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  • Unable to install gem "pg" on Ubuntu 12.10 (AMD64)

    - by Lynx_Eyes
    I've been (unsuccessfully) trying to install the "pg" gem on my ruby 1.9.3-p286 but nothing seems to work. I've already installed postgresql (9.1), libpq-dev and a few others like postgresql-server-dev-9.1. I've tried to pass the "with-pg-config" flag to the gem install but simply nothing seems to work. Every time I try to install the gem it outputs something like this: Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing pg: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /home/lynux/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.3-p286/bin/ruby extconf.rb checking for pg_config... yes Using config values from /usr/bin/pg_config checking for libpq-fe.h... yes checking for libpq/libpq-fs.h... yes checking for pg_config_manual.h... yes checking for PQconnectdb() in -lpq... no checking for PQconnectdb() in -llibpq... no checking for PQconnectdb() in -lms/libpq... no Can't find the PostgreSQL client library (libpq) *** extconf.rb failed *** Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=/home/lynux/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.3-p286/bin/ruby --with-pg --without-pg --with-pg-dir --without-pg-dir --with-pg-include --without-pg-include=${pg-dir}/include --with-pg-lib --without-pg-lib=${pg-dir}/lib --with-pg-config --without-pg-config --with-pg_config --without-pg_config --with-pqlib --without-pqlib --with-libpqlib --without-libpqlib --with-ms/libpqlib --without-ms/libpqlib Gem files will remain installed in /home/lynux/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p286@phisiodata/gems/pg-0.14.1 for inspection. Results logged to /home/lynux/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p286@phisiodata/gems/pg-0.14.1/ext/gem_make.out What am I doing wrong? Is there something else that I should do before trying to install the gem? Thank you in advance. [EDIT] Ok, so joelparkerhenderson's answer set me to think that there might me something wrong with paths and libraries and a went on digging a little bit further.. I've found this awesome post and it solved! Basically the problem lies with RVM. So, my problem is solved and for anyone out there that might suffer from the same thing, follow the link!

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  • Coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    I would like to do some stuff in Java that would be clearer if written using concurrent routines, but for which full-on threads are serious overkill. The answer, of course, is the use of coroutines, but there doesn't appear to be any coroutine support in the standard Java libraries and a quick Google on it brings up tantalising hints here or there, but nothing substantial. Here's what I've found so far: JSIM has a coroutine class, but it looks pretty heavyweight and conflates, seemingly, with threads at points. The point of this is to reduce the complexity of full-on threading, not to add to it. Further I'm not sure that the class can be extracted from the library and used independently. Xalan has a coroutine set class that does coroutine-like stuff, but again it's dubious if this can be meaningfully extracted from the overall library. It also looks like it's implemented as a tightly-controlled form of thread pool, not as actual coroutines. There's a Google Code project which looks like what I'm after, but if anything it looks more heavyweight than using threads would be. I'm basically nervous of something that requires software to dynamically change the JVM bytecode at runtime to do its work. This looks like overkill and like something that will cause more problems than coroutines would solve. Further it looks like it doesn't implement the whole coroutine concept. By my glance-over it gives a yield feature that just returns to the invoker. Proper coroutines allow yields to transfer control to any known coroutine directly. Basically this library, heavyweight and scary as it is, only gives you support for iterators, not fully-general coroutines. The promisingly-named Coroutine for Java fails because it's a platform-specific (obviously using JNI) solution. And that's about all I've found. I know about the native JVM support for coroutines in the Da Vinci Machine and I also know about the JNI continuations trick for doing this. These are not really good solutions for me, however, as I would not necessarily have control over which VM or platform my code would run on. (Indeed any bytecode manipulation system would suffer similar problems -- it would be best were this pure Java if possible. Runtime bytecode manipulation would restrict me from using this on Android, for example.) So does anybody have any pointers? Is this even possible? If not, will it be possible in Java 7?

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  • How to clean and simplify this code?

    - by alkalim
    After thinking about This Question and giving an answer to it I wanted to do more about that to train myself. So I wrote a function which will calc the length of an given function. Th given php-file has to start at the beginning of the needed function. Example: If the function is in a big phpfile with lots of functions, like /* lots of functions */ function f_interesting($arg) { /* function */ } /* lots of other functions */ then $part3 of my function will require to begin like that (after the starting-{ of the interesting function): /* function */ } /* lots of other functions */ Now that's not the problem, but I would like to know if there are an cleaner or simplier ways to do this. Here's my function: (I already cleaned a lot of testing-echo-commands) (The idea behind it is explained here) function f_analysis ($part3) { if(isset($part3)) { $char_array = str_split($part3); //get array of chars $end_key = false; //length of function $depth = 0; //How much of unclosed '{' $in_sstr = false; //is next char inside in ''-String? $in_dstr = false; //is nect char inside an ""-String? $in_sl_comment = false; //inside an //-comment? $in_ml_comment = false; //inside an /* */-comment? $may_comment = false; //was the last char an '/' which can start a comment? $may_ml_comment_end = false; //was the last char an '*' which may end a /**/-comment? foreach($char_array as $key=>$char) { if($in_sstr) { if ($char == "'") { $in_sstr = false; } } else if($in_dstr) { if($char == '"') { $in_dstr = false; } } else if($in_sl_comment) { if($char == "\n") { $in_sl_comment = false; } } else if($in_ml_comment) { if($may_ml_comment_end) { $may_ml_comment_end = false; if($char == '/') { $in_ml_comment = false; } } if($char == '*') { $may_ml_comment_end = true; } } else if ($may_comment) { if($char == '/') { $in_sl_comment = true; } else if($char == '*') { $in_ml_comment = true; } $may_comment = false; } else { switch ($char) { case '{': $depth++; break; case '}': $depth--; break; case '/': $may_comment = true; break; case '"': $in_dstr = true; break; case "'": $in_sstr = true; break; } } if($depth < 0) { $last_key = $key; break; } } } else echo '<br>$part3 of f_analysis not set!'; return ($last_key===false) ? false : $last_key+1; //will be false or the length of the function }

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  • Virtual member call in a constructor when assigning value to property

    - by comecme
    I have an Abstract class and a Derived class. The abstract class defines an abstract property named Message. In the derived class, the property is implemented by overriding the abstract property. The constructor of the derived class takes a string argument and assigns it to its Message property. In Resharper, this assignment leads to a warning "Virtual member call in constructor". The AbstractClass has this definition: public abstract class AbstractClass { public abstract string Message { get; set; } protected AbstractClass() { } public abstract void PrintMessage(); } And the DerivedClass is as follows: using System; public class DerivedClass : AbstractClass { private string _message; public override string Message { get { return _message; } set { _message = value; } } public DerivedClass(string message) { Message = message; // Warning: Virtual member call in a constructor } public DerivedClass() : this("Default DerivedClass message") {} public override void PrintMessage() { Console.WriteLine("DerivedClass PrintMessage(): " + Message); } } I did find some other questions about this warning, but in those situations there is an actual call to a method. For instance, in this question, the answer by Matt Howels contains some sample code. I'll repeat it here for easy reference. class Parent { public Parent() { DoSomething(); } protected virtual void DoSomething() {}; } class Child : Parent { private string foo; public Child() { foo = "HELLO"; } protected override void DoSomething() { Console.WriteLine(foo.ToLower()); } } Matt doesn't describe on what error the warning would appear, but I'm assuming it will be on the call to DoSomething in the Parent constructor. In this example, I understand what is meant by a virtual member being called. The member call occurs in the base class, in which only a virtual method exists. In my situation however, I don't see why assigning a value to Message would be calling a virtual member. Both the call to and the implementation of the Message property are defined in the derived class. Although I can get rid of the error by making my Derived Class sealed, I would like to understand why this situation is resulting in the warning.

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  • Unable to add item to dataset in Linq to SQL

    - by Mike B
    I am having an issue adding an item to my dataset in Linq to SQL. I am using the exact same method in other tables with no problem. I suspect I know the problem but cannot find an answer (I also suspect all i really need is the right search term for Google). Please keep in mind this is a learning project (Although it is in use in a business) I have posted my code and datacontext below. What I am doing is: Create a view model (Relevant bits are shown) and a simple wpf window that allows editing of 3 properties that are bound to the category object. Category is from the datacontext. Edit works fine but add does not. If I check GetChangeSet() just before the db.submitChanges() call there are no adds, edits or deletes. I suspect an issue with the fact that a Category added without a Subcategory would be an orphan but I cannot seem to find the solution. Command code to open window: CategoryViewModel vm = new CategoryViewModel(); AddEditCategoryWindow window = new AddEditCategoryWindow(vm); window.ShowDialog(); ViewModel relevant stuff: public class CategoryViewModel : ViewModelBase { public Category category { get; set; } // Constructor used to Edit a Category public CategoryViewModel(Int16 categoryID) { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = QueryCategory(categoryID); } // Constructor used to Add a Category public CategoryViewModel() { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = new Category(); } } The code for saving changes: // Don't close window unless all controls are validated if (!vm.IsValid(this)) return; var changes = vm.db.GetChangeSet(); // DEBUG try { vm.db.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode.ContinueOnConflict); } catch (ChangeConflictException) { vm.db.ChangeConflicts.ResolveAll(RefreshMode.KeepChanges); vm.db.SubmitChanges(); } The Xaml (Edited fror brevity): <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatName, Mode=TwoWay, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatDescription, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding category.CatIsInactive, Mode=TwoWay}" /> IssCategory in the Issues table is the old, text based category. This field is no longer used and will be removed from the database as soon as this is working and pushed live.

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  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

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  • Is it possible to swap lines of xml code in soap

    - by John
    I wish to send a request like <v:Envelope xmlns:i="xxx"> <v:Header /> <v:Body> <sendTwoWaySmsMessage xmlns="xxx" id="o0" c:root="1"> <connectionId i:type="d:string">connectionId</connectionId> <twoWaySmsMessage> <message i:type="d:string">love it. It seems to work</message> <mobiles i:type="d:string">345</mobiles> <messageId i:type="d:string">123</messageId> </twoWaySmsMessage> </sendTwoWaySmsMessage> </v:Body> </v:Envelope> what i get is <v:Envelope xmlns:i="xxx"> <v:Header /> <v:Body> <sendTwoWaySmsMessage xmlns="xxx" id="o0" c:root="1"> <twoWaySmsMessage> <message i:type="d:string">love it. It seems to work</message> <mobiles i:type="d:string">345</mobiles> <messageId i:type="d:string">123</messageId> </twoWaySmsMessage> <connectionId i:type="d:string">connectionId</connectionId> </sendTwoWaySmsMessage> </v:Body> </v:Envelope> code is SoapObject request = new SoapObject(WSDL_TARGET_NAMESPACE, url); SoapObject message = new SoapObject("", "twoWaySmsMessage"); request.addProperty("connectionId", did); message.addProperty("message", "love it. It seems to work"); message.addProperty("mobiles", "435"); message.addProperty("messageId", "123"); request.addSoapObject(message); request.setProperty(0, "connectionId"); when i use SoapUI with the second with the "connectionId" swaped it seem to work can anyone help. of have ideas. I have looked at just about every ksoap question out there and cant seem to find an answer?

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  • How to select all options from a drop list in php / mysql

    - by Mirage81
    Thanks to stackoverflow.com's frienly experts I've managed to create my first php + mysql application. The code searches a mysql database for last names and cities. The choices are made through two drop lists like these: Choose city: All cities Liverpool Manchester Choose last name: All last names Lennon Gallagher The code would return eg. all the Lennons living in Liverpool. However, I haven't been able to make the options "All cities" and "All last names" to work so that the code would return eg. all the Lennons living in any city or all the people living in Liverpool. So, how can that be done? The code so far: index.php <?php $conn = mysql_connect('localhost', 'user', 'password') or die("Connection failed"); mysql_select_db("database", $conn) or die("Switch database failed"); //this gets the cities from the database to the drop list $query = "SELECT DISTINCT city FROM user".mysql_real_escape_string($city); $result = mysql_query($query, $conn); $options=""; while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $city=$row["city"]; $options.="<OPTION VALUE=\"$city\">".$city; } //this gets the last names from the database to the drop list $query2 = "SELECT DISTINCT lastname FROM user".mysql_real_escape_string($lastname); $result2 = mysql_query($query2, $conn); $options2=""; while ($row2=mysql_fetch_array($result2)) { $lastname=$row2["lastname"]; $options2.="<OPTION VALUE=\"$lastname\">".$lastname; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" http-equiv="content-type"> <title>test</title> </head> <body> <form action="get.php" method="post"> <p> <select name="city"> <option value=0>Choose <option value=1>All cities <?=$options?> </select> </p> <p> <select name="lastname"> <option value=0>Choose <option value=1>All last names <?=$options2?> </select> </p> <p> <input value="Search" type="submit"> </p> </form> <br> </body> </html> get.php <?php $conn = mysql_connect('localhost', 'user', 'password') or die("Connection failed"); mysql_select_db("database", $conn) or die("Switch database failed"); $query = "SELECT * FROM user WHERE city = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['city'])."' AND lastname = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['lastname'])."'"; $result = mysql_query($query, $conn); echo $rowcount; $zerorows=true; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $zerorows=false; echo '<b>City: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[city]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Last name: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[lastname]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Information: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[information]).'<br />'.'<br />'; } if($zerorows) echo "No results"; mysql_close($conn); ?>

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  • Fluent Nhibernate - how do i specify table schemas when auto generating tables in SQL CE 4

    - by daffers
    I am using SQL CE as a database for running local and CI integration tests (normally our site runs on normal SQL server). We are using Fluent Nhibernate for our mapping and having it create our schema from our Mapclasses. There are only two classes with a one to many relationship between them. In our real database we use a non dbo schema. The code would not work with this real database at first until i added schema names to the Table() methods. However doing this broke the unit tests with the error... System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException : There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 1,Token line offset = 26,Token in error = User ] These are the classes and associatad MapClasses (simplified of course) public class AffiliateApplicationRecord { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } public virtual UserRecord KeyContact { get; private set; } public AffiliateApplicationRecord() { DateReceived = DateTime.Now; } public virtual void AddKeyContact(UserRecord keyContactUser) { keyContactUser.Affilates.Add(this); KeyContact = keyContactUser; } } public class AffiliateApplicationRecordMap : ClassMap<AffiliateApplicationRecord> { public AffiliateApplicationRecordMap() { Schema("myschema"); Table("Partner"); Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.CompanyName, "Name"); References(x => x.KeyContact) .Cascade.All() .LazyLoad(Laziness.False) .Column("UserID"); } } public class UserRecord { public UserRecord() { Affilates = new List<AffiliateApplicationRecord>(); } public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Forename { get; set; } public virtual IList<AffiliateApplicationRecord> Affilates { get; set; } } public class UserRecordMap : ClassMap<UserRecord> { public UserRecordMap() { Schema("myschema"); Table("[User]");//Square brackets required as user is a reserved word Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Forename); HasMany(x => x.Affilates); } } And here is the fluent configuraton i am using .... public static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard .Dialect<MsSqlCe40Dialect>() .ConnectionString(ConnectionString) .DefaultSchema("myschema")) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(typeof(AffiliateApplicationRecord).Assembly)) .ExposeConfiguration(config => new SchemaExport(config).Create(false, true)) .ExposeConfiguration(x => x.SetProperty("connection.release_mode", "on_close")) //This is included to deal with a SQLCE issue http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2361730/assertionfailure-null-identifier-fluentnh-sqlserverce .BuildSessionFactory(); } The documentation on this aspect of fluent is pretty weak so any help would be appreciated

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  • How can I implement a site with ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio) Suppose I want a basic MVC app with a controller, one view, and a simple model. What files would I need to create, and what would go into them?

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  • Changing backgroundcolor in listview (expandable listview)

    - by Stofke
    I'm trying to dynamically change a backgroundcolor in a part of a listview, I have on example that works fine in a listview when I try to replicate it in another part with an expandable listview it fails This piece of code works and displays a different color if a student is online or not ... map.put(KEY_FIRSTNAME, temp.firstName); map.put(KEY_NAME, temp.name); map.put(KEY_EMAIL, temp.email); map.put(KEY_ISONLINE, temp.isOnLine); // change image if student is online or not Log.d("demo", "is on line= " + temp.isOnLine); if (temp.isOnLine.equalsIgnoreCase("1")) { map.put(KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE, R.color.greenColor); } else { map.put(KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE, R.color.greyColor); } listItem.add(map); } myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.listViewTabLeerlingen); SimpleAdapter adapter = new SimpleAdapter(StudentTab.this, listItem, R.layout.list_item_student, new String[] { KEY_FIRSTNAME, KEY_NAME, KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE }, new int[] { R.id.firstNameTextView, R.id.lastNameTextView, R.id.logo }); myListView.setAdapter(adapter); the xml that goes along with it <ImageView android:id="@+id/logo" android:layout_width="85dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@color/greenColor" android:contentDescription="Image if student is online or not" android:src="@drawable/transparent_pixel" /> The above works fine however the following code (just part of the code) ... ArrayList<Map<String, Object>> children = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); for (int i = 0; i < _data.length(); i++) { try { JSONArray tmp = _data.getJSONArray(i); HashMap<String, Object> map = new HashMap<String, Object>(); // change image if student is online or not if (tmp.getString(3).equalsIgnoreCase("0")) { map.put(KEY_POINTS,R.color.redColor); }else{ map.put(KEY_POINTS,R.color.greenColor); } map.put(KEY_QUESTIONTEXT, tmp.getString(1)); map.put(KEY_ANSWER, tmp.getString(2)); children.add(map); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } childData.add(children); ... ... ArrayList<ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>> childData) { SimpleExpandableListAdapter listAdapter = new SimpleExpandableListAdapter( this, groupData, R.layout.list_item_results_students, new String[] { KEY_FIRSTNAME, KEY_NAME, KEY_ISJUIST }, new int[] { R.id.firstnameResults, R.id.nameResults, R.id.resultsTextView }, childData, R.layout.list_item_results_results, new String[] { KEY_QUESTIONTEXT, KEY_ANSWER, KEY_POINTS }, new int[] { R.id.questionTextView, R.id.answerTextTextView, R.id.score }); ExpandableListView myListView = (ExpandableListView) findViewById(R.id.listViewTabResultaten); myListView.setAdapter(listAdapter); with xml: <ImageView android:id="@+id/score" android:layout_width="16dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@color/greenColor" android:contentDescription="Image if student has correct answer" android:src="@drawable/transparent_pixel" /> I will get this error: 06-09 10:35:21.490: E/AndroidRuntime(4406): java.lang.ClassCastException: android.widget.ImageView cannot be cast to android.widget.TextView

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • CellTable + AsyncListViewAdapter<T>, stuck at 'loading' when paging

    - by Jaroslav Záruba
    Hi I'm trying to make CellTable, AsyncListViewAdapter<T> and SimplePager<T> working together. I managed to display my data, but whenever I click either "go to start" or "go to end" button I get that 'loading' indicator which stays there till the end of days. ( AsyncListViewAdapter<T>.onRangeChanged doesn't even get called this time.) As I have only single row in my data those two buttons should be (and appear to be) disabled. I went through the code-snippets in this thread, but I can't see nothing suspicions in what I've been doing. Is there some obvious answer to a rookie mistake? I shrinked my variable names, hopefully it won't wrap too much. protected class MyAsyncAdapter extends AsyncListViewAdapter<DTO> { @Override protected void onRangeChanged(ListView<DTO> v) { // doesn't get called on go2start/go2end :( Range r = v.getRange(); fetchData(r.getStart(), r.getLength()); } } private void addTable() { // table: CellTable<DTO> table = new CellTable<DTO>(10); table.addColumn(new Column<DTO, String>(new TextCell()) { @Override public String getValue(DTO namespace) { return namespace.getName(); } }, "Name"); // pager: SimplePager<DTO> pager = new SimplePager<DTO>(table); table.setPager(pager); adapter = new MyAsyncAdapter(); adapter.addView(table); // does not make any difference: // adapter.updateDataSize(0, false); // adapter.updateDataSize(10, true); VerticalPanel vPanel = new VerticalPanel(); vPanel.add(table); vPanel.add(pager); RootLayoutPanel.get().add(vPanel); } // success-handler of my fetching AsyncCallback @Override public void onSuccess(List<DTO> data) { // AsyncCallback<List<DTO>> has start field adapter.updateViewData(start, data.size(), data); if(data.size() < length) adapter.updateDataSize(start + data.size(), true); } Regards J. Záruba

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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  • Why don't I just build the whole web app in Javascript and Javascript HTML Templates?

    - by viatropos
    I'm getting to the point on an app where I need to start caching things, and it got me thinking... In some parts of the app, I render table rows (jqGrid, slickgrid, etc.) or fancy div rows (like in the New Twitter) by grabbing pure JSON and running it through something like Mustache, jquery.tmpl, etc. In other parts of the app, I just render the info in pure HTML (server-side HAML templates), and if there's searching/paginating, I just go to a new URL and load a new HTML page. Now the problem is in caching and maintainability. On one hand I'm thinking, if everything was built using Javascript HTML Templates, then my app would serve just an HTML layout/shell, and a bunch of JSON. If you look at the Facebook and Twitter HTML source, that's basically what they're doing (95% json/javascript, 5% html). This would make it so my app only needed to cache JSON (pages, actions, and/or records). Which means you'd hit the cache no matter if you were some remote api developer accessing a JSON api, or the strait web app. That is, I don't need 2 caches, one for the JSON, one for the HTML. That seems like it'd cut my cache store down in half, and streamline things a little bit. On the other hand, I'm thinking, from what I've seen/experienced, generating static HTML server-side, and caching that, seems to be much better performance wise cross-browser; you get the graphics instantly and don't have to wait that split-second for javascript to render it. StackOverflow seems to do everything in plain HTML, and you can tell... everything appears at once. Notice how though on twitter.com, the page is blank for .5-1 seconds, and the page chunks in: the javascript has to render the json. The downside with this is that, for anything dynamic (like endless scrolling, or grids), I'd have to create javascript templates anyway... so now I have server-side HAML templates, client-side javascript templates, and a lot more to cache. My question is, is there any consensus on how to approach this? What are the benefits and drawbacks from your experience of mixing the two versus going 100% with one over the other? Update: Some reasons that factor into why I haven't yet made the decision to go with 100% javascript templating are: Performance. Haven't formally tested, but from what I've seen, raw html renders faster and more fluidly than javascript-generated html cross-browser. Plus, I'm not sure how mobile devices handle dynamic html performance-wise. Testing. I have a lot of integration tests that work well with static HTML, so switching to javascript-only would require 1) more focused pure-javascript testing (jasmine), and 2) integrating javascript into capybara integration tests. This is just a matter of time and work, but it's probably significant. Maintenance. Getting rid of HAML. I love HAML, it's so easy to write, it prints pretty HTML... It makes code clean, it makes maintenance easy. Going with javascript, there's nothing as concise. SEO. I know google handles the ajax /#!/path, but haven't grasped how this will affect other search engines and how older browsers handle it. Seems like it'd require a significant setup.

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  • How to select all parent objects into DataContext using single LINQ query ?

    - by too
    I am looking for an answer to a specific problem of fetching whole LINQ object hierarchy using single SELECT. At first I was trying to fill as much LINQ objects as possible using LoadOptions, but AFAIK this method allows only single table to be linked in one query using LoadWith. So I have invented a solution to forcibly set all parent objects of entity which of list is to be fetched, although there is a problem of multiple SELECTS going to database - a single query results in two SELECTS with the same parameters in the same LINQ context. For this question I have simplified this query to popular invoice example: public static class Extensions { public static IEnumerable<T> ForEach<T>(this IEnumerable<T> collection, Action<T> func) { foreach(var c in collection) { func(c); } return collection; } } public IEnumerable<Entry> GetResults(AppDataContext context, int CustomerId) { return ( from entry in context.Entries join invoice in context.Invoices on entry.EntryInvoiceId equals invoice.InvoiceId join period in context.Periods on invoice.InvoicePeriodId equals period.PeriodId // LEFT OUTER JOIN, store is not mandatory join store in context.Stores on entry.EntryStoreId equals store.StoreId into condStore from store in condStore.DefaultIfEmpty() where (invoice.InvoiceCustomerId = CustomerId) orderby entry.EntryPrice descending select new { Entry = entry, Invoice = invoice, Period = period, Store = store } ).ForEach(x => { x.Entry.Invoice = Invoice; x.Invoice.Period = Period; x.Entry.Store = Store; } ).Select(x => x.Entry); } When calling this function and traversing through result set, for example: var entries = GetResults(this.Context); int withoutStore = 0; foreach(var k in entries) { if(k.EntryStoreId == null) withoutStore++; } the resulting query to database looks like (single result is fetched): SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The question is why there are two queries and how can I fetch LINQ objects without such hacks?

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  • jQuery gallery scrolling effect with ease

    - by Sebastian Otarola
    So, I got this page from a friend and I think the gallery is amazingly done. Too bad it's in Flash ; http://selected.com/en/#/collection/homme/ Now, I'm trying to replicate the effect with jQuery. I've made all the loco searches on google one could think of. Zooming the picture is not a problem, the problem lies within the scrolling, how they come together at the ease part. I'm looking for solution in how to make the thumbnail animate when you scroll the page, they drag behind and infront of each other in a very subtle way - I've got (With a lot of help from Whirl3d in the jQuery-irc channel) this for the scrollup/down part of the mouse but the scrolling goes haywire; I Thought I post it here where I've come many times to get answers to a lot of questions and code-errors. This is my first post in stackoverflow and I know you guys are geniuses! Give it a shot! Thanks in advance! jQuery Part $(document).ready(function() { var fronts=$(".front"); var backs=$(".back"); var tempScrollTop, currentScrollTop = 0; $(document).scroll(function () { currentScrollTop = $(document).scrollTop(); if (tempScrollTop < currentScrollTop) { //Scroll down fronts.animate({marginTop:"-=100"},{duration:500, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); backs.animate({marginTop:"-=100"}, {duration:300, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); console.log('scroll down'); } else if (tempScrollTop > currentScrollTop) { //scroll up fronts.animate({marginTop:"+=100"},{duration:500, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); backs.animate({marginTop:"+=100"}, {duration:300, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); console.log('scroll up'); } tempScrollTop = currentScrollTop ;}) ;}); The HTML <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.paigeharvey.net/assets/js/jquery.easing.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="gallery.js"></script> <title>Parallax testing image gallery</title> </head> <body> <div class="container"> <div class='box front'>First Group</div> <div class='box back'>First Group</div> <div class='box front'>First Group</div> <div class='box back'>First Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> <div class='box front'>Second Group</div> <div class='box back'>Second Group</div> <div class='box front'>Second Group</div> <div class='box back'>Second Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> <div class='box front'>Third Group</div> <div class='box back'>Third Group</div> <div class='box front'>Third Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> </div> </body> And finally the CSS Part .container {margin: auto; width: 410px; border: 1px solid red;} .box.front{border: 1px solid red;background-color:Black;color:white;z-Index:500;} .box.back {border: 1px solid green;z-Index:300;background-color:white;} .box {float:left; text-align:center; width:100px; height:100px;}

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  • ASP.Net/C# File Upload Progress Display

    - by Ioxp
    I am having a hard time figuring out how to do a "Please wait while file is uploading" message when the user submits the following form. So far the application works to specification with regards to checking files and uploading to the server. You will see some java script below, this is there to allow me to fake out the style of the file up load buttons so that it matches the rest of the site. I have tried to use the ASP.Net Ajax controls to do this however the updateprogress panel would not show up. In further reading it was explained that this has something to do with the Asynchronous transfer that the file upload control uses when you issue a PostedFile.SaveAs("filename") command. I also found a site that refereed to using an iframe to do the job. I'm not really sure if that's the best way to go about doing this or not so I'm asking you the professionals of stackoverflow for help to try and resolve this issue. I will be more than happy to post any spinets you need from my code to help me expedite a solution for this. <table border="0"> <tr> <td>File 1:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f1" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td>File 2:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f2" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" style="text-align:right;"><asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton1" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Images/Buttons/Upload_Files.gif" OnClick="Submit_Form" /></td> </tr> </table> <asp:Label ID="lblError" runat="server" Text=""></asp:Label> <script type="text/javascript"> var fakeFileUpload = document.createElement('div'); fakeFileUpload.className = 'fakefile'; var fakeInput = document.createElement('input'); fakeInput.style.width = '200px'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(fakeInput); var image = document.createElement('img'); image.src='../Images/Buttons/Browse.gif'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(image); var x = document.getElementsByTagName('input'); for (var i=0;i<x.length;i++) { if (x[i].type != 'file') continue; if (x[i].parentNode.className != 'fileinputs') continue; x[i].className = 'file hidden'; var clone = fakeFileUpload.cloneNode(true); x[i].parentNode.appendChild(clone); x[i].relatedElement = clone.getElementsByTagName('input')[0]; x[i].onchange = x[i].onmouseout = function () { this.relatedElement.value = this.value; } } </script>

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  • In a PHP project, how do you organize and access your helper objects?

    - by Pekka
    How do you organize and manage your helper objects like the database engine, user notification, error handling and so on in a PHP based, object oriented project? Say I have a large PHP CMS. The CMS is organized in various classes. A few examples: the database object user management an API to create/modify/delete items a messaging object to display messages to the end user a context handler that takes you to the right page a navigation bar class that shows buttons a logging object possibly, custom error handling etc. I am dealing with the eternal question, how to best make these objects accessible to each part of the system that needs it. my first apporach, many years ago was to have a $application global that contained initialized instances of these classes. global $application; $application->messageHandler->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); I then changed over to the Singleton pattern and a factory function: $mh =&factory("messageHandler"); $mh->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); but I'm not happy with that either. Unit tests and encapsulation become more and more important to me, and in my understanding the logic behind globals/singletons destroys the basic idea of OOP. Then there is of course the possibility of giving each object a number of pointers to the helper objects it needs, probably the very cleanest, resource-saving and testing-friendly way but I have doubts about the maintainability of this in the long run. Most PHP frameworks I have looked into use either the singleton pattern, or functions that access the initialized objects. Both fine approaches, but as I said I'm happy with neither. I would like to broaden my horizon on what is possible here and what others have done. I am looking for examples, additional ideas and pointers towards resources that discuss this from a long-term, real-world perspective. Also, I'm interested to hear about specialized, niche or plain weird approaches to the issue. Bounty I am following the popular vote in awarding the bounty, the answer which is probably also going to give me the most. Thank you for all your answers!

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  • Help with manipulating child/parent elements with jQuery

    - by Mohammad
    Currently I have this JQuery script var img = $(this); img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); which successfully turns the following: <img src="photo.jpg" alt="caption"> into this <div class="photo"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> <p>caption</p> </div> All is well unless the image has a link as a parent; <a href="#"><img since I want it to be correct html (I'm fussy) improving the resulting outcome bellow would be satisfactory <a href="#"> <div class="photo"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> <p>caption</p> </div> </a> to this: <div class="photo"> <a href="#"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> </a> <p><a href="#">caption</a></p> </div> </a> This is my jQuery script so far (which doesn't work bc I'm a noob) aha if(img.parent('a')){ var targetLink = img.parent('a').attr('href').val(); img.parent('a').wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent('div').append('<p><a href="'+targetLink+'">' + img.attr("alt") + '</p></a>'); }else{ img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); }; Any advice, or help will be greatly appreciated : ) Thank You! Update *Answer* (works but looks sloppy) I'm editing it atm; if(img.parent('a').length){ var targetLink = img.parent().attr('href'); img.parent().wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); var divTarget = img.parent('a').parent('div'); divTarget.append('<p><a href="'+targetLink+'">' + img.attr("alt") + '</p></a>'); }else{ img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); };

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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