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  • Full text index requires dropping and recreating - why?

    - by Amjid Qureshi
    Hi all, So I've got a web app running on .net 3.5 connected to a SQL 2005 box. We do scheduled releases every 2 weeks. About 14 tables out of 250 are full text indexed. After not every release, but a few too many, the indexes crap out. They seem to have data in there, but when we try to search them from the front end or SQL enterprise we get timeouts/hangs. We have a script that disables the indexes, drops them, deletes the catalog and then re creates the indexes. This fixes the problem 99 times out of 100. and the one other time, we run the script again and it all works We have tried just rebuilding the fulltext index but that doesn't fix the issue. My question is why do we have to do this ? what can we do to sort the index out? Here is a bit of the script, IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) ALTER FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] DISABLE GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) DROP FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sysfulltextcatalogs ftc WHERE ftc.name = N'DbName.FullTextCatalog') DROP FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] GO -- may need this line if we get an error BACKUP LOG SMS2 WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] ON FILEGROUP [FullTextCatalogs] IN PATH N'F:\Data' AS DEFAULT AUTHORIZATION [dbo] CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX ON [Address](CommonPlace LANGUAGE 'ENGLISH') KEY INDEX PK_Address ON [DbName.FullTextCatalog] WITH CHANGE_TRACKING AUTO go

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  • SQL Server SELECT stored procedure according to combobox.selectedvalue

    - by Jay
    In order to fill a datagridview according to the selectedvalue of a combobox I've tried creating a stored procedure. However, as I'm not 100% sure what I'm doing, depending on the WHERE statement at the end of my stored procedure, it either returns everything within the table or nothing at all. This is what's in my class: Public Function GetAankoopDetails(ByRef DisplayMember As String, ByRef ValueMember As String) As DataTable DisplayMember = "AankoopDetailsID" ValueMember = "AankoopDetailsID" If DS.Tables.Count > 0 Then DS.Tables.Remove(DT) End If DT = DAC.ExecuteDataTable(My.Resources.S_AankoopDetails, _Result, _ DAC.Parameter(Const_AankoopID, AankoopID), _ DAC.Parameter("@ReturnValue", 0)) DS.Tables.Add(DT) Return DT End Function Public Function GetAankoopDetails() As DataTable If DS.Tables.Count > 0 Then DS.Tables.Remove(DT) End If DT = DAC.ExecuteDataTable(My.Resources.S_AankoopDetails, _Result, _ DAC.Parameter(Const_AankoopID, AankoopID), _ DAC.Parameter("@ReturnValue", 0)) DS.Tables.Add(DT) Return DT End Function This is the function in the code behind the form I've written in order to fill the datagridview: Private Sub GridAankoopDetails_Fill() Try Me.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor dgvAankoopDetails.DataSource = Nothing _clsAankoopDetails.AankoopDetailsID = cboKeuze.SelectedValue dgvAankoopDetails.DataSource = _clsAankoopDetails.GetAankoopDetails Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("An error occurred while trying to fill the data grid: " & ex.Message, "Oops!", MessageBoxButtons.OK) Finally Me.Cursor = Cursors.Default End Try End Sub And finally, this is my stored procedure: (do note that I'm not sure what I'm doing here) USE [Budget] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[S_AankoopDetails] Script Date: 04/12/2010 03:10:52 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[S_AankoopDetails] ( @AankoopID int, @ReturnValue int output ) AS declare @Value int set @Value =@@rowcount if @Value = 0 begin SELECT dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopDetailsID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.ArtikelID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Aantal, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Prijs, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Korting, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.SoortKorting, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.UitgavenDeelGroepID FROM dbo.tblAankoopDetails INNER JOIN dbo.tblAankoop ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID = dbo.tblAankoop.AankoopID INNER JOIN dbo.tblArtikel ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.ArtikelID = dbo.tblArtikel.ArtikelID INNER JOIN dbo.tblUitgavenDeelGroep ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.UitgavenDeelGroepID = dbo.tblUitgavenDeelGroep.UitgavenDeelGroepID WHERE dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Deleted = 0 and dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID = @AankoopID ORDER BY AankoopID if @@rowcount >0 begin set @ReturnValue=999 end else begin set @ReturnValue=997 end end if @Value >0 begin --Dit wil zeggen dat ik een gebruiker wil ingeven die reeds bestaat. (998) set @ReturnValue=998 end Does anyone know what I need to do to resolve this?

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  • Formatted text encoding in binary plist

    - by Sean
    I'm trying to do some scripting that edits a binary plist file. The plist describes the objects contained in a DVD studio pro file. It appears that a text box in DVD studio pro is encoded in the plist as hex data that describes the text string along with its formatting. I can't seem to figure out how to understand this data. Ideally, I'd like to be able to alter the text string but not the formatting. The following seems to describe a text box that says "Menu title here". There are two hex strings, one with the key called "dictionary" and the other called "string"; both are CFData. Any ideas how I can parse this or convert this into a format that I can edit directly? I've been playing around with writing a little converter in cocoa, but no luck yet. <dict> <key>Dictionary</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhAxOU0Rp Y3Rpb25hcnkA hIQITlNPYmpl Y3QAhYQBaQaS hISECE5TU3Ry aW5nAZSEASsG TlNGb250hpKE hIQGTlNGb250 HpSVJIQFWzM2 Y10GAAAAGgAA AP/+TAB1AGMA aQBkAGEARwBy AGEAbgBkAGUA AACEAWYVhAFj AJsBmwCbAIaS hJaXB05TQ29s b3KGkoSEhAdO U0NvbG9yAJSb AYQEZmZmZoPz 8nI/g/Dvbz+D 7OtrPwGGkoSW lwtOU0V4cGFu c2lvboaShISE CE5TTnVtYmVy AISEB05TVmFs dWUAlIQBKoSa moNHx9c9hpKE lpcNTlNPYmxp cXVlbmVzc4aS hJ6ghIQBZKEA hpKElpcQTlNQ YXJhZ3JhcGhT dHlsZYaShISE EE5TUGFyYWdy YXBoU3R5bGUA lIQEQ0NAUwAA hQCGkoSWlxFO U0JhY2tncm91 bmRDb2xvcoaS hJubA4QCZmYA AIaG </data> <key>String</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhBJOU0F0 dHJpYnV0ZWRT dHJpbmcAhIQI TlNPYmplY3QA hZKEhIQITlNT dHJpbmcBlIQB Kw9OZW51IFRp dGxlIEhlcmWG hAJpSQEPkoSE hAxOU0RpY3Rp b25hcnkAlIQB aQWShJaWDU5T T2JsaXF1ZW5l c3OGkoSEhAhO U051bWJlcgCE hAdOU1ZhbHVl AJSEASqEhAFk nQCGkoSWlgtO U0V4cGFuc2lv boaShJuchIQB Zp6DR8fXPYaS hJaWEE5TUGFy YWdyYXBoU3R5 bGWGkoSEhBBO U1BhcmFncmFw aFN0eWxlAJSE BENDQFMAAIUA hpKElpYGTlNG b250hpKEhIQG TlNGb250HpSZ JIQFWzM2Y10G AAAAGgAAAP/+ TAB1AGMAaQBk AGEARwByAGEA bgBkAGUAAACe FYQBYwCjAaMA owCGkoSWlgdO U0NvbG9yhpKE hIQHTlNDb2xv cgCUowGEBGZm ZmaD8/JyP4Pw 728/g+zraz8B hoaG </data> </dict>

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

    - by Emil
    Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

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  • encrypt apache and mysql servers

    - by stormdrain
    I have a question about encrypting disks. I have 2 servers: 1 is apache for web/frontend and it talks to server 2 which is mysql. They are all for intranet only; no external access. I was looking into using PGP or GnuPG to encrypt the disks. I'm not clear, though, as to exactly how this would work. Where would the keys be stored? On the client? On apache? If there is a key on apache to access mysql, does there need to be a key for each user? If so, if key 1 is used to alter some data, would then that data be inaccessible to a user using key 2? And the apache key, would that only be accessible to users with local keys? Is encryption done on the fly? Does it degrade performance? What would be the best approach to encrypt the data on these servers, but have them accessible to users? Thanks!

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Procedure or function AppendDataCT has too many arguments specified

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS 2008 / SQL Server website application. I am a newbie to ASP.NET. I am getting the above compiler error. Can you give me advice on how to fix this? Code snippet: public static string AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary<int, string> dic) { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AW3_string"].ConnectionString; string errorMsg; try { SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter p1, p2, p3; foreach (string s in dt.Rows[1].ItemArray) { DataRow dr = dt.Rows[1]; // second row p1 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[0], (string)dr[0]); p1.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p2 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[1], (string)dr[1]); p2.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p3 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[2], (string)dr[2]); p3.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } conn2.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); It errors on this last line here. And here is that SP: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[AppendDataCT] @col1 VARCHAR(50), @col2 VARCHAR(50), @col3 VARCHAR(50) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @TEMP DATETIME SET @TEMP = (SELECT CONVERT (DATETIME, @col3)) INSERT INTO Person.ContactType (Name, ModifiedDate) VALUES( @col2, @TEMP) END

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  • jquery .submit live click runs more than once

    - by fxuser
    I use the following code to run my form ajax requests but when i use the live selector on a button i can see the ajax response fire 1 time, then if i re-try it 2 times, 3 times, 4 times and so on... I use .live because i also have a feature to add a post and that appears instantly so the user can remove it without refreshing the page... Then this leads to the above problem... using .click could solve this but it's not the ideal solution i'm looking for... jQuery.fn.postAjax = function(success_callback, show_confirm) { this.submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if (show_confirm == true) { if (confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this item? You can\'t undo this.')) { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } } else { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } return false; }) return this; }; $(document).ready(function() { $(".delete_button").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().postAjax(function(data) { if (data.error == true) { } else { } }, true); }); });? EDIT: temporary solution is to change this.submit(function(e) { to this.unbind('submit').bind('submit',function(e) { the problem is how can i protect it for real because people who know how to use Firebug or the same tool on other browsers can easily alter my Javascript code and re-create the problem

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  • Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

    - by Telos
    I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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  • Toggle Blind Effect

    - by flipflopmedia
    Is there a way to alter this script to be used as the blind effect. // Andy Langton's show/hide/mini-accordion - updated 23/11/2009 // Latest version @ http://andylangton.co.uk/jquery-show-hide // this tells jquery to run the function below once the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // choose text for the show/hide link - can contain HTML (e.g. an image) var showText=''; var hideText=''; // initialise the visibility check var is_visible = false; // append show/hide links to the element directly preceding the element with a class of "toggle" $('.toggle').prev().append(' '+showText+''); // hide all of the elements with a class of 'toggle' $('.toggle').hide(); // capture clicks on the toggle links $('a.toggleLink').click(function() { // switch visibility is_visible = !is_visible; // toggle the display - uncomment the next line for a basic "accordion" style //$('.toggle').hide();$('a.toggleLink').html(showText); $(this).parent().next('.toggle').toggle('slow'); // return false so any link destination is not followed return false; }); }); FYI- Where it says: var showText=''; var hideText=''; It was originally: var showText='Show'; var hideText='Hide'; I deleted the Show/Hide Text because I am applying the link to different areas of text. I like the Blind effect, vs. this Toggle effect, and need to know how to apply it, if possible. I cannot find a basic Blind effect script that allows the use of applying the link to ANY text, vs. a button or static text. Thanks! Hope you can help! Tracy

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  • What issues to consider when rolling your own data-backend for Silverlight / AJAX on non-ASP.NET ser

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have read-only Silverlight and AJAX apps which read static text and XML files from a PHP/Apache server, which works very nicely with features such as asynchronous loading, lazy-loading only what I need for each page, loading in the background, developed a little query language to get a PHP script to create custom XML files etc. it's pragmatic read-only REST, and all works fast and fine for read-only sites. Now I want to also add the ability to write data from these apps to a database on the same PHP/Apache server. For those of you who have built similar data-access layers, what do I need to consider while building this, especially regarding security so that not just any client can write and alter my database, e.g.: check HTTP_USER_AGENT for security check REMOTE_ADDR for security require a special code for security, perhaps a list of TAN codes (such as banks use for online transactions) each which can only be used once, both the client and server have these I wonder if there is some kind of standard REST query I should lean on for e.g. building SQL-like statements in the URL parameters, e.g. http://www.thedatalayersite.com/query?insertinto=customers&... Any thoughts, notes from experience, ideas, gotchas, especially ideas on tightening down security in this endeavor would be helpful.

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  • Handle cases where Nhibernate subclass does not exist

    - by kaykayman
    I have a scenario where I am using nhibernate to map records from one table to several different derived classes based on a discriminator. public class BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass0 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass1 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { } I then use nhibernate's DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn() method and alter the configuration to include <subclass name="DerivedClass0" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator0" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass1" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator1" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass2" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator2" /> so that when mapped, these classes are cast to their derived classes and not BaseClass. However, there are some records in my database which have a discriminator which does not have a corresponding subclass. In these cases, nHibernate throws an error: "Object with id: 'xxx' was not of the specified subclass..." Is there some way I can handle this, so that any records which do not have a corresponding subclass are cast to BaseClass rather than an error being thrown? I have simplified the above as much as possible, however it is worth noting that the XML is edited dynamically which is why I am referencing fluent nhibernate [DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn()] and XML at the same time. The following things (which would help) are not an option: I cannot correct the data to remove records which are invalid I cannot create subclasses for those records which do not have one I need to handle cases where nHibernate tries to map on a discriminator and finds that one does not exist.

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  • OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

    - by Aaron
    I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

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  • Communication between modules

    - by David Elentok
    I have an application that consists from the following three modules: Search (to search for objects) List (to display the search results) Painter (to allow me to edit objects) - this module isn't always loaded (Each object is a figure that I can edit in the painter). When I open an object in the painter it's added to the objects that are already in the painter and I can move it and alter it. I'm using an object similar to the EventAggregator to communicate between the modules. For example, to show the search results I publish a "ShowList" event that is caught by the List module (I'm not sure this is the best way to do this, if anyone has better idea please comment...). One of the features of the search module requires it to get the selected object in the painter (if the painter is available), and I'm not sure what would be the best way to do that... I thought of these solutions: Whenever the selected object in the painter changes it will publish a "PainterSelectedObjectChanged" event which will be caught by the search module and stored for later use. When the selected object is needed by the search module it will publish a "RequestingPainterSelectedObject" event which will be caught by the painter module. The painter module will then set the "SelectedObject" property in the EventArgs object, and when the publish is complete and we're back in the search module we will have the painter's selected object in the EventArgs object. What do you think? what is the right way to do this?

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  • Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

    - by Giffyguy
    I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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  • web design question (php/ajax)

    - by tom smith
    Hi guys... Hope this isn't a waste of your time. I'm working on a project, and it occured to me that there's a chunk of code out there, that should allow me to see how others have implemented this. I've got a project where I'm going to have a page, with a sel box. the user will select an item from the selList, and based on the item selected, a separate section of the page (areaB) will change in terms of the content/tbls being displayed. i then want to allow the user to go through a series of subpages in areaB, where the user goes through a submit/cancel/confirm process, where the stuff in areaB changes, with the rest of the page remaining the same... i'm trying to figure out the best approach to implement the on both client/server side. i could just have an ugly "if block" where i have abunch of logic, and i completely regen the page each time the user selects an action.. i could have an approach that might involve divs/frames, where i then just regen the targeted frame/div area.. is this even possible?? i could have some form of ajaxy process, which would only alter the targeted section(s) of the page... so.. i'm trying to talk to anyone who has ideas on how to do this, or more ideally, if you know of a good code (client/server) side example of this... that i can examine. i'd really appreciate it!! i've got a more detailed overview but didn't know if it would be cool to post it here... thanks.. tom

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  • How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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  • C#: Easy access to the member of a singleton ICollection<> ?

    - by Rosarch
    I have an ICollection that I know will only ever have one member. Currently, I loop through it, knowing the loop will only ever run once, to grab the value. Is there a cleaner way to do this? I could alter the persistentState object to return single values, but that would complicate the rest of the interface. It's grabbing data from XML, and for the most part ICollections are appropriate. // worldMapLinks ensured to be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> worldMapLinks = persistentState.GetAllOfType("worldMapLink"); string levelName = ""; //worldMapLinks.GetEnumerator().Current['filePath']; // this loop will only run once foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in worldMapLinks) // hacky hack hack hack { levelName = dict["filePath"]; } // proceed with levelName loadLevel(levelName); Here is another example of the same issue: // meta will be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> meta = persistentState.GetAllOfType("meta"); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in meta) // this loop should only run once. HACKS. { currentLevelName = dict["name"]; currentLevelCaption = dict["teaserCaption"]; } Yet another example: private Vector2 startPositionOfKV(ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> dicts) { Vector2 result = new Vector2(); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in dicts) // this loop will only ever run once { result.X = Single.Parse(dict["x"]); result.Y = Single.Parse(dict["y"]); } return result; }

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  • SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

    - by jlichauc
    Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

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  • Configuring mod_rewrite and mod_jk for Apache 2.2 and JBoss 4.2.3

    - by The Pretender
    Hello! My problem is as follows: I have JBoss 4.2.3 application server with AJP 1.3 connector running on one host under Windows (192.168.1.2 for my test environment) and Apache 2.2.14 running on another FreeBSD box (192.168.1.10). Apache acts as a "front gate" for all requests and sends them to JBoss via mod_jk. Everything was working fine until I had to do some SEO optimizations. These optimizations include SEF urls, so i decided to use mod_rewrite for Apache to alter requests before they are sent to JBoss. Basically, I nedd to implement 2 rules: Redirect old rules like "http://hostname/directory/" to "http://hostname/" with permanent redirect Forward urls like "http://hostname/wtf/123/" to "http://hostname/wtf/view.htm?id=123" so that end user doesn't see the "ugly" URL (the actual rewrite). Here is my Apache config for test virtual host: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/usr/local/www/dummy" ServerName 192.168.1.10 <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule /directory/(.*) /$1 [R=permanent,L] RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 </IfModule> JkMount /* jsp-hostname ErrorLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-access_log" common </VirtualHost> The problem is that second rewrite rule doesn't work. Requests slip through to JBoss unchanged, so I get Tomcat 404 error. But if I add redirect flag to the second rule like RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 [R,L] it works like a charm. But redirect is not what I need here :) . I suspect that the problem is that requests are forwarded to the another host (192.168.1.2), but I really don't have any idea on how to make it work. Any help would be appreciated :)

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  • What is the best way to save the environment from before an alarm handler goes off when the alarm do

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm trying to implement user threads on a 2.4 Linux kernel (homework) and the trick for context switch seems to be using an alarm that goes off every x milliseconds and sends us to an alarm handler from which we can longjmp to the next thread. What I'm having difficulties with is figuring out how to save the environment to return to later. Basically I have an array of jmp_buffs, and every time a "context switch" using the alarm happens I want to save the previous context to the appropriate entry of the array and longjmp to the next one. However, just the fact that I need to do this from the event handler means that just using setjmp in the event handler won't give me exactly the kind of environment I want (as far as stack and program counter are involved) because the stack has the event handler call in it and the pc is in the event handler. I suppose I can look at the stack and alter it to fit my needs, but that feels a bit cumbersome. Another idea I had is to somehow pass the environment before the jump to event handler as a parameter to the event handler, but I can't figure out if this is possible. So I guess my question is- how do I do this right?

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  • Error in Postgres execute

    - by RAJA
    I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

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  • How can I initialize a QTMovie object with certain attributes using writable data?

    - by c-had
    I'm trying to create an empty QTMovie object that I can add segments to, and then play. This is easy to do with something like: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initToWritableData:[NSMutableData dataWithCapacity:1048576] error:&error]; I can then use -insertSegmentOfMovie to insert segments from other movies into this one so I can play it back. The problem is that I also need to set a certain attribute when creating the QTMovie object. In particular, I need to set the QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute attribute, so that I can alter playback speed during playback without changing pitch. This attribute cannot be written after the movie is initialized. So, I can create the QTMovie object like this: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute, nil] error:&error]; Unfortunately, this is not editable. I've tried setting the QTMovieEditableAttribute as well on creation, but it does not help. I still get an exception when I try to insert anything into this movie. I presume this is because there is no writable file or data reference associated with the QTMovie. Any ideas on how to solve this?

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