=testingp I guess I could always have "username" and "password" properties in my actions, but that seems wrong to me. Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• User avatar cropping/resizing with paperclip and jquery in rails

  - by Micke

  Hello fellow stackoverflow users. I am building my first Ruby on Rails app which is going to be my own little community. I have made the User model with several fields and information. But now i am thinking of adding avatar support for the users. And i've been researching and found that my best option would be using Paperclip. But then i've encountered a little dilemma. I want my users to be able to resie/crop their avatar image after they have chosen a image. I have googled alot and since i am using jQuery i found that imgAreaSelect would be best in my opinion. And i think MiniMagick looks best. So to my question. How can i best intergrate Paperclip and imgAreaSelect? I am new to Ruby and Rails so i don't know how i can resize the image. Do you folks know how to intergrate the to or maybe some other options that fits my needs best? I also need to apologize for my bad/misspelled english since i am not english :) Thanking you in advance. Yours sincerely, Micke.

  Read the article

• Using cellUpdateEvent with YUI DataTable and JSON DataSource

  - by Rob Hruska

  I'm working with a UI that has a (YUI2) JSON DataSource that's being used to populate a DataTable. What I would like to do is, when a value in the table gets updated, perform a simple animation on the cell whose value changed. Here are some relevant snippets of code: var columns = [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ]; var dataSource = new YAHOO.util.DataSource('/someUrl'); dataSource.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; dataSource.connXhrMode = 'queueRequests'; dataSource.responseSchema = { resultsList: 'results', fields: [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ] }; var dataTable = new YAHOO.widget.DataTable('container', columns, dataSource); var callback = function() { success: dataTable.onDataReturnReplaceRows, failure: function() { // error handling code }, scope: dataTable }; dataSource.setInterval(1000, null, callback); And here's what I'd like to do with it: dataTable.subscribe('cellUpdateEvent', function(record, column, oldData) { var td = dataTable.getTdEl({record: record, column: column}); YAHOO.util.Dom.setStyle(td, 'backgroundColor', '#ffff00'); var animation = new YAHOO.util.ColorAnim(td, { backgroundColor: { to: '#ffffff'; } }); animation.animate(); }; However, it doesn't seem like using cellUpdateEvent works. Does a cell that's updated as a result of the setInterval callback even fire a cellUpdateEvent? It may be that I don't fully understand what's going on under the hood with DataTable. Perhaps the whole table is being redrawn every time the data is queried, so it doesn't know or care about changes to individual cells?. Is the solution to write my own specific function to replace onDataReturnReplaceRows? Could someone enlighten me on how I might go about accomplishing this? Edit: After digging through datatable-debug.js, it looks like onDataReturnReplaceRows won't fire the cellUpdateEvent. It calls reset() on the RecordSet that's backing the DataTable, which deletes all of the rows; it then re-populates the table with fresh data. I tried changing it to use onDataReturnUpdateRows, but that doesn't seem to work either.

  Read the article

• Raytraced Shadows Problem

  - by Mat

  Hey There! I've got a problem with shadowrays in my raytracer. Please have a look at the following two pictures 3D sMax: My Raytracer: The scene is lit by a very bright light, shining from the back. It's so bright that there is no gradient in the shading, just either white or dark (due to the overexposure). both images were rendered using 3DStudioMax and both use the exact same geometry, just in one case the normals are interpolated across the triangles. Now consider the red dot on the surface. In the case of the unsmoothed version, it lies in a dark area. this means that the light source is not visible from this triangle, since it's facing away from it. In the smoothed version however, it lies in the lit area, because the interpolated normal would suggest, that the light would be visible at that point (although the actual geometry of the triangle is facing away from the lightsource). My problem now is when raytraced shadows come in. if a shadowray is shot into the scene, from the red dot, to test whether the light-source is visible or not (to determine shadowing), the shadowray will return an intersection, independent of whether normals are interpolated or not (because intersections only depend on the geometry). Therefore the pixel would be shaded dark. 3dsamx is handling the case correctly - the rendered image was generated with Raytraced shadows turned on. However, my own Raytracer runs exactly into this problem when i turn on raytraced shadows (in my raytracer, the point is dark in both cases, because raytraced shadows determine the point lying in the shadow), and i don't know how to solve it. I hope someone knows this problem and how to deal with it.. thanks!

  Read the article

• When writing a game, should you make objects/enemies/etc. have unique ID numbers?

  - by SLC

  I have recently encountered some issues with merely passing references to objects/enemies in a game I am making, and am wondering if I am using the wrong approach. The main issue I have is disposing of enemies and objects, when other enemies or players may still have links to them. For example, if you have a Rabbit, and a Wolf, the Wolf may have selected the Rabbit to be its target. What I am doing, is the wolf has a GameObject Target = null; and when it decides it is hungry, the Target becomes the Rabbit. If the Rabbit then dies, such as another wolf killing it, it cannot be removed from the game properly because this wolf still has a reference to it. In addition, if you are using a decoupled approach, the rabbit could hit by lightning, reducing its health to below zero. When it next updates itself, it realises it has died, and is removed from the game... but there is no way to update everything that is interested in it. If you gave every enemy a unique ID, you could simply use references to that instead, and use a central lookup class that handled it. If the monster died, the lookup class could remove it from its own index, and subsequently anything trying to access it would be informed that it's dead, and then they could act accordingly. Any thoughts on this?

  Read the article

• Displaying shifts on a timetable/calendar using C#

  - by Dave Peters

  I am very much a beginner and have experience of SQL and a tiny amount of VBA. What I am looking to do is create a tool to pull shift times from a database and to display them on a timetable/calendar. It will be part of a desktop application that the (very tech illiterate) end users will use to view and amend shift patterns. In essence it will be a grid with days on one axis and people on the other (I would however like to have the blocks proportional to shift length). In my mind it would potentially be a simple Gantt chart. All computing stuff I’ve learnt has been through trial and error and I want to use this project to get a much better understanding of C# as well as to get to the end product. I have been reading around for ways to tackle the problem and my issue is creating the timetable framework to which I will bind the data. I am using Visual Studio 2010 and SQL Server 2008 R2. Do you know of good resources which will either start me on the road to designing my own interface or give a basic framework I can adapt? All the resources I’ve found so far have been in different languages or for web based applications. Thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• Java FileLock for Reading and Writing

  - by bobtheowl2

  I have a process that will be called rather frequently from cron to read a file that has certain move related commands in it. My process needs to read and write to this data file - and keep it locked to prevent other processes from touching it during this time. A completely separate process can be executed by a user to (potential) write/append to this same data file. I want these two processes to play nice and only access the file one at a time. The nio FileLock seemed to be what I needed (short of writing my own semaphore type files), but I'm having trouble locking it for reading. I can lock and write just fine, but when attempting to create lock when reading I get a NonWritableChannelException. Is it even possible to lock a file for reading? Seems like a RandomAccessFile is closer to what I need, but I don't see how to implement that. Here is the code that fails: FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); FileLock fl = fin.getChannel().tryLock(); if(fl != null) { System.out.println("Locked File"); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(fin)); System.out.println(in.readLine()); ... The exception is thrown on the FileLock line. java.nio.channels.NonWritableChannelException at sun.nio.ch.FileChannelImpl.tryLock(Unknown Source) at java.nio.channels.FileChannel.tryLock(Unknown Source) at Mover.run(Mover.java:74) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Looking at the JavaDocs, it says Unchecked exception thrown when an attempt is made to write to a channel that was not originally opened for writing. But I don't necessarily need to write to it. When I try creating a FileOutpuStream, etc. for writing purposes it is happy until I try to open a FileInputStream on the same file.

  Read the article

• Using Git with shared (symbolic link) directories

  - by chmike

  I'm working on a big Qt application with multiple widgets which are quite complex. One of this widget is a webcam stream viewer. The application is organized so that each program module (i.e. widgets) is stored in its own directory with a .pri file. All these are stored in one main directory grouping all the widget directories. Next to this main project directory I also have application directories. Let say one for each widget. In these directory I have a symbolic link (alias on windows) to the module directory in the main project folder. This application has then the necessary code to build a standalone application showing only the widget. So for instance I have a webcam viewer application, another to control some devices, etc. This source code organization works well and allows me to develop and test the widgets in independent applications while sharing the code with the main application. Currently only the main project directory is under version control using subversion. Now I would like to start using git and would like to know if this shared directory model would work with it or if there is a better way to do it.

  Read the article

• Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

  - by bgadoci

  Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

  Read the article

• Problem with response.redirect sending incorrect HTTPMethod

  - by Andy Macnaughton-Jones

  Hi, I've got a strange problem with a Response.Redirect. I'm using VB.NET with the .NET 2 framework (so VS2005 & SP1). I've got a page that I do a form submit on (that's a proper form method="POST" hard-coded onto the page) and that properly posts me back the page data which is then processed. As part of that processing the system determines if we need to get sent to another URL after processing has been complete. So the request.httpmethod = "POST". So if the "GotoPage" parameter has a URL specified we then do a response.redirect(URL, false). (False as we want page processing to complete in order to write some timing logs etc). The page correctly redirects but instead of the response having a "GET" as the request.httpmethod it has a "POST" instead ! Now, we're using our own custom framework so that we use the HTTPRequest method to determine if a page has been posted back or is being "Getted" so the "IsPagePostBack" property doesn't work (that only works when you're using the normal .NET controls and form submissions). In all other instances our code works happily but what might be causing the Request.httpMethod to not be being set correctly ? I've tried doing a response.clear before the redirect in case headers are being written out before hand but to no avail. Any clues ?! thanks, Andy

  Read the article

• Environment variable in xcconfig won't expand in Settings.bundle/Root.plist

  - by AO

  I have defined my own environment variable in a .xcconfig file and based my configurations on that as described at http://www.silverchairsolutions.com/blog/2008/03/automating-cocoa-deployments-with-sparkle-and-xcode. My environment variable is indeed expanded in Info.plist but not in my Settings.bundle/Root.plist. Why won't it expand there? Root.plist looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>Title</key> <string>${PRODUCT_NAME}</string> <key>PreferenceSpecifiers</key> <array> <dict> <key>DefaultValue</key> <string>${PRODUCT_NAME}</string> <key>Key</key> <string>version</string> <key>Title</key> <string>Version</string> <key>Type</key> <string>PSTitleValueSpecifier</string> </dict> <dict> <key>DefaultValue</key> <string></string> <key>Key</key> <string>atc</string> <key>Title</key> <string>ATC</string> <key>Type</key> <string>PSTitleValueSpecifier</string> </dict> </array>

  Read the article

• android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

  - by moonlightcheese

  I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12

  Read the article

• android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

  - by moonlightcheese

  I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? edit (4/30/2010-18:24): Just compiled some code where I got the above stated error. I closed some web browser windows and recompiled the same exact code with no edits and it compiled with no issue. this is definitely a compiler issue related to memory usage. Any help would be great.... because I have no idea where to go from here. Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12 Sorry I had to repost this question because regardless of whether I use the native HttpClient class in the Android SDK or my custom version downloaded from apache, the error still occurs.

  Read the article

• Spam proof hit counter in Django

  - by Jim Robert

  I already looked at the most popular Django hit counter solutions and none of them seem to solve the issue of spamming the refresh button. Do I really have to log the IP of every visitor to keep them from artificially boosting page view counts by spamming the refresh button (or writing a quick and dirty script to do it for them)? More information So right now you can inflate your view count with the following few lines of Python code. Which is so little that you don't even really need to write a script, you could just type it into an interactive session: from urllib import urlopen num_of_times_to_hit_page = 100 url_of_the_page = "http://example.com" for x in range(num_of_times_to_hit_page): urlopen(url_of_the_page) Solution I'll probably use To me, it's a pretty rough situation when you need to do a bunch of writes to the database on EVERY page view, but I guess it can't be helped. I'm going to implement IP logging due to several users artificially inflating their view count. It's not that they're bad people or even bad users. See the answer about solving the problem with caching... I'm going to pursue that route first. Will update with results. For what it's worth, it seems Stack Overflow is using cookies (I can't increment my own view count, but it increased when I visited the site in another browser.) I think that the benefit is just too much, and this sort of 'cheating' is just too easy right now. Thanks for the help everyone!

  Read the article

• How to marshall non-string objects with JAXB and Spring

  - by lesula

  I was trying to follow this tutorial in order to create my own restful web-service using Spring framework. The client do a GET request to, let's say http://api.myapp/app/students and the server returns an xml version of the object classroom: @XmlRootElement(name = "class") public class Classroom { private String classId = null; private ArrayList<Student> students = null; public Classroom() { } public String getClassId() { return classId; } public void setClassId(String classId) { this.classId = classId; } @XmlElement(name="student") public ArrayList<Student> getStudents() { return students; } public void setStudents(ArrayList<Student> students) { this.students = students; } } The object Student is another bean containing only Strings. In my app-servlet.xml i copied this lines: <bean id="studentsView" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <constructor-arg ref="jaxbMarshaller" /> </bean> <!-- JAXB2 marshaller. Automagically turns beans into xml --> <bean id="jaxbMarshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="classesToBeBound"> <list> <value>com.spring.datasource.Classroom</value> <value>com.spring.datasource.Student</value> </list> </property> </bean> Now my question is: what if i wanted to insert some non-string objects as class variables? Let's say i want a tag containing the String version of an InetAddress, such as <inetAddress>192.168.1.1</inetAddress> How can i force JAXB to call the method inetAddress.toString() in such a way that it appears as a String in the xml? In the returned xml non-string objects are ignored!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619  | Next Page >