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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • ASP.Net/C# File Upload Progress Display

    - by Ioxp
    I am having a hard time figuring out how to do a "Please wait while file is uploading" message when the user submits the following form. So far the application works to specification with regards to checking files and uploading to the server. You will see some java script below, this is there to allow me to fake out the style of the file up load buttons so that it matches the rest of the site. I have tried to use the ASP.Net Ajax controls to do this however the updateprogress panel would not show up. In further reading it was explained that this has something to do with the Asynchronous transfer that the file upload control uses when you issue a PostedFile.SaveAs("filename") command. I also found a site that refereed to using an iframe to do the job. I'm not really sure if that's the best way to go about doing this or not so I'm asking you the professionals of stackoverflow for help to try and resolve this issue. I will be more than happy to post any spinets you need from my code to help me expedite a solution for this. <table border="0"> <tr> <td>File 1:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f1" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td>File 2:&nbsp;</td> <td><div class="fileinputs"><input type="file" class="file" size="37" id="f2" runat="server" /></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" style="text-align:right;"><asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton1" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Images/Buttons/Upload_Files.gif" OnClick="Submit_Form" /></td> </tr> </table> <asp:Label ID="lblError" runat="server" Text=""></asp:Label> <script type="text/javascript"> var fakeFileUpload = document.createElement('div'); fakeFileUpload.className = 'fakefile'; var fakeInput = document.createElement('input'); fakeInput.style.width = '200px'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(fakeInput); var image = document.createElement('img'); image.src='../Images/Buttons/Browse.gif'; fakeFileUpload.appendChild(image); var x = document.getElementsByTagName('input'); for (var i=0;i<x.length;i++) { if (x[i].type != 'file') continue; if (x[i].parentNode.className != 'fileinputs') continue; x[i].className = 'file hidden'; var clone = fakeFileUpload.cloneNode(true); x[i].parentNode.appendChild(clone); x[i].relatedElement = clone.getElementsByTagName('input')[0]; x[i].onchange = x[i].onmouseout = function () { this.relatedElement.value = this.value; } } </script>

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  • How to list all duplicated rows which may include NULL columns?

    - by Yousui
    Hi guys, I have a problem of listing duplicated rows that include NULL columns. Lemme show my problem first. USE [tempdb]; GO IF OBJECT_ID(N'dbo.t') IS NOT NULL BEGIN DROP TABLE dbo.t END GO CREATE TABLE dbo.t ( a NVARCHAR(8), b NVARCHAR(8) ); GO INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('a', 'b'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('c', 'd'); INSERT t VALUES ('e', NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); INSERT t VALUES (NULL, NULL); GO Now I want to show all rows that have other rows duplicated with them, I use the following query. SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 which will give us the result: a b -------- -------- NULL NULL a b c d Now if I want to list all rows that make contribution to duplication, I use this query: WITH duplicate (a, b) AS ( SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 ) SELECT dbo.t.a, dbo.t.b FROM dbo.t INNER JOIN duplicate ON (dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) Which will give me the result: a b -------- -------- a b a b a b c d c d c d c d As you can see, all rows include NULLs are filtered. The reason I thought is that I use equal sign to test the condition(dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b), and NULLs cannot be compared use equal sign. So, in order to include rows that include NULLs in it in the last result, I have change the aforementioned query to WITH duplicate (a, b) AS ( SELECT a, b FROM dbo.t GROUP BY a, b HAVING count(*) > 1 ) SELECT dbo.t.a, dbo.t.b FROM dbo.t INNER JOIN duplicate ON (dbo.t.a = duplicate.a AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) OR (dbo.t.a IS NULL AND duplicate.a IS NULL AND dbo.t.b = duplicate.b) OR (dbo.t.b IS NULL AND duplicate.b IS NULL AND dbo.t.a = duplicate.a) OR (dbo.t.a IS NULL AND duplicate.a IS NULL AND dbo.t.b IS NULL AND duplicate.b IS NULL) And this query will give me the answer as I wanted: a b -------- -------- NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL a b a b a b c d c d c d c d Now my question is, as you can see, this query just include two columns, in order to include NULLs in the last result, you have to use many condition testing statements in the query. As the column number increasing, the condition testing statements you need in your query is increasing astonishingly. How can I solve this problem? Great thanks.

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  • jQuery gallery scrolling effect with ease

    - by Sebastian Otarola
    So, I got this page from a friend and I think the gallery is amazingly done. Too bad it's in Flash ; http://selected.com/en/#/collection/homme/ Now, I'm trying to replicate the effect with jQuery. I've made all the loco searches on google one could think of. Zooming the picture is not a problem, the problem lies within the scrolling, how they come together at the ease part. I'm looking for solution in how to make the thumbnail animate when you scroll the page, they drag behind and infront of each other in a very subtle way - I've got (With a lot of help from Whirl3d in the jQuery-irc channel) this for the scrollup/down part of the mouse but the scrolling goes haywire; I Thought I post it here where I've come many times to get answers to a lot of questions and code-errors. This is my first post in stackoverflow and I know you guys are geniuses! Give it a shot! Thanks in advance! jQuery Part $(document).ready(function() { var fronts=$(".front"); var backs=$(".back"); var tempScrollTop, currentScrollTop = 0; $(document).scroll(function () { currentScrollTop = $(document).scrollTop(); if (tempScrollTop < currentScrollTop) { //Scroll down fronts.animate({marginTop:"-=100"},{duration:500, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); backs.animate({marginTop:"-=100"}, {duration:300, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); console.log('scroll down'); } else if (tempScrollTop > currentScrollTop) { //scroll up fronts.animate({marginTop:"+=100"},{duration:500, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); backs.animate({marginTop:"+=100"}, {duration:300, queue:false, easing:"easeOutBack"}); console.log('scroll up'); } tempScrollTop = currentScrollTop ;}) ;}); The HTML <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.paigeharvey.net/assets/js/jquery.easing.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="gallery.js"></script> <title>Parallax testing image gallery</title> </head> <body> <div class="container"> <div class='box front'>First Group</div> <div class='box back'>First Group</div> <div class='box front'>First Group</div> <div class='box back'>First Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> <div class='box front'>Second Group</div> <div class='box back'>Second Group</div> <div class='box front'>Second Group</div> <div class='box back'>Second Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> <div class='box front'>Third Group</div> <div class='box back'>Third Group</div> <div class='box front'>Third Group</div> <br style="clear:both"/> </div> </body> And finally the CSS Part .container {margin: auto; width: 410px; border: 1px solid red;} .box.front{border: 1px solid red;background-color:Black;color:white;z-Index:500;} .box.back {border: 1px solid green;z-Index:300;background-color:white;} .box {float:left; text-align:center; width:100px; height:100px;}

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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • Help with refactoring PHP code

    - by Richard Knop
    I had some troubles implementing Lawler's algorithm but thanks to SO and a bounty of 200 reputation I finally managed to write a working implementation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2466928/lawlers-algorithm-implementation-assistance I feel like I'm using too many variables and loops there though so I am trying to refactor the code. It should be simpler and shorter yet remain readable. Does it make sense to make a class for this? Any advice or even help with refactoring this piece of code is welcomed: <?php /* * @name Lawler's algorithm PHP implementation * @desc This algorithm calculates an optimal schedule of jobs to be * processed on a single machine (in reversed order) while taking * into consideration any precedence constraints. * @author Richard Knop * */ $jobs = array(1 => array('processingTime' => 2, 'dueDate' => 3), 2 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 15), 3 => array('processingTime' => 4, 'dueDate' => 9), 4 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 16), 5 => array('processingTime' => 5, 'dueDate' => 12), 6 => array('processingTime' => 7, 'dueDate' => 20), 7 => array('processingTime' => 5, 'dueDate' => 27), 8 => array('processingTime' => 6, 'dueDate' => 40), 9 => array('processingTime' => 3, 'dueDate' => 10)); // precedence constrainst, i.e job 2 must be completed before job 5 etc $successors = array(2=>5, 7=>9); $n = count($jobs); $optimalSchedule = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { // jobs not required to precede any other job $arr = array(); foreach ($jobs as $k => $v) { if (false === array_key_exists($k, $successors)) { $arr[] = $k; } } // calculate total processing time $totalProcessingTime = 0; foreach ($jobs as $k => $v) { if (true === array_key_exists($k, $arr)) { $totalProcessingTime += $v['processingTime']; } } // find the job that will go to the end of the optimal schedule array $min = null; $x = 0; $lastKey = null; foreach($arr as $k) { $x = $totalProcessingTime - $jobs[$k]['dueDate']; if (null === $min || $x < $min) { $min = $x; $lastKey = $k; } } // add the job to the optimal schedule array $optimalSchedule[$lastKey] = $jobs[$lastKey]; // remove job from the jobs array unset($jobs[$lastKey]); // remove precedence constraint from the successors array if needed if (true === in_array($lastKey, $successors)) { foreach ($successors as $k => $v) { if ($lastKey === $v) { unset($successors[$k]); } } } } // reverse the optimal schedule array and preserve keys $optimalSchedule = array_reverse($optimalSchedule, true); // add tardiness to the array $i = 0; foreach ($optimalSchedule as $k => $v) { $optimalSchedule[$k]['tardiness'] = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($optimalSchedule as $k2 => $v2) { if ($j <= $i) { $optimalSchedule[$k]['tardiness'] += $v2['processingTime']; } $j++; } $i++; } echo '<pre>'; print_r($optimalSchedule); echo '</pre>';

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  • What is fastest way to convert bool to byte?

    - by Amir Rezaei
    What is fastest way to convert bool to byte? I want this mapping: False=0, True=1 Note: I don't want to use any if statement. Update: I don't want to use conditional statement. I don't want the CPU to halt or guess next statement. I want to optimize this code: private static string ByteArrayToHex(byte[] barray) { char[] c = new char[barray.Length * 2]; byte k; for (int i = 0; i < barray.Length; ++i) { k = ((byte)(barray[i] >> 4)); c[i * 2] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); k = ((byte)(barray[i] & 0xF)); c[i * 2 + 1] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); } return new string(c); } Update: The length of the array is very large, it's in terabyte order! Therefore I need to do optimization if possible. I shouldn't need to explain my self. The question is still valid. Update: I'm working on a project and looking at others code. That's why I didn't provide with the function at first place. I didn't want to spend time on explaining for people when they have opinion about the code. I shouldn’y need to provide in my question the background of my work, and a function that is not written by me. I have started to optimize it part by part. If I needed help with the whole function I would asked that in another question. That is why I asked this very simple at the beginning. Unfortunately people couldn’t keep themselves to the question. So please if you want to help answer the question. Update: For dose who want to see the point of this question. This example shows how two if statement are reduced from the code. byte A = k > 9 ; //If it was possible (k>9) == 0 || 1 c[i * 2] = A * (k + 0x30) - (A - 1) * (k + 0x30);

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  • retrieving value from database in java

    - by Akcire Atienza
    I am making AGAIN another program that retrieves the inputted data/values of fields from the database I created. but this time, my inputted value will be coming from the JtextField I created. I wonder what's wrong in here bec when I'm running it the output is always null. in this program i will convert the inputted value of my JTextField into int. here it is: public class ButtonHandler implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { if(e.getSource() == extendB) { ExtensionForm extend = new ExtensionForm(); extend.setVisible(true); } else if(e.getSource()== searchB) { //get text from the textField String guest = guestIDTF.getText(); //parse the string to integer for retrieving of data int id = Integer.parseInt(guest); GuestsInfo guestInfo = new GuestsInfo(id); Room roomInfo = new Room(id); String labels[] = {guestInfo.getFirstName()+" "+guestInfo.getLastName(),""+roomInfo.getRoomNo(),roomInfo.getRoomType(),guestInfo.getTime(),"11:00"}; for(int z = 0; z<labels.length; z++) { labelDisplay[z].setText(labels[z]); } in my second class it retrieves the inputted values of fields from the database I created here's the code: import java.sql.*; public class Room { private String roomType; private int guestID, roomNo; private Connection con; private PreparedStatement statement; public Room(){ try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); con = DriverManager.getConnection( "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/3moronsdb","root",""); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public Room(int guestsID) { this(); try{ statement = con.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM guest WHERE guestID=?"); statement.setInt(1, guestID); ResultSet rs = statement.executeQuery(); while(rs.next()){ this.guestID = rs.getInt(1); this.roomType = rs.getString(2); this.roomNo = rs.getInt(3); } }catch(Exception e){ System.out.print(e); } } //Constructor for setting rate public Room(String roomType, int roomNo) { this(); try { statement = con.prepareStatement("Insert into room(roomType, roomNo) values(?,?)"); statement.setString(1, roomType); statement.setInt(2, roomNo); statement.executeUpdate(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); return; } } //getting roomType public String getRoomType(){ return roomType; } //getting roomNo public int getRoomNo(){ return roomNo; } //getting guestID public int getGuestId(){ return guestID; } } i already insert some values in my 3moronsdb which are ( 1, Classic , 103). here's my TEST main class: public class TestMain { public static void main(String [] a){ GuestsInfo guest = new GuestsInfo(1); //note that this instantiation is the other class which i just ask the other day.. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12762835/retrieving-values-from-database-in-java) Room rum = new Room(1); System.out.print(rum.getRoomType()+" "+ guest.getFirstName()); } } when i'm running it it only gives me null output for the Room class but i am getting the output of the GuestsInfo class which is 'Ericka'. Can you help me guys? I know I ask this kind of problem yesterday but i really don't know what's wrong in here now..

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  • "C variable type sizes are machine dependent." Is it really true? signed & unsigned numbers ;

    - by claws
    Hello, I've been told that C types are machine dependent. Today I wanted to verify it. void legacyTypes() { /* character types */ char k_char = 'a'; //Signedness --> signed & unsigned signed char k_char_s = 'a'; unsigned char k_char_u = 'a'; /* integer types */ int k_int = 1; /* Same as "signed int" */ //Signedness --> signed & unsigned signed int k_int_s = -2; unsigned int k_int_u = 3; //Size --> short, _____, long, long long short int k_s_int = 4; long int k_l_int = 5; long long int k_ll_int = 6; /* real number types */ float k_float = 7; double k_double = 8; } I compiled it on a 32-Bit machine using minGW C compiler _legacyTypes: pushl %ebp movl %esp, %ebp subl $48, %esp movb $97, -1(%ebp) # char movb $97, -2(%ebp) # signed char movb $97, -3(%ebp) # unsigned char movl $1, -8(%ebp) # int movl $-2, -12(%ebp)# signed int movl $3, -16(%ebp) # unsigned int movw $4, -18(%ebp) # short int movl $5, -24(%ebp) # long int movl $6, -32(%ebp) # long long int movl $0, -28(%ebp) movl $0x40e00000, %eax movl %eax, -36(%ebp) fldl LC2 fstpl -48(%ebp) leave ret I compiled the same code on 64-Bit processor (Intel Core 2 Duo) on GCC (linux) legacyTypes: .LFB2: .cfi_startproc pushq %rbp .cfi_def_cfa_offset 16 movq %rsp, %rbp .cfi_offset 6, -16 .cfi_def_cfa_register 6 movb $97, -1(%rbp) # char movb $97, -2(%rbp) # signed char movb $97, -3(%rbp) # unsigned char movl $1, -12(%rbp) # int movl $-2, -16(%rbp)# signed int movl $3, -20(%rbp) # unsigned int movw $4, -6(%rbp) # short int movq $5, -32(%rbp) # long int movq $6, -40(%rbp) # long long int movl $0x40e00000, %eax movl %eax, -24(%rbp) movabsq $4620693217682128896, %rax movq %rax, -48(%rbp) leave ret Observations char, signed char, unsigned char, int, unsigned int, signed int, short int, unsigned short int, signed short int all occupy same no. of bytes on both 32-Bit & 64-Bit Processor. The only change is in long int & long long int both of these occupy 32-bit on 32-bit machine & 64-bit on 64-bit machine. And also the pointers, which take 32-bit on 32-bit CPU & 64-bit on 64-bit CPU. Questions: I cannot say, what the books say is wrong. But I'm missing something here. What exactly does "Variable types are machine dependent mean?" As you can see, There is no difference between instructions for unsigned & signed numbers. Then how come the range of numbers that can be addressed using both is different? I was reading http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2511246/how-to-maintain-fixed-size-of-c-variable-types-over-different-machines I didn't get the purpose of the question or their answers. What maintaining fixed size? They all are the same. I didn't understand how those answers are going to ensure the same size.

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  • How to draw a filled envelop like a cone on OpenGL (using GLUT)?

    - by ashishsony
    Hi, I am relatively new to OpenGL programming...currently involved in a project that uses freeglut for opengl rendering... I need to draw an envelop looking like a cone (2D) that has to be filled with some color and some transparency applied. Is the freeglut toolkit equipped with such an inbuilt functionality to draw filled geometries(or some trick)?? or is there some other api that has an inbuilt support for filled up geometries.. Thanks. Best Regards. Edit1: just to clarify the 2D cone thing... the envelop is the graphical interpretation of the coverage area of an aircraft during interception(of an enemy aircraft)...that resembles a sector of a circle..i should have mentioned sector instead.. and glutSolidCone doesnot help me as i want to draw a filled sector of a circle...which i have already done...what remains to do is to fill it with some color... how to fill geometries with color in opengl?? Thanks. Edit2: Ok thanks for replying...all the answers posted to this questions can work for my problem in a way.. But i would definitely would want to know a way how to fill a geometry with some color. Say if i want to draw an envelop which is a parabola...in that case there would be no default glut function to actually draw a filled parabola(or is there any??).. So to generalise this question...how to draw a custom geometry in some solid color?? Thanks. Edit3: The answer that mstrobl posted works for GL_TRIANGLES but for such a code: glBegin(GL_LINE_STRIP); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 0.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(200.0, 0.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(200.0, 200.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 200.0, 0.0); glColor3f(0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(0.0, 0.0, 0.0); glEnd(); which draws a square...only a wired square is drawn...i need to fill it with blue color. anyway to do it? if i put some drawing commands for a closed curve..like a pie..and i need to fill it with a color is there a way to make it possible... i dont know how its possible for GL_TRIANGLES... but how to do it for any closed curve?? Thanks.

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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  • How to measure a canvas that has auto height and width

    - by Wymmeroo
    Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • algorithm q: Fuzzy matching of structured data

    - by user86432
    I have a fairly small corpus of structured records sitting in a database. Given a tiny fraction of the information contained in a single record, submitted via a web form (so structured in the same way as the table schema), (let us call it the test record) I need to quickly draw up a list of the records that are the most likely matches for the test record, as well as provide a confidence estimate of how closely the search terms match a record. The primary purpose of this search is to discover whether someone is attempting to input a record that is duplicate to one in the corpus. There is a reasonable chance that the test record will be a dupe, and a reasonable chance the test record will not be a dupe. The records are about 12000 bytes wide and the total count of records is about 150,000. There are 110 columns in the table schema and 95% of searches will be on the top 5% most commonly searched columns. The data is stuff like names, addresses, telephone numbers, and other industry specific numbers. In both the corpus and the test record it is entered by hand and is semistructured within an individual field. You might at first blush say "weight the columns by hand and match word tokens within them", but it's not so easy. I thought so too: if I get a telephone number I thought that would indicate a perfect match. The problem is that there isn't a single field in the form whose token frequency does not vary by orders of magnitude. A telephone number might appear 100 times in the corpus or 1 time in the corpus. The same goes for any other field. This makes weighting at the field level impractical. I need a more fine-grained approach to get decent matching. My initial plan was to create a hash of hashes, top level being the fieldname. Then I would select all of the information from the corpus for a given field, attempt to clean up the data contained in it, and tokenize the sanitized data, hashing the tokens at the second level, with the tokens as keys and frequency as value. I would use the frequency count as a weight: the higher the frequency of a token in the reference corpus, the less weight I attach to that token if it is found in the test record. My first question is for the statisticians in the room: how would I use the frequency as a weight? Is there a precise mathematical relationship between n, the number of records, f(t), the frequency with which a token t appeared in the corpus, the probability o that a record is an original and not a duplicate, and the probability p that the test record is really a record x given the test and x contain the same t in the same field? How about the relationship for multiple token matches across multiple fields? Since I sincerely doubt that there is, is there anything that gets me close but is better than a completely arbitrary hack full of magic factors? Barring that, has anyone got a way to do this? I'm especially keen on other suggestions that do not involve maintaining another table in the database, such as a token frequency lookup table :). This is my first post on StackOverflow, thanks in advance for any replies you may see fit to give.

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • overwrite existing entity via bulkloader.Loader

    - by Ray Yun
    I was going to CSV based export/import for large data with app engine. My idea was just simple. First column of CSV would be key of entity. If it's not empty, that row means existing entity and should overwrite old one. Else, that row is new entity and should create new one. I could export key of entity by adding key property. class FrontExporter(bulkloader.Exporter): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Exporter.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('__key__', str, None), ('name', str, None), ]) But when I was trying to upload CSV, it had failed because bulkloader.Loader.generate_key() was just for "key_name" not "key" itself. That means all exported entities in CSV should have unique 'key_name' if I want to modify-and-reupload them. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('_UNUSED', lambda x: None), ('name', lambda x: x.decode('utf-8')), ]) def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key keystr = values[0] if len(keystr)==0: return None return keystr I also tried to load key directly without using generate_key(), but both failed. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('Key', db.Key), # not working. just create new one. ('__key__', db.Key), # same... So, how can I overwrite existing entity which has no 'key_name'? It would be horrible if I should give unique name to all entities..... From the first answer, I could handle this problem. :) def create_entity(self, values, key_name=None, parent=None): # if key_name is None: # print 'key_name is None' # else: # print 'key_name=<',key_name,'> : length=',len(key_name) Validate(values, (list, tuple)) assert len(values) == len(self._Loader__properties), ( 'Expected %d columns, found %d.' % (len(self._Loader__properties), len(values))) model_class = GetImplementationClass(self.kind) properties = { 'key_name': key_name, 'parent': parent, } for (name, converter), val in zip(self._Loader__properties, values): if converter is bool and val.lower() in ('0', 'false', 'no'): val = False properties[name] = converter(val) if key_name is None: entity = model_class(**properties) #print 'create new one' else: entity = model_class.get(key_name) for key, value in properties.items(): setattr(entity, key, value) #print 'overwrite old one' entities = self.handle_entity(entity) if entities: if not isinstance(entities, (list, tuple)): entities = [entities] for entity in entities: if not isinstance(entity, db.Model): raise TypeError('Expected a db.Model, received %s (a %s).' % (entity, entity.__class__)) return entities def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key if values[0] is None or values[0] in ('',' ','-','.'): return None return values[0]

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  • mysql timeout - c/C++

    - by user1262876
    Guys i'm facing a problem with this code, the problem is the timeout by timeout i mean the time it takes the program to tell me if the server is connected or not. If i use my localhost i get the answer fast, but when i connect to outside my localhost it takes 50sc - 1.5 min to response and the program frezz until it done. HOw can i fix the frezzing, or make my own timeout, like if still waiting after 50sc, tell me connection failed and stop? please use codes as help, becouse i would understand it better, thanks for any help i get PS: USING MAC #include "mysql.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> // Other Linker Flags: -lmysqlclient -lm -lz // just going to input the general details and not the port numbers struct connection_details { char *server; char *user; char *password; char *database; }; MYSQL* mysql_connection_setup(struct connection_details mysql_details) { // first of all create a mysql instance and initialize the variables within MYSQL *connection = mysql_init(NULL); // connect to the database with the details attached. if (!mysql_real_connect(connection,mysql_details.server, mysql_details.user, mysql_details.password, mysql_details.database, 0, NULL, 0)) { printf("Conection error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return connection; } MYSQL_RES* mysql_perform_query(MYSQL *connection, char *sql_query) { // send the query to the database if (mysql_query(connection, sql_query)) { printf("MySQL query error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return mysql_use_result(connection); } int main() { MYSQL *conn; // the connection MYSQL_RES *res; // the results MYSQL_ROW row; // the results row (line by line) struct connection_details mysqlD; mysqlD.server = (char*)"Localhost"; // where the mysql database is mysqlD.user = (char*)"root"; // the root user of mysql mysqlD.password = (char*)"123456"; // the password of the root user in mysql mysqlD.database = (char*)"test"; // the databse to pick // connect to the mysql database conn = mysql_connection_setup(mysqlD); // assign the results return to the MYSQL_RES pointer res = mysql_perform_query(conn, (char*) "SELECT * FROM me"); printf("MySQL Tables in mysql database:\n"); while ((row = mysql_fetch_row(res)) !=NULL) printf("%s - %s\n", row[0], row[1], row[2]); // <-- Rows /* clean up the database result set */ mysql_free_result(res); /* clean up the database link */ mysql_close(conn); return 0; }

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • Just a small problem regarding javscript BOM question

    - by caramel1991
    The question is this: Create a page with a number of links. Then write code that fires on the window onload event, displaying the href of each of the links on the page. And this is my solution <html> <body language="Javascript" onload="displayLink()"> <a href="http://www.google.com/">First link</a> <a href="http://www.yahoo.com/">Second link</a> <a href="http://www.msn.com/">Third link</a> <script type="text/javascript" language="Javascript"> function displayLink() { for(var i = 0;document.links[i];i++) { alert(document.links[i].href); } } </script> </body> </html> This is the answer provided by the book <html> <head> <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/javascript”> function displayLinks() { var linksCounter; for (linksCounter = 0; linksCounter < document.links.length; linksCounter++) { alert(document.links[linksCounter].href); } } </script> </head> <body onload=”displayLinks()”> <A href=”link0.htm” >Link 0</A> <A href=”link1.htm”>Link 2</A> <A href=”link2.htm”>Link 2</A> </body> </html> Before I get into the javascript tutorial on how to check user browser version or model,I was using the same method as the example,by acessing the length property of the links array for the loop,but after I read through the tutorial,I find out that I can also use this alternative ways,by using the method that the test condition will evalute to true only if the document.links[i] return a valid value,so does my code is written using the valid method??If it's not,any comment regarding how to write a better code??Correct me if I'm wrong,I heard some of the people say "a good code is not evaluate solely on whether it works or not,but in terms of speed,the ability to comprehend the code,and could posssibly let others to understand the code easily".Is is true??

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  • One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

    - by NC1
    My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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  • Reconciling a new BindingList into a master BindingList using LINQ

    - by Neo
    I have a seemingly simple problem whereby I wish to reconcile two lists so that an 'old' master list is updated by a 'new' list containing updated elements. Elements are denoted by a key property. These are my requirements: All elements in either list that have the same key results in an assignment of that element from the 'new' list over the original element in the 'old' list only if any properties have changed. Any elements in the 'new' list that have keys not in the 'old' list will be added to the 'old' list. Any elements in the 'old' list that have keys not in the 'new' list will be removed from the 'old' list. I found an equivalent problem here - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/161432/ - but it hasn't really been answered properly. So, I came up with an algorithm to iterate through the old and new lists and perform the reconciliation as per the above. Before anyone asks why I'm not just replacing the old list object with the new list object in its entirety, it's for presentation purposes - this is a BindingList bound to a grid on a GUI and I need to prevent refresh artifacts such as blinking, scrollbars moving, etc. So the list object must remain the same, only its updated elements changed. Another thing to note is that the objects in the 'new' list, even if the key is the same and all the properties are the same, are completely different instances to the equivalent objects in the 'old' list, so copying references is not an option. Below is what I've come up with so far - it's a generic extension method for a BindingList. I've put comments in to demonstrate what I'm trying to do. public static class BindingListExtension { public static void Reconcile<T>(this BindingList<T> left, BindingList<T> right, string key) { PropertyInfo piKey = typeof(T).GetProperty(key); // Go through each item in the new list in order to find all updated and new elements foreach (T newObj in right) { // First, find an object in the new list that shares its key with an object in the old list T oldObj = left.First(call => piKey.GetValue(call, null).Equals(piKey.GetValue(newObj, null))); if (oldObj != null) { // An object in each list was found with the same key, so now check to see if any properties have changed and // if any have, then assign the object from the new list over the top of the equivalent element in the old list foreach (PropertyInfo pi in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { if (!pi.GetValue(oldObj, null).Equals(pi.GetValue(newObj, null))) { left[left.IndexOf(oldObj)] = newObj; break; } } } else { // The object in the new list is brand new (has a new key), so add it to the old list left.Add(newObj); } } // Now, go through each item in the old list to find all elements with keys no longer in the new list foreach (T oldObj in left) { // Look for an element in the new list with a key matching an element in the old list if (right.First(call => piKey.GetValue(call, null).Equals(piKey.GetValue(oldObj, null))) == null) { // A matching element cannot be found in the new list, so remove the item from the old list left.Remove(oldObj); } } } } It can be called like this: _oldBindingList.Reconcile(newBindingList, "MyKey") However, I'm looking for perhaps a method of doing the same using LINQ type methods such as GroupJoin<, Join<, Select<, SelectMany<, Intersect<, etc. So far, the problem I've had is that each of these LINQ type methods result in brand new intermediary lists (as a return value) and really, I only want to modify the existing list for all the above reasons. If anyone can help with this, would be most appreciated. If not, no worries, the above method (as it were) will suffice for now. Thanks, Jason

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  • Ruby: Parse, replace, and evaluate a string formula

    - by Swartz
    I'm creating a simple Ruby on Rails survey application for a friend's psychological survey project. So we have surveys, each survey has a bunch of questions, and each question has one of the options participants can choose from. Nothing exciting. One of the interesting aspects is that each answer option has a score value associated with it. And so for each survey a total score needs to be calculated based on these values. Now my idea is instead of hard-coding calculations is to allow user add a formula by which the total survey score will be calculated. Example formulas: "Q1 + Q2 + Q3" "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 3" "(10 - Q1) + Q2 + (Q3 * 2)" So just basic math (with some extra parenthesis for clarity). The idea is to keep the formulas very simple such that anyone with basic math can enter them without resolving to some fancy syntax. My idea is to take any given formula and replace placeholders such as Q1, Q2, etc with the score values based on what the participant chooses. And then eval() the newly formed string. Something like this: f = "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 2" # some crazy formula for this survey values = {:Q1 => 1, :Q2 => 2, :Q3 => 2} # values for substitution result = f.gsub(/(Q\d+)/) {|m| values[$1.to_sym] } # string to be eval()-ed eval(result) So my questions are: Is there a better way to do this? I'm open to any suggestions. How to handle formulas where not all placeholders were successfully replaced (e.g. one question wasn't answered)? Ex: {:Q3 = 2} wasn't in values hash? My idea is to rescue eval()... any thoughts? How to get proper result? Should be 2.5, but due to integer arithmetic, it will truncate to 2. I can't expect people who provide the correct formula (e.g. / 2.0 ) to understand this nuance. I do not expect this, but how to best protect eval() from abuse (e.g. bad formula, manipulated values coming in)? Thank you!

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