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WPF Browser is there, but invisible.

- by Adam Crossland

I am attempting to use the Browser control in a very simple WPF application, and it appears that while the browser is loading the page that I requested (I can mouseover images and see the ALT tags), I can't actually see anything else: Here is the XAML for the app: <Window x:Class="SmokeyBox2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="SmokeyBox" Height="120" Width="510" ShowInTaskbar="False" SizeToContent="WidthAndHeight" WindowStyle="None" AllowsTransparency="True" MouseLeftButtonDown="Window_MouseLeftButtonDown"> <Border Background="#50FFFFFF" CornerRadius="5" BorderThickness="2,0,2,2" Padding="5 1 5 5"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"></RowDefinition> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"></RowDefinition> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"></RowDefinition> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Label Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0" Background="Transparent" Content="SmokeyBox" MouseLeftButtonDown="Label_MouseLeftButtonDown" /> <TextBox Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Name="searchText" Width="450" FontFamily="Arial" Foreground="DarkGray" Background="Transparent" FontSize="20" MouseLeftButtonDown="searchText_MouseLeftButtonDown" BorderBrush="Transparent" /> <Expander Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Padding="2 3 0 0 " Expanded="Expander_Expanded" Collapsed="Expander_Collapsed" /> <WebBrowser Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="0" x:Name="browser" Visibility="Visible" Width="480" Height="480" Margin="2 2 2 2" ></WebBrowser> </Grid> </Border> </Window> So can anyone help me figure out why the browser isn't showing the Yahoo! home page like I asked it to? And while I am at it, I'm going to own up to the fact that this is my first WPF app, and I'd love to hear any general pointers on how to get rid of general noobie badness in my XAML. Thanks.

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Keyword 'this'(Me) is not available calling the base constructor

- by serhio

In the inherited class I use the base constructor, but can't use class's members calling this base constructor. In this example I have a PicturedLabel that knows it's own color and has a image. A TypedLabel : PictureLabel knows it's type but uses the base color. The (base)image that uses TypedLabel should be colored with the (base)color, however, I can't obtain this color: Error: Keyword 'this' is not available in the current context A workaround? /// base class public class PicturedLabel : Label { PictureBox pb = new PictureBox(); public Color LabelColor; public PicturedLabel() { // initialised here in a specific way LabelColor = Color.Red; } public PicturedLabel(Image img) : base() { pb.Image = img; this.Controls.Add(pb); } } public enum LabelType { A, B } /// derived class public class TypedLabel : PicturedLabel { public TypedLabel(LabelType type) : base(GetImageFromType(type, this.LabelColor)) //Error: Keyword 'this' is not available in the current context { } public static Image GetImageFromType(LabelType type, Color c) { Image result = new Bitmap(10, 10); Rectangle rec = new Rectangle(0, 0, 10, 10); Pen pen = new Pen(c); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(result); switch (type) { case LabelType.A: g.DrawRectangle(pen, rec); break; case LabelType.B: g.DrawEllipse(pen, rec); break; } return result; } }

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asp.net Membership : Extending Role membership?

- by mark smith

Hi there, I am been taking a look at asp.net membership and it seems to provide everything that i need but i need some kind of custom Role functionality. Currently i can add user to a role, great. But i also need to be able to add Permissions to Roles.. i.e. Role: Editor Permissions: Can View Editor Menu, Can Write to Editors Table, Can Delete Entries in Editors Table. Currently it doesn't support this, The idea behind this is to create a admin option in my program to create a role and then assign permissions to a role to say "allow the user to view a certain part of the application", "allow the user to open a menu item" Any ideas how i would implement soemthing like this? I presume a custom ROLE provider but i was wondering if some kind of framework extension existed already without rolling my own? Or anybody knows a good tutorial of how to tackle this issue? I am quite happy with what asp.net SQL provider has created in terms of tables etc... but i think i need to extend this by adding another table called RolesPermissions and then I presume :-) adding some kind of enumeration into the table for each valid permission?? THanks in advance

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Portlet container like pluto or jetspeed on google app engine?

- by Patrick Cornelissen

I am trying to build something "portlet server"-ish on the google app engine. (as open source) I'd like to use the JSR168/286 standards, but I think that the restrictions of the app engine will make it somewhere between tricky and impossible. Has anyone tried to run jetspeed or an application that uses pluto internally on the google app engine? Based on my current knowledge of portlets and the google app engine I'm anticipating these problems: A war file with portlets is from the deployment standpoint more or less a complete webapp (yes, I know that it doesn't really work without a portal server). The war file may contain it's own web.xml etc. This makes deployment on the app engine rather difficult, because the apps are not visible to each other, so all portlet containing archives need to be included in the war file of the deployed "app engine based portal server". The "portlets" are (at least in liferay) started as permanent servlet processes, based on their portlet.xmls and web.xmls which is located in the same spot for every portlet archive that is loaded. I think this may be problematic in the app engine, because everything is in one big "web app", so it may be tricky to access the portlet.xmls from each archive. This prevents a 100% compatibility in my opinion. Is here anyone who has any experience with the combination of portlets and the app engine? Do you think it's feasible to modify jetspeed, pluto or any other portlet container to be able to run it on the app engine?

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Mocking with Boost::Test

- by Billy ONeal

Hello everyone :) I'm using the Boost::Test library for unit testing, and I've in general been hacking up my own mocking solutions that look something like this: //In header for clients struct RealFindFirstFile { static HANDLE FindFirst(LPCWSTR lpFileName, LPWIN32_FIND_DATAW lpFindFileData) { return FindFirstFile(lpFileName, lpFindFileData); }; }; template <typename FirstFile_T = RealFindFirstFile> class DirectoryIterator { //.. Implementation } //In unit tests (cpp) #define THE_ANSWER_TO_LIFE_THE_UNIVERSE_AND_EVERYTHING 42 struct FakeFindFirstFile { static HANDLE FindFirst(LPCWSTR lpFileName, LPWIN32_FIND_DATAW lpFindFileData) { return THE_ANSWER_TO_LIFE_THE_UNIVERSE_AND_EVERYTHING; }; }; BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE( MyTest ) { DirectoryIterator<FakeFindFirstFile> LookMaImMocked; //Test } I've grown frustrated with this because it requires that I implement almost everything as a template, and it is a lot of boilerplate code to achieve what I'm looking for. Is there a good method of mocking up code using Boost::Test over my Ad-hoc method? I've seen several people recommend Google Mock, but it requires a lot of ugly hacks if your functions are not virtual, which I would like to avoid. Oh: One last thing. I don't need assertions that a particular piece of code was called. I simply need to be able to inject data that would normally be returned by Windows API functions.

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Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

- by Craig Stuntz

I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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How to install PySide v0.3.1 on Mac OS X?

- by ivo

I'm trying to install PySide v0.3.1 in Mac OS X, for Qt development in python. As a pre-requisite, I have installed CMake and the Qt SDK. I have gone through the documentation and come up with the following installation script: export PYSIDE_BASE_DIR="<my_dir>" export APIEXTRACTOR_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/apiextractor-0.5.1" export GENERATORRUNNER_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/generatorrunner-0.4.2" export SHIBOKEN_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/shiboken-0.3.1" export PYSIDE_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/pyside-qt4.6+0.3.1" export PYSIDE_TOOLS_DIR="$PYSIDE_BASE_DIR/pyside-tools-0.1.3" pushd . cd $APIEXTRACTOR_DIR cmake . cd $GENERATORRUNNER_DIR cmake -DApiExtractor_DIR=$APIEXTRACTOR_DIR . cd $SHIBOKEN_DIR cmake -DApiExtractor_DIR=$APIEXTRACTOR_DIR -DGeneratorRunner_DIR=$GENERATORRUNNER_DIR . cd $PYSIDE_DIR cmake -DShiboken_DIR=$SHIBOKEN_DIR/libshiboken -DGENERATOR=$GENERATORRUNNER_DIR . cd $PYSIDE_TOOLS_DIR cmake . popd Now, I don't know if this installation script is ok, but apparently everything works fine. Each component (apiextractor, generatorrunner, shiboken, pyside-qt and pyside-tools) gets compiled into its own directory. The problem is that I don't quite understand how PySide gets into the system's python environment. In fact, when I start a python shell, I cannot import PySide: >>> import PySide Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named PySide Note: I am aware of the Installing PySide - OSX question, but that question is not relevant anymore, because it is about a specific a dependency on the Boost libraries, but with version 0.3.0 PySide moved from a Boost based source code to a CPython one.

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virtualbox - debian with no-ip

- by JohnWong

Hi. I have VB on my XP SP3. I am running one guest OS, Debian. I installed it using the 150MB, and everything seems to work fine. I am using 3.1.6 VB The purpose of this server is running php, mysql and django project. So I need access both locally and externally. I usually do it with my no-ip. I have experience with Ubuntu server, and using noip2 was a cake. I had this "domain" xxx.no-ip.org. I need this to be use on my debian server, so that I can type xxx.no-ip.org into the firefox (on my xp). I checked ifconfig, pstree. They showed that debian grabbed the right ip (it matched with my ip), and pstree showed noip2 has already been activated (under init.d) But I can't access to xxx.no-ip.org from my windows in firefox how come? back in the days when I used ubuntu as its own installation (instead of VM), noip2 worked like a cake without any twist. Any thoughts? Thank you!

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How do I add a URL parameter to redirected login page using JSF 2.0

- by Big Al

I have a question about session timeouts and JSF 2. I have my exception handler working exactly the way everyone prefers but I need to pass a value to the login page. For example, I have a typical login URL - www.acme.com/?companyId=company14 which in turn presents company14 with their own custom login page (using their logo). After they enter the application and do a bit of work, they read an email or 2. The session times out and a session timeout page is shown instructing the user to click Ok to proceed to the login page. How do I add ?companyId=company14 to the URL? I can hardcode it in the exception handler by using this: requestMap.put("companyId", "company14"); and then referring to it on the viewExpired.xhtml page: <h:panelGrid id="expiredGrid" columns="1"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText id="outExpireMsg" value="Your session has expired"/> </f:facet> <h:outputText id="outReqMessage" value="Reloading the page will require login."/> <h:outputText value=""/> <h:button id="okButton" type="submit" value="Ok" outcome="login?companyId=#{companyId}"/> </h:panelGrid> The issue is I can't seem to save the companyId anywhere without it getting wiped out by the session timeout. I'd like to set the companyId in the exceptionhandler using this value. Any ideas?

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HTTP 1.0 vs 1.1

- by Jason Baker

Could somebody give me a brief overview of the differences between HTTP 1.0 and HTTP 1.1? I've spent some time with both of the RFCs, but haven't been able to pull out a lot of difference between them. Wikipedia says this: HTTP/1.1 (1997-1999) Current version; persistent connections enabled by default and works well with proxies. Also supports request pipelining, allowing multiple requests to be sent at the same time, allowing the server to prepare for the workload and potentially transfer the requested resources more quickly to the client. But that doesn't mean a lot to me. I realize this is a somewhat complicated subject, so I'm not expecting a full answer, but can someone give me a brief overview of the differences at a bit lower level? By this I mean that I'm looking for the info I would need to know to implement either an HTTP server or application. I realize that this can be a somewhat complicated subject (based on what I know about HTTP as of right now), so I'm not necessarily looking for a full answer. I'm really more looking for a nudge in the right direction so that I can figure it out on my own.

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AS3: Array of objects parsed from XML remains with zero length

- by Joel Alejandro

I'm trying to parse an XML file and create an object array from its data. The data is converted to MediaAlbum classes (class of my own). The XML is parsed correctly and the object is loaded, but when I instantiate it, the Albums array is of zero length, even when the data is loaded correctly. I don't really know what the problem could be... any hints? import Nem.Media.*; var mg:MediaGallery = new MediaGallery("test.xml"); trace(mg.Albums.length); MediaGallery class: package Nem.Media { import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.net.URLLoader; import flash.events.*; public class MediaGallery { private var jsonGalleryData:Object; public var Albums:Array = new Array(); public function MediaGallery(xmlSource:String) { var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.load(new URLRequest(xmlSource)); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadGalleries); } public function loadGalleries(e:Event):void { var xmlData:XML = new XML(e.target.data); var album; for each (album in xmlData.albums) { Albums.push(new MediaAlbum(album.attribute("name"), album.photos)); } } } } XML test source: <gallery <albums <album name="Fútbol 9" <photos <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto1.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto2.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto3.jpg" / </photos </album <album name="Fútbol 8" <photos <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto4.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto5.jpg" / <photo width="600" height="400" filename="foto6.jpg" / </photos </album </albums </gallery

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.NET regex's not working - 1# check beginning of text entered #2 check structure

- by Olly

OK it has unfortunately been a while since I've used REGEX and I am struggling to wonder why its not working with my project. I have used Regex Tester which says my two tests are valid but when it comes to testing in my project they get rejected. 1) Check the text starts with certain characters [RegularExpression("(spAPP)",ErrorMessage = "Stored procedures must begin with spAPP")] This seems to accept spAPP on it's own, but not something like spAPPabcdef which I want it to. I am struggling to find the "Ignore rest of the text" attribute with REGEX. 2) A bit more complicated. I have certain naming conventions for AD groups, so an example would be "UK ROLE IT APPLICATION DEV ADMIN", up to the role name there are standards (so I need the "UK ROLE IT APPLICATION DEV" checked. [RegularExpression(@"((UK|FRANCE|GERMANY|USA)\s(ROLE)\s(IT|NON-IT)\s(APPLICATION)\s(DEV|TEST|LIVE))", ErrorMessage = "Please use AD naming standards.")] I think it might be the fact I am using () around all the words, but its easier to read in my code. The RegexTester I found seems to indicate that it's right, but again, in my .NET project, it rejects it. Thanks,

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How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

- by Wayne

How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

- by Wayne

How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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How to find that Mutex in C# is acquired?

- by TN

How can I find from mutex handle in C# that a mutex is acquired? When mutex.WaitOne(timeout) timeouts, it returns false. However, how can I find that from the mutex handle? (Maybe using p/invoke.) UPDATE: public class InterProcessLock : IDisposable { readonly Mutex mutex; public bool IsAcquired { get; private set; } public InterProcessLock(string name, TimeSpan timeout) { bool created; var security = new MutexSecurity(); security.AddAccessRule(new MutexAccessRule(new SecurityIdentifier(WellKnownSidType.WorldSid, null), MutexRights.Synchronize | MutexRights.Modify, AccessControlType.Allow)); mutex = new Mutex(false, name, out created, security); IsAcquired = mutex.WaitOne(timeout); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { if (IsAcquired) mutex.ReleaseMutex(); } #endregion } Currently, I am using my own property IsAcquired to determine whether I should release a mutex. Not essential but clearer, would be not to use a secondary copy of the information represented by IsAcquired property, but rather to ask directly the mutex whether it is acquired by me. Since calling mutex.ReleaseMutex() throws an exception if it is not acquired by me. (By acquired state I mean that the mutex is in not-signaled state when I am owning the mutex.)

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Help with MySQL query - Product orders report without duplicate shipping charges

- by Paul

Hello, I have an issue creating a custom report for an e-commerce store running on osCommerce. The client wants the report to have the following columns: Date, Order ID, Product Class, Product Price, Product Tax, Shipping, Order Total The criteria for generating the report are Date Range and Product Class (Textbooks for example) The client wants the report to list each Textbook purchased on its own line. Orders with multiple textbooks would display a separate line for each Textbook in the order. I have it all working except for one part: the shipping amount is order-specific (based on the order total), not product-specific, and is displaying for each product. I need it to display only for the first product of each order, so it is not counted more than once. My current query is: SELECT op.date_funds_captured as 'Date', op.orders_id as 'Order ID', pc.class as 'Product Class', round(op.products_price,2) as 'Product Price', round(op.products_tax*op.products_price/100,2) as 'Product Tax', round(otship.value,2) as 'Shipping', round(ot.value,2) as 'Order Total' from orders_products op, orders_total ot, orders_total otship, productclasses pc, products p where ot.orders_id = op.orders_id and ot.class='ot_total' and op.orders_id = otship.orders_id and otship.class = 'ot_shipping' and p.products_class_id = pc.id and op.products_id = p.products_id and pc.id = 1 pc.id = 1 -- Product class = Textbook Here is an example of the current report output. You can see the problem with order 2256 showing the shipping value three times instead of once: Date Order Product Class Price Tax Shipping Total 2010-01-04 2253 Textbook 24.95 2.43 10.03 37.41 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 34.95 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 55.50 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 36.95 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2258 Textbook 55.50 5.41 12.17 124.24 Please help!!! Thanks, Paul

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Opacity CSS not working in IE8

- by Alistair Christie

I'm using CSS to indicate the trigger text for a jQuery slide-down section: i.e. when you hover over the trigger text the cursor changes to a pointer and the opacity of the trigger text is reduced to indicate that the text has a click action. This works fine in Firefox and Chrome, but in IE8 the opacity doesn't change. I've tried a variety of CSS settings without any success. For example HTML: <h3 class="slidedownTrigger">This is the trigger text</h3> CSS: .slidedownTrigger { cursor: pointer; -ms-filter: “progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Alpha(Opacity=75)”; filter: alpha(opacity=75); -khtml-opacity: 0.75; -moz-opacity: 0.75; opacity: 0.75; } What's stopping IE changing the opacity? Note: I've tried this on a variety of different elements, swapping round the order of the CSS statements, and just using the IE ones on their own. I've also tried using -ms-filter: "alpha(opacity=75)"; but with no success. I've run out of things to try to get opacity modification working in IE8. Any ideas?

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Non-blocking TCP buffer issues.

- by Poni

Hi! I think I'm in a problem. I have two TCP apps connected to each other which use winsock I/O completion ports to send/receive data (non-blocking sockets). Everything works just fine until there's a data transfer burst. The sender starts sending incorrect/malformed data. I allocate the buffers I'm sending on the stack, and if I understand correctly, that's a wrong to do, because these buffers should remain as I sent them until I get the "write complete" notification from IOCP. Take this for example: void some_function() { char cBuff[1024]; // filling cBuff with some data WSASend(...); // sending cBuff, non-blocking mode // filling cBuff with other data WSASend(...); // again, sending cBuff // ..... and so forth! } If I understand correctly, each of these WSASend() calls should have its own unique buffer, and that buffer can be reused only when the send completes. Correct? Now, what strategies can I implement in order to maintain a big sack of such buffers, how should I handle them, how can I avoid performance penalty, etc'? And, if I am to use buffers that means I should copy the data to be sent from the source buffer to the temporary one, thus, I'd set SO_SNDBUF on each socket to zero, so the system will not re-copy what I already copied. Are you with me? Please let me know if I wasn't clear.

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iphone: problem playing youtube mp4's over 3g network

- by Alex1987

Hi guys I'm am developing an app that enables the user to stream youtube mp4 videos on the iphone. What I did was very simple - I just took a url of the form http://youtube.com/get_video?*&fmt=18 (for example http://youtube.com/get_video?video_id=KUXGVfmrEN4&&t=vjVQa1PpcFNrxzfbeI6WrJfK6s0BdQ9ypMgV_6yqwjo=&fmt=18) and used mpmovieplayercontroller or UIWebView to stream the video. It works great over WIFI but doesn't work at all on 3g network . On 3g I get a blank page in the UIWebView or file format not supported on mpmovieplayercontroller. Does youtube block access from 3g networks to its mp4 videos? How to bypass this? You can check this easily yourself on your own iphone by preforming the following steps: 1. Obtain the download link. You can do this easily by downloading the following plugin for firefox: https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/13990. 2. Email the link to your email. 3. Open your mail on the iphone and click on the link. Try this on WIFI and 3g.

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How to embed multiple jQuery line of code in custom HtmlHelpers ASP.NET MVC

- by embarus

I 've tried to create my own HTML Helper which work fine for my need but I can't embed many lines of jQuery code in my extension HtmlHelpers class. I've tried @ literal for jQuery code I doesn't work or I need to escape every line of code that I thing I not good for multiple line of code. I don't know if there is another way to achieve this problem like << Therefore, I need to include jQuery plugin file and put implement script after HTML tag. I find it would be convenience if I could put every in HTML helper and put a single line of code in aspx page for example <%= Html.ParentChildSelectList(string parentName, string childName, IEnumerable parentViewData, IEnumerable childViewData, int parentSize, in childSize) % The following code is the way that I used now. the .aspx page Category model.CategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% model.SubcategoryID,"subcategory") % model.SubcategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.sarapadchang.parentChildSelectList( { parentId : "CategoryID" , childId : "SubcategoryID", actionName : "GetSubcategoryList", controllerName : "Json" } ); </script> I put in head tag to include ParentChildSelectList.js the following code for ParentChildSelectList.js (function($) { $.sarapadchang = { parentChildSelectList: function(options) { // $("#CategoryID option").click(function() $("#" + options.parentId).find("option").click(function() { $("#" + options.childId).empty(); //clear data $("#" + options.childId).append('<option>loading...</option>'); $.post("/" + options.controllerName + "/" + options.actionName + "/" + $(this).attr('value'), "", function(data) { var html = ""; $.each(data, function(index, entry) { html += '<option value="' + entry['Value'] + '">' + entry['Text'] + '</option>'; } ); $("#" + options.childId).empty() $("#" + options.childId).append(html); }, "json"); //end getJson }); })(jQuery); To illustrate you, I've attached simple solution, please follow this link. http://www.thaileaguefc.net/ParentChildSelectList.rar Please accept my apologies if my English is difficult to understand. I am looking forward to hearing from you. Your faithfully, Theeranit

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"Public" nested classes or not

- by Frederick

Suppose I have a class 'Application'. In order to be initialised it takes certain settings in the constructor. Let's also assume that the number of settings is so many that it's compelling to place them in a class of their own. Compare the following two implementations of this scenario. Implementation 1: class Application { Application(ApplicationSettings settings) { //Do initialisation here } } class ApplicationSettings { //Settings related methods and properties here } Implementation 2: class Application { Application(Application.Settings settings) { //Do initialisation here } class Settings { //Settings related methods and properties here } } To me, the second approach is very much preferable. It is more readable because it strongly emphasises the relation between the two classes. When I write code to instantiate Application class anywhere, the second approach is going to look prettier. Now just imagine the Settings class itself in turn had some similarly "related" class and that class in turn did so too. Go only three such levels and the class naming gets out out of hand in the 'non-nested' case. If you nest, however, things still stay elegant. Despite the above, I've read people saying on StackOverflow that nested classes are justified only if they're not visible to the outside world; that is if they are used only for the internal implementation of the containing class. The commonly cited objection is bloating the size of containing class's source file, but partial classes is the perfect solution for that problem. My question is, why are we wary of the "publicly exposed" use of nested classes? Are there any other arguments against such use?

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HOWTO - Compare a date string to datetime in SQL Server?

- by Guy

In SQL Server I have a DATETIME column which includes a time element. Example: '14 AUG 2008 14:23:019' What is the best method to only select the records for a particular day, ignoring the time part? Example: (Not safe, as it does not match the time part and returns no rows) DECLARE @p_date DATETIME SET @p_date = CONVERT( DATETIME, '14 AUG 2008', 106 ) SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE column_datetime = @p_date Note: Given this site is also about jotting down notes and techniques you pick up and then forget, I'm going to post my own answer to this question as DATETIME stuff in MSSQL is probably the topic I lookup most in SQLBOL. Update Clarified example to be more specific. Edit Sorry, But I've had to down-mod WRONG answers (answers that return wrong results). @Jorrit: WHERE (date>'20080813' AND date<'20080815') will return the 13th and the 14th. @wearejimbo: Close, but no cigar! badge awarded to you. You missed out records written at 14/08/2008 23:59:001 to 23:59:999 (i.e. Less than 1 second before midnight.)

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onComplete for Ajax.Request sometimes does not hide the load animation in Prototype

- by TenJack

I have a Ajax.Request in which I use onLoading and onComplete to show and hide a load animation gif. The problem is that every 10 clicks or so, the load animation fails to hide and just stays there animating even though the ajax request has returned successfully. I have a number of div elements that each has its own respective load animation and an onclick with the Ajax.Request that looks like this: <div id="word_block_<%= word_obj.word %>" class="word_block" > <%= image_tag("ajax-loader_word_block.gif", :id => "load_animation_#{word_obj.word}", :style => 'display:none') %> <a href="#" onclick="new Ajax.Request('/test/ajax_load', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onLoading:function() { Element.show('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}, onComplete:function(){ Element.hide('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}}); return false;">Click Here</a> </div> Does it look like anything could be wrong with this? Maybe I should try removing the inline onclick and add an onclick programmatically with javascript? I really have no idea why this keeps happening. I am using the prototype library with ruby on rails.

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Reference inherited class's <T>ype in a derived class

- by DRapp

I don't know if its possible or not, but here's what I need. I'm toying around with something and want to know if its possible since you can't create your own data type based on a sealed type such as int, Int32, Int64, etc. I want to create a top-level class that is defined of a given type with some common stuff. Then, derive this into two subclasses, but in this case, each class is based on either and int or Int64 type. From THAT instance, create an instance of either one and know its yped basis for parameter referenc / return settings. So when I need to create an instance of the "ThisClass", I don't have to know its type basis of either int or Int64, yet IT will know the type and be able to allow methods/functions to be called with the typed... This way, If I want to change my ThisClass definition from SubLevel1 to SubLevel2, I don't have to dance around all different data type definitions. Hope this makes sense.. public class TopLevel<T> { ... } pubic class SubLevel1 : TopLevel<int> { ... } public class SubLevel2 : TopLevel<Int64> { ... } public class ThisClass : SubLevel1 { ... public <based on the Int data type from SubLevel1> SomeFunc() { return <the Int value computed>; } }

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Any good tools or tips for fuzz testing Windows forms applications?

- by Ogre Psalm33

I'm maintaining a ~300K LOC C# legacy thick-client application with a Windows.Forms interface. The app is full of little bugs and quirks. For example, I recently discovered a bug where if a users edits and tabs (not clicks) through cells on a DataViewGrid, and leaves the a certain cell selected, the app gets an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" exception. I discover (or get a bug report of) something new like this about every week or two. I've had enough, and was thinking of trying some sort of fuzz testing on the application to try to ferret out undiscovered issues. If I roll-my-own fuzz testing, I'd assume I at least need to be able to generate test harnesses that run pieces of my app (main window, FormX, FormY, FormZ, ...) independently and try to inject events into them. I was trying to look for tools suited for this, but so far have come up with nothing for Win Forms. (There seems to be no shortage of fuzz testing tools for web apps, however). Any helpful ideas?

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