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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 IDE freezes/crashes when opening .aspx file with css included

    - by Kai
    I have read a lot of questions about Visual Studio 2008 crashing on viewing some source files. However, I still can't fix this problem. Visual Studio (SP1) runs fine until I try and view .aspx source files with the lines <style type="text/css"> </stlye> anywhere in them, upon which it freezes (i.e is totally unresponsive) and I have to use the task manager to shut it down. I have systematically deleted and re-included all other code and it comes down to these two lines, which is very confusing. Sometimes it happens as soon as the lines are added, sometimes it doesn't freeze until I build the solution with any of the problem pages open. I can add external style sheets, and it only started recently. I tried the event viewer logs but I don't really understand how to use them to find out about this. I had Resharper 4.5 installed and have since uninstalled it, and do not have anything else installed. Is there any way I can a) find out what's happening, b) fix it without reinstalling vs?

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  • HttpURLConnection inside a loop

    - by Carlos Garces
    Hi! I'm trying to connect to one URL that I know that exist but I don't know when. I don't have access to this server so I can't change anything to receive a event. The actual code is this. URL url = new URL(urlName); for(int j = 0 ; j< POOLING && disconnected; j++){ HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); int status = connection.getResponseCode(); if(status == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK || status == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_NOT_MODIFIED){ //Some work }else{ //wait 3s Thread.sleep(3000); } } Java not is my best skill and I'm not sure if this code is good from the point of view of performance. I'm opening a new connection every 3 seconds? or the connection is reused? If I call to disconnect() I ensure that no new connections are open in the loop, but... it will impact in performance?. Suggestions? What is the fast/best ways to know it a URL exist?

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  • Actionscript project that loads a Flex SWF, "Could not find resource bundle" Error when using Layout

    - by Leeron
    Hi guys. I'm using an actionsciprt only project (under FlashDevelop) to load an .swf flex file built by another department of the company I work for. Using the follwing code: var mLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var mRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest('flexSWF.swf'); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onCompleteHandler); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, onProgressHandler); mLoader.load(mRequest); That worked fine until I wanted to use Flex's mx.managers.LayoutManager. I've added the this line to my class: import mx.managers.ILayoutManagerClient; import mx.managers.LayoutManager; . . . private var _layoutManager:LayoutManager; And I get this run time error: Error: Could not find resource bundle messaging at mx.resources::ResourceBundle$/getResourceBundle()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\resources\ResourceBundle.as:143] at mx.utils::Translator$cinit() at global$init() at mx.messaging.config::ServerConfig$cinit() at global$init() at _app_FlexInit$/init() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3217] at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3069] commenting the LayoutManager line, the swf works fine. But I do want to use LayoutManager. Any hints?

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • ASP Button Calling JavaScript Function

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now attempting to have an asp:button display/hide the calendar. What am I doing wrong? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="dateBtn" runat="server" UseSubmitBehavior="false" Text="x" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" > </asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub Page_Load (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Add OnClick event to call JavaScript to toggle calendar display' calBtn.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "toggleCalendar(" & cal.ClientID & ")") End Sub End Class HTML code for button (from browser) <input type="button" name="ctl03$calBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar(ctl03_cal);__doPostBack('ctl03$calBtn','')" id="ctl03_calBtn" />

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  • Flash CS5- Problem with "navigateToURL" in web-browswer hosted on MySpace

    - by NervXT
    I made a quick flash document for my friend who posted it his MySpace. The document has 3 buttons, each with a URL attached to them. When I play the SWF file locally, the links work fine, however once it's published to MySpace, the links refuse to work. The hand icon comes up so it understands them at least as buttons, but it seems to do nothing when clicked in the web-browser. Also, I can open the SWF in my browser and it also works fine. I'm using Flash CS5 and working in ActionScript 3.0. The three buttons are on one layer called "Buttons". I right click the button and click "Actions". From there, I click the "Code Snippets" and under the folder "Actions" there is an item called "Click to Go To Webpage". Here is the code it gives you by default: button_2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6); function fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6(event:MouseEvent):void { navigateToURL(new URLRequest("http://www.adobe.com"), "_blank"); } I heard there was a problem with MySpace not allowing action scripts, but after checking the source code of the web-page, the values in the "param" code seem to "always" allow action scripts. At any point, I'm lost and not sure what it causing this. I don't think it's a browser issue, since it's working fine when I execute the SWF by itself, and when I load it into Firefox. It's just seems MySpace is having a problem with it. Any advice is appreciated.

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  • WinMo > ASMX WebException - how to get details?

    - by eidylon
    Okay, we've got an application which consists of a website hosting several ASMX webservices, and a handheld application running on WinMo 6.1 which calls the webservices. Been developing in the office, everything works perfect. Now we've gone to install it at the client's and we got all the servers set up and the handhelds installed. However the handhelds are now no longer able to connect to the webservice. I added in extra code in my error handler to specifically trap WebException exceptions and handle them differently in the logging to put out extra information (.Status and .Response). I am getting out the status, which is returning a [7], or ProtocolError. However when I try to read out the ResponseStream (using WebException.Response.GetResponseStream), it is returning a stream with CanRead set to False, and I thus am unable to get any further details of what is going wrong. So I guess there are two things I am asking for help with... a) Any help with trying to get more information out of the WebException? b) What could be causing a ProtocolError exception? Things get extra complicated by the fact that the client has a full-blown log-in-enabled proxy setup going on-site. This was stopping all access to the website initially, even from a browser. So we entered in the login details in the network connection for HTTP on the WinMo device. Now it can get to websites fine. In fact, I can even pull up the webservice fine and call the methods from the browser (PocketIE). So I know the device is able to see the webservices okay via HTTP. But when trying to call them from the .NET app, it throws ProtocolError [7]. Here is my code which is logging the exception and failing to read out the Response from the WebException. Public Sub LogEx(ByVal ex As Exception) Try Dim fn As String = Path.Combine(ini.CorePath, "error.log") Dim t = File.AppendText(fn) t.AutoFlush = True t.WriteLine(<s>===== <%= Format(GetDateTime(), "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss") %> =====<%= vbCrLf %><%= ex.Message %></s>.Value) t.WriteLine() t.WriteLine(ex.ToString) t.WriteLine() If TypeOf ex Is WebException Then With CType(ex, WebException) t.WriteLine("STATUS: " & .Status.ToString & " (" & Val(.Status) & ")") t.WriteLine("RESPONSE:" & vbCrLf & StreamToString(.Response.GetResponseStream())) End With End If t.WriteLine("=".Repeat(50)) t.WriteLine() t.Close() Catch ix As Exception : Alert(ix) : End Try End Sub Private Function StreamToString(ByVal s As IO.Stream) As String If s Is Nothing Then Return "No response found." // THIS IS THE CASE BEING EXECUTED If Not s.CanRead Then Return "Unreadable response found." Dim rv As String = String.Empty, bytes As Long, buffer(4096) As Byte Using mem As New MemoryStream() Do While True bytes = s.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length) mem.Write(buffer, 0, bytes) If bytes = 0 Then Exit Do Loop mem.Position = 0 ReDim buffer(mem.Length) mem.Read(buffer, 0, mem.Length) mem.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin) rv = New StreamReader(mem).ReadToEnd() mem.Close() End Using Return rv.NullOf("Empty response found.") End Function Thanks in advance!

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  • CGContext problems

    - by Peyman
    Hi I have a CALayer tree hierarchy A B C D where A is the view's root layer (and I create and add B,C and D layers. I am using the same delegate method `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context to provide content to each of these layers (implemented through a switch statement in the above method). At initiation A's content is drawn (A.contents) sequentially through these methods `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context -(void) drawCircle:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context where drawCircle does CGContextSaveGState(context); / draws circle and other paths here / CGContextRestoreGState(context); CGImageRef contentImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); theLayer.contents = (id) contentImage; CGImageRelease(contentImage); (i.e I save the Context, do the drawing, restore the context, make a bitmap of the context, update the layer's contents, in this case A's, then release the contentimage). When the user then clicks somewhere in the circle at touchesEnded:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event delegate method I then try to paint the content of B by (still in touchesEnded:) CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [self drawLayer:self.B inContext:context]; [self.B setNeedsDisplay]; the setNeedsDisplay call the delegate - drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context again but this time the switch statement (using a layer flag) calls [self drawCircle:theLayer inContext:context]; with color red. The problem I am facing is that when -drawCircle: inContext: is called I get a long list of CGContext errors, starting with <Error>: CGContextSaveGState: invalid context and ending with CGBitmapContextCreateImage: invalid context I played around with making context the view's ivar and it worked so i am sure the context is the problem but I don't know what. I've tried CGContextFlush but it didn't help. Any help would be appreciated thank you

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  • Changing label content programmatically from within a DataTemplate used in a DataGrid column header

    - by iimpact
    I'm dynamically creating DataGrid columns (based on an event from my ViewModel) and programmatically adding them to an existing DataGrid. Each column uses a generic HeaderTemplate by setting it to a DataTemplate that has been identified in the xaml. The DataTemplate contains two labels in which needs their content needs to be changed upon creation of the DataGrid column. How would this be done? I understand that the DataTemplate uses the ContentPresenter but I am having trouble accessing it within a dynamically created DataGrid column. Code is as follows: xaml: (template used to format the DataGrid column header): <DataTemplate x:Key="columnTemplate"> <StackPanel> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelA"/> <Separator HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelB"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> c#: (used to dynamically create a DataGrid column and add it to an existing DataGrid) var dataTemplate = FindResource("columnTemplate") as DataTemplate; var column = new DataGridTextColumn(); column.HeaderTemplate = dataTemplate; DataGrid1.Columns.Add(column); I would like to then access both labelA and labelB and change the content.

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  • How to compile ocaml to native code

    - by Indra Ginanjar
    i'm really interested learning ocaml, it fast (they said it could be compiled to native code) and it's functional. So i tried to code something easy like enabling mysql event scheduler. #load "unix.cma";; #directory "+mysql";; #load "mysql.cma";; let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; It work fine on ocaml interpreter, but when i was trying to compile it to native (i'm using ubuntu karmic), neither of these command worked ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cmxa mysql.cmxa ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma i also tried ocamlc -c mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma all of them resulting same message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 0-1: Error: Syntax error Then i tried to remove the "# load", so the code goes like this let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; The ocamlopt resulting message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 9-28: Error: Unbound value Mysql.quick_connect I hope someone could tell me, where did i'm doing wrong.

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • jQuery - IF then Remove class on .hover

    - by danit
    I have the following jQuery function: $(function(){ if ($(".menu li").hasClass("active")) { $(".active").css("margin-top", "6px"); } }); This is applied to a CSS/jQuery menu, which expands and contracts when each menu item is hovered over. The onClick event adds a margin-top of 6px to give the impressions of a button depress. I'm then using PHP to detect which page the user is visiting to add an .active class to the relevant menu item. The question, the .active class should remain in place until the user hovers over a different menu item. At which point the .active class should be removed from this element - As the .active class is reused on the .hover events. Here is the basic HTML Markup: <ul id="menu"> <li> <div class="inner"> <div class="button"><img src="images/insightbutton.png" /></div> <div class="description">&nbsp;</div> </div> </li> <li> <div class="inner"> <div class="button"><img src="images/insightbutton.png" /></div> <div class="description">&nbsp;</div> </div> </li> </ul> How can I keep the .active class applied to the active menu item, but remove it when .inner is hovered over?

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  • Avoid the collapsing effect on TreeView after updating data

    - by Manolete
    I have a TreeView used to display events. It works great, however every time new events are coming in and populating the tree collapse the tree again to the original position. That is very annoying when the refresh time is less than 1 second and it does not allow the user to interact with the items of the tree. Is there any way to avoid this behaviour? <TreeView Margin="1" BorderThickness="0" Name="eventsTree" ItemsSource="{Binding EventAlertContainers}" Background="#00000000" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" FontSize="14" VirtualizingStackPanel.IsVirtualizing="True"> <TreeView.Resources> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:EventAlertContainer}" ItemsSource="{Binding EventAlerts}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="3,0" Source="Resources\Process_info_32.png" /> <TextBlock FontWeight="Bold" FontSize="16" Text="{Binding Description}" /> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:EventAlert}" ItemsSource="{Binding Events}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="0,0" Source="Resources\clock2_32.jpg" /> <TextBlock FontWeight="DemiBold" FontSize="14" Text="{Binding Name}" /> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type C:Event}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Width="20" Height="20" Margin="0,0" Source="Resources\Task_32.png" /> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock FontSize="12" Text="{Binding Name}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> </TreeView>

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  • wpf c# databinding on object

    - by Enriquev
    Hello, say I have this control: public partial class bloc999 : UserControl { bloc999Data mainBlock = new bloc999Data(); public bloc999() { InitializeComponent(); mainBlock.txtContents = "100"; base.DataContext = mainBlock; } } in the xaml: <TextBox Margin="74,116,106,0" Name="txtContents" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Margin="74,145,106,132" Name="txtContents2" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents2, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> Then I have this class: public class bloc999Data : INotifyPropertyChanged { string _txtContents; string _txtContents2; public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propName)); } public string txtContents2 { get { return this._txtContents2; } set { if (int.Parse(value) > int.Parse(this._txtContents)) { this._txtContents2 = "000"; } else this._txtContents2 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents2"); } } public string txtContents { get { return this._txtContents; } set { this._txtContents = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents"); } } } Ok now say I have A button on the form and I do this in the code: mainBlock.txtContents2 = "7777777"; It puts 000 in the textbox, but If i just type in manually, in the textbox (txtContents2, the setter code is called but for some reason the textboxes value does not change, the instance value does change. help?

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  • How to solve with using Flex Builder 3 and BlazeDS?

    - by Teerasej
    Hi, everyone. Thank you for interesting in my question, I think you can help me out from this little problem. I am using Flex builder 3, BlazeDS, and Java with Spring and Hibernate framework. I using the remote object to load a string from spring's configuration files. But in testing, I found this fault event like this: RPC Fault faultString="java.lang.NullPointerException" faultCode="Server.Processing" faultDetail="null" I have check the configuration in remote-config.xml and services-config.xml. But it looks good. There is some people talked about this problem around the internet and I think you can help me and them. I am using these environment: Flex Builder 3 BlazeDS 3.2.0 JBoss server Full stacktrace: [RPC Fault faultString="java.lang.NullPointerException" faultCode="Server.Processing" faultDetail="null"] at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::faultHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AbstractInvoker.as:220] at mx.rpc::Responder/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\Responder.as:53] at mx.rpc::AsyncRequest/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AsyncRequest.as:103] at NetConnectionMessageResponder/statusHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\messaging\channels\NetConnectionChannel.as:569] at mx.messaging::MessageResponder/status()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\messaging\MessageResponder.as:222]

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  • WPF: Once I set a property in code, it ignores XAML binding forever more... how do I prevent that?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a button that has a datatrigger that is used to disable the button if a certain property is not set to true: <Button Name="ExtendButton" Click="ExtendButton_Click" Margin="0,0,0,8"> <Button.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsConnected}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> That's some very simple binding, and it works perfectly. I can set "IsConnected" true and false and true and false and true and false, and I love to see my button just auto-magically become disabled, then enabled, etc. etc. However, in my Button_Click event... I want to: Disable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = false;) Run some asynchronous code (that hits a server... takes about 1 second). Re-enable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = true;) The problem is, the very instant that I manually set IsEnabled to either true or false... my XAML binding will never fire again. This makes me very sad :( I wish that IsEnabled was tri-state... and that true meant true, false meant false and null meant inherit. But that is not the case, so what do I do?

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  • CakePHP passing parameters to action

    - by iancocco
    Hi im kinda new in cakephp and having a lot of trouble adjusting.. Here's my biggest problem .. Im trying to pass a parameter to an action, it does load, but when my script goes from the controller to the view, and goes back to the controller again, its gone. CONTROLLER CODE function add($mac = 0) { if(isset($this->params['form']['medico'])) { $temp= $this->Person->find('first', array('conditions' => array('smartphones_MAC' => $mac))); $id= $temp['Person']['id']; $this->Union->set('events_id', $id+1); $this->Union->set('people_id', $id); $this->Union->save(); } VIEW CODE (This is a menu, i only have one button right now) <fieldset> <legend>SELECCIONE SU ALERTA</legend> <?php echo $form->create('Event'); echo $form->submit('EMERGENCIA MEDICA',array('name'=>'medico')); echo $form->end(); ?> </fieldset>

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  • having trouble disabling textbox in vb.net

    - by user225269
    How do I disable a textbox the second time? here is my code, In form load the textbox is disabled, unless the user will input an idnumber that is in the database. But what if the user will input an idnumber that is in the database then, input again another that is not, That is where this code comes in, but it has problems, it doesnt disable the textbox in the event of a mouse click, what would be the proper way of doing this? Private Sub Button12_MouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles Button12.MouseClick Dim NoAcc As String Dim NoAccmod2 As String Dim NoPas As String Dim sqlcon As New MySqlConnection("Server=localhost; Database=school;Uid=root;Pwd=nitoryolai123$%^;") Dim sqlcom As MySqlCommand = New MySqlCommand("Select * from student where IDNO= '" & TextBox14.Text & "' ", sqlcon) sqlcon.Open() Dim rdr As MySqlDataReader rdr = sqlcom.ExecuteReader If rdr.HasRows Then rdr.Read() NoAcc = rdr("IDNO") If (TextBox14.Text <> NoAcc) Then MsgBox("ID Number is not yet registered!, please register first in the general information before trying to register parents information", MsgBoxStyle.Information) TextBox7.Enabled = False TextBox8.Enabled = False TextBox9.Enabled = False TextBox10.Enabled = False TextBox11.Enabled = False TextBox12.Enabled = False TextBox13.Enabled = False End If End If

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  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • Filling combobox from database by using hibernate in Java

    - by denny
    Heyy; I am developing a small swing based application with hibernate in java. And I want fill combobox from database coloumn.How i can do that ? And I don't know in where(under initComponents, buttonActionPerformd) i need to do. For saving i'am using jbutton and it's code is here : private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { int idd=Integer.parseInt(jTextField1.getText()); String name=jTextField2.getText(); String description=jTextField3.getText(); Session session = null; SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); Transaction transaction = session.getTransaction(); try { ContactGroup con = new ContactGroup(); con.setId(idd); con.setGroupName(name); con.setGroupDescription(description); transaction.begin(); session.save(con); transaction.commit(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally{ session.close(); } }

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  • show/hide a link if certain jquery ui tab is selected.

    - by Mark
    When #my-text-link is clicked, i need to select tab 5 and when tab 5 is selected i need to hide #my-text-link. hope this makes sense, heres the code, and also what I have done so far, please feel free to show me a better way. Thanks in advance var $tabs = $('.tabbed').tabs(); // first tab selected $('#my-text-link').click(function() { // bind click event to link $tabs.tabs('select', 4); // switch to third tab $('#my-text-link').hide(); return false; }); <a href="#" id="my-text-link"></a> <ul> <li class="one"><a href="#tabs-1" title="Summary"></a></li> <li class="two"><a href="#tabs-2" title="Detailed Info"></a></li> <li class="three"><a href="#tabs-3" title="Images"></a></li> <li class="four"><a href="#tabs-4" title="Reviews"></a></li> <li class="five"><a href="#tabs-5" title="Dates &amp; Prices"></a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"></div> <div id="tabs-2"></div> <div id="tabs-3"></div> <div id="tabs-4"></div> <div id="tabs-5"></div>

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