Search Results

Search found 88206 results on 3529 pages for 'code coverage'.

Page 635/3529 | < Previous Page | 631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642  | Next Page >

  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

    Read the article

  • Reference 3.5 assembly from 4.0 winforms phail

    - by Dean Lunz
    So I have this utility library that is compiled as a dll under .net 3.5 and it is used by my asp.net 3.5 website. I created a .net 4.0 winforms app to push data onto the website. I want to make use of the functionality in the utilities library from this winforms app. The problem lies in that when I make reference to the utilities library and use the code in it intellisense barks at me saying that it can't find the objects in that library. The thing is I would switch the winforms app to 3.5 which fixes the problem, but I am using Tasks which require 4.0. And because my website and utilities library both run 3.5 and my website is hosted at godaddy that currently only supports asp.net 3.5 so compiling my utilities library under 4.0 for my winforms app is not going to work because it breaks my website. I have tried the app.config trick ala useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true" ... But that did not help. Obviously I could start a new utilities project for 4.0 and and copy the code files from the existing utilities library then reference the new 4.0 utilities library in my winforms app but, that strikes me as being rather overkill when all I want to do is reference the library and use it's functionality. Not to mention that I would have two utility libraries both containing the exact same code, and if I update the code in one I will need to make sure that the other is also updated. I could use add file as link, but you get the idea. So is there anything else I could try or any other way to solve or get around this? Or am I just going to have to break down and create a identical clone of the utilities library for 4.0.

    Read the article

  • Cocoa NSOutlineView and Drag-and-Drop

    - by bobthecoder
    I recently started another thread without an account, so I'm reposting the question here with an account so I can edit current links to the program so other users can follow this. I have also updated the code below. Here is my original question: I read the other post here on Outlineviews and DND, but I can't get my program to work. At the bottom of this post is a link to a zip of my project. Its very basic with only an outlineview and button. I want it to receive text files being dropped on it, but something is wrong with my code or connections. I tried following Apple's example code of their NSOutline Drag and Drop, but I'm missing something. 1 difference is my program is a document based program and their example isn't. I set the File's Owner to receive delegate actions, since that's where my code to handle drag and drop is, as well as a button action. Its probably a simple mistake, so could someone please look at it and tell me what I'm doing wrong? Here is a link to the file: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/7195844/OutlineDragDrop1.zip

    Read the article

  • python eval weirdness

    - by amadain
    Hi Folks I have the following code in one of my classes along with checks when the code does not eval: filterParam="self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" if eval(filterParam): print "Evalled" else: print "Not Evalled\nfilterParam\n'%s'\ntmpBPSS\n'%s'\nself.recipientMSISDN\n'%s'\nself.recipientIMSI\n'%s'" % (filterParam, tmpBPSS, self.recipientMSISDN, self.recipientIMSI) I am not getting anything to 'eval'. Here are the results: Not Evalled filterParam 'self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]' tmpBPSS 'bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' self.recipientMSISDN '919844000039' self.recipientIMSI '892000000' So I used the outputs from the above to check the code in a python shell and as you can see the code evalled correctly: >>> filterParam="recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" >>> tmpBPSS='bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' >>> recipientMSISDN='919844000039' >>> recipientIMSI='892000000' >>> if eval(filterParam): ... print "Evalled" ... else: ... print "Not Evalled" ... Evalled Am I off my rocker or what am I missing? A

    Read the article

  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

    Read the article

  • segfault during __cxa_allocate_exception in SWIG wrapped library

    - by lefticus
    While developing a SWIG wrapped C++ library for Ruby, we came across an unexplained crash during exception handling inside the C++ code. I'm not sure of the specific circumstances to recreate the issue, but it happened first during a call to std::uncaught_exception, then after a some code changes, moved to __cxa_allocate_exception during exception construction. Neither GDB nor valgrind provided any insight into the cause of the crash. I've found several references to similar problems, including: http://wiki.fifengine.de/Segfault_in_cxa_allocate_exception http://forums.fifengine.de/index.php?topic=30.0 http://code.google.com/p/osgswig/issues/detail?id=17 https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/libavg/+bug/241808 The overriding theme seems to be a combination of circumstances: A C application is linked to more than one C++ library More than one version of libstdc++ was used during compilation Generally the second version of C++ used comes from a binary-only implementation of libGL The problem does not occur when linking your library with a C++ application, only with a C application The "solution" is to explicitly link your library with libstdc++ and possibly also with libGL, forcing the order of linking. After trying many combinations with my code, the only solution that I found that works is the LD_PRELOAD="libGL.so libstdc++.so.6" ruby scriptname option. That is, none of the compile-time linking solutions made any difference. My understanding of the issue is that the C++ runtime is not being properly initialized. By forcing the order of linking you bootstrap the initialization process and it works. The problem occurs only with C applications calling C++ libraries because the C application is not itself linking to libstdc++ and is not initializing the C++ runtime. Because using SWIG (or boost::python) is a common way of calling a C++ library from a C application, that is why SWIG often comes up when researching the problem. Is anyone out there able to give more insight into this problem? Is there an actual solution or do only workarounds exist? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Complete failure to compile when include CSS Friendly Adapters

    - by david
    Background - I am trying to use the friendly adapters to override the default styling for the standard asp.net menu control that is used by an existing project. The existing project functions normally and compiles when requested without incident. Adding in the code for the for the CSS Friendly adapter and not only does it not compile, but it never even really starts. The Problem in Detail - I am using the sample code from Scott on this page: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2006/09/08/CSS-Control-Adapter-Toolkit-Update.aspx. The sample project compiles fine, just within the existing project does it fail. Fails without a line number or any other traceable info. It definately appears to be related to the CSSMenuAdapter.browser file, which has been referenced by others online as the cause of similar error. I have tried addind and readding, using as a dll, using as a code file in app code, etc. I am working with aspdotnetstorefront in this case, although it is not unique to them as I have found other references in software packages online. Only thing is, no one ever says what solved the issue. I am using Windows 7, VS2008 Express and SQL Express 2008 R2. The full error msg is: Error 10 Exception of type 'System.OutOfMemoryException' was thrown. Notice that there is no file, line, or column info. Really need some help here. I have been working on this a long time. This really should have tag: cssfriendlyadapter but I could not create that.

    Read the article

  • How much of STL is too much?

    - by Darius Kucinskas
    I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

    Read the article

  • Copy vector of values to vector of pairs in one line

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    I have the following types: struct X { int x; X( int val ) : x(val) {} }; struct X2 { int x2; X2() : x2() {} }; typedef std::pair<X, X2> pair_t; typedef std::vector<pair_t> pairs_vec_t; typedef std::vector<X> X_vec_t; I need to initialize instance of pairs_vec_t with values from X_vec_t. I use the following code and it works as expected: int main() { pairs_vec_t ps; X_vec_t xs; // this is not empty in the production code ps.reserve( xs.size() ); { // I want to change this block to one line code. struct get_pair { pair_t operator()( const X& value ) { return std::make_pair( value, X2() ); } }; std::transform( xs.begin(), xs.end(), back_inserter(ps), get_pair() ); } return 0; } What I'm trying to do is to reduce my copying block to one line with using boost::bind. This code is not working: for_each( xs.begin(), xs.end(), boost::bind( &pairs_vec_t::push_back, ps, boost::bind( &std::make_pair, _1, X2() ) ) ); I know why it is not working, but I want to know how to make it working without declaring extra functions and structs?

    Read the article

  • how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

    - by vjk2005
    The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

    Read the article

  • How do I create JavaScript escape sequences in PHP?

    - by ordinarytoucan
    I'm looking for a way to create valid UTF-16 JavaScript escape sequence characters (including surrogate pairs) from within PHP. I'm using the code below to get the UTF-32 code points (from a UTF-8 encoded character). This works as JavaScript escape characters (eg. '\u00E1' for 'á') - until you get into the upper ranges where you get surrogate pairs (eg '??' comes out as '\u1D715' but should be '\uD835\uDF15')... function toOrdinal($chr) { if (ord($chr{0}) >= 0 && ord($chr{0}) <= 127) { return ord($chr{0}); } elseif (ord($chr{0}) >= 192 && ord($chr{0}) <= 223) { return (ord($chr{0}) - 192) * 64 + (ord($chr{1}) - 128); } elseif (ord($chr{0}) >= 224 && ord($chr{0}) <= 239) { return (ord($chr{0}) - 224) * 4096 + (ord($chr{1}) - 128) * 64 + (ord($chr{2}) - 128); } elseif (ord($chr{0}) >= 240 && ord($chr{0}) <= 247) { return (ord($chr{0}) - 240) * 262144 + (ord($chr{1}) - 128) * 4096 + (ord($chr{2}) - 128) * 64 + (ord($chr{3}) - 128); } elseif (ord($chr{0}) >= 248 && ord($chr{0}) <= 251) { return (ord($chr{0}) - 248) * 16777216 + (ord($chr{1}) - 128) * 262144 + (ord($chr{2}) - 128) * 4096 + (ord($chr{3}) - 128) * 64 + (ord($chr{4}) - 128); } elseif (ord($chr{0}) >= 252 && ord($chr{0}) <= 253) { return (ord($chr{0}) - 252) * 1073741824 + (ord($chr{1}) - 128) * 16777216 + (ord($chr{2}) - 128) * 262144 + (ord($chr{3}) - 128) * 4096 + (ord($chr{4}) - 128) * 64 + (ord($chr{5}) - 128); } } How do I adapt this code to give me proper UTF-16 code points? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Proper Usage of SqlConnection in .NET

    - by Jojo
    Hi guys, I just want an opinion on the proper usage or a proper design with regards to using SqlConnection object. Which of the 2 below is the best use: A data provider class whose methods (each of them) contain SqlConnection object (and disposed when done). Like: IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } or SqlConnection connection; // initialized in constructor IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Or is there a better approach than this? I have a focused web crawler type of application and this application will crawl 50 or more websites simultaneously (multithreaded) with each website contained in a crawler object and each crawler object has an instance of a data provider class (above). Please advise. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

    Read the article

  • Properties vs. Fields: Need help grasping the uses of Properties over Fields.

    - by pghtech
    First off, I have read through a list of postings on this topic and I don't feel I have grasped properties because of what I had come to understand about encapsulation and field modifiers (private, public..ect). One of the main aspects of C# that I have come to learn is the importance of data protection within your code by the use of encapsulation. I 'thought' I understood that to be because of the ability of the use of the modifiers (private, public, internal, protected). However, after learning about properties I am sort of torn in understanding not only properties uses, but the overall importance/ability of data protection (what I understood as encapsulation) within C#. To be more specific, everything I have read when I got to properties in C# is that you should try to use them in place of fields when you can because of: 1) they allow you to change the data type when you can't when directly accessing the field directly. 2) they add a level of protection to data access However, from what I 'thought' I had come to know about the use of field modifiers did #2, it seemed to me that properties just generated additional code unless you had some reason to change the type (#1) - because you are (more or less) creating hidden methods to access fields as opposed to directly. Then there is the whole modifiers being able to be added to Properties which further complicates my understanding for the need of properties to access data. I have read a number of chapters from different writers on "properties" and none have really explained a good understanding of properties vs. fields vs. encapsulation (and good programming methods). Can someone explain: 1) why I would want to use properties instead of fields (especially when it appears I am just adding additional code 2) any tips on recognizing the use of properties and not seeing them as simply methods (with the exception of the get;set being apparent) when tracing other peoples code? 3) Any general rules of thumb when it comes to good programming methods in relation to when to use what? Thanks and sorry for the long post - I didn't want to just ask a question that has been asked 100x without explaining why I am asking it again.

    Read the article

  • BN_hex2bn magically segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

    Read the article

  • Python - Open default mail client using mailto, with multiple recipients

    - by victorhooi
    Hi, I'm attempting to write a Python function to send an email to a list of users, using the default installed mail client. I want to open the email client, and give the user the opportunity to edit the list of users or the email body. I did some searching, and according to here: http://www.sightspecific.com/~mosh/WWW_FAQ/multrec.html It's apparently against the RFC spec to put multiple comma-delimited recipients in a mailto link. However, that's the way everybody else seems to be doing it. What exactly is the modern stance on this? Anyhow, I found the following two sites: http://2ality.blogspot.com/2009/02/generate-emails-with-mailto-urls-and.html http://www.megasolutions.net/python/invoke-users-standard-mail-client-64348.aspx which seem to suggest solutions using urllib.parse (url.parse.quote for me), and webbrowser.open. I tried the sample code from the first link (2ality.blogspot.com), and that worked fine, and opened my default mail client. However, when I try to use the code in my own module, it seems to open up my default browser, for some weird reason. No funny text in the address bar, it just opens up the browser. The email_incorrect_phone_numbers() function is in the Employees class, which contains a dictionary (employee_dict) of Employee objects, which themselves have a number of employee attributes (sn, givenName, mail etc.). Full code is actually here (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2963975/python-converting-csv-to-objects-code-design) from urllib.parse import quote import webbrowser .... def email_incorrect_phone_numbers(self): email_list = [] for employee in self.employee_dict.values(): if not PhoneNumberFormats.standard_format.search(employee.telephoneNumber): print(employee.telephoneNumber, employee.sn, employee.givenName, employee.mail) email_list.append(employee.mail) recipients = ', '.join(email_list) webbrowser.open("mailto:%s?subject=%s&body=%s" % (recipients, quote("testing"), quote('testing')) ) Any suggestions? Cheers, Victor

    Read the article

  • Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

    - by user310291
    It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

    Read the article

  • How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

    - by Boydski
    I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

    Read the article

  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

    Read the article

  • Returning a CSS element

    - by TMP
    Is there a way to return a CSS element? I was using Adobe Edge and adding some of my own code in their code tab, but in order to create boundaries I would need to keep track of margin-top or margin-left. The following code works to move the element "woo" but I'm not sure how to call the elements to add something like "|| sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left"0px"}) to the move left code. //Move RIGHT if (e.which == 39) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"+=10px"}); } //Move UP else if (e.which == 38) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"-=10px"}); } //Move Left else if (e.which == 37) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"-=10px"}); } //Move DOWN else if (e.which == 40) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"+=10px"}); } EDIT: I changed the Left if statement to the following: else if (e.which == 37 && ($("woo").css("margin-left")>0)) { It seems to be working to some extent except for now it won't move left at all! I tried doing <0 too in case I was screwing up a sign but it won't let me move the element left either.

    Read the article

  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • [C#][XNA 3.1] How can I host two different XNA windows inside one Windows Form?

    - by secutos
    I am making a Map Editor for a 2D tile-based game. I would like to host two XNA controls inside the Windows Form - the first to render the map; the second to render the tileset. I used the code here to make the XNA control host inside the Windows Form. This all works very well - as long as there is only one XNA control inside the Windows Form. But I need two - one for the map; the second for the tileset. How can I run two XNA controls inside the Windows Form? While googling, I came across the terms "swap chain" and "multiple viewports", but I can't understand them and would appreciate support. Just as a side note, I know the XNA control example was designed so that even if you ran 100 XNA controls, they would all share the same GraphicsDevice - essentially, all 100 XNA controls would share the same screen. I tried modifying the code to instantiate a new GraphicsDevice for each XNA control, but the rest of the code doesn't work. The code is a bit long to post, so I won't post it unless someone needs it to be able to help me. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Getting Started with Ruby & Ruby on Rails

    - by JakeTheSnake
    Some background: I'm a jack-of-all traits, one of which is programming. I learned VB6 through Excel and PHP for creating websites and so far it's worked out just fine for me. I'm not CS major or even mathematically inclined - logic is what interests me. Current status: I'm willing to learn new and more powerful languages; my first foray into such a route is learning Ruby. I went to the main Ruby website and did the interactive intro. (by the way, I'm currently getting redirected to google.com when I try the link...it's happening to other websites as well...is my computer infected?) I liked what I learned and wanted to get started using Ruby to create websites. I downloaded InstantRails and installed it; everything so far has been fine - the program starts up just fine, and I can test some Ruby code in the console. However my troubles begin when I try and view a web page with Ruby code present. Lastly, my problem: As in PHP, I can browse to the .php file directly and through using PHP tags and some simple 'echo' statements I can be on my way in making dynamic web pages. However with the InstantRails app working, accessing a .rb or .rhtml page doesn't produce similar results. I made a simple text file named 'test.rb' and put basic HTML tags in there (html, head, body) and the Ruby tags <%= and % with some ruby code inside. The web page actually shows the tags and the code - as if it's all just plain HTML. I take it Ruby isn't parsing the page before it is displayed to the user, but this is where my lack of understanding of the Ruby environment stops me short. Where do I go from here?

    Read the article

  • Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

    - by erlord
    Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

    Read the article

  • SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

    - by Stefan
    Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642  | Next Page >